Class 10

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Marathi Solutions Aksharbharati 4 उपास Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10th Marathi Aksharbharati Chapter 4 उपास Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Std 10 Marathi Chapter 4 Question Answer

Marathi Aksharbharati Std 10 Digest Chapter 4 उपास Textbook Questions and Answers

प्रश्न 1.
आकृत्या पूर्ण करा.



उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
कारणे शोधा.
(अ) वजन कमी करण्यासाठी न बोलण्याचा उपाय पंतांना जमणार नव्हता, कारण ………………………… .
उत्तरः
वजन कमी करण्यासाठी न बोलण्याचा उपाय पंतांना जमणार नव्हता, कारण पंत टेलिफोन ऑपरेटर म्हणून नोकरी करत असल्यामुळे त्यांना दिवसभर बोलावेच लागत होते. न बोलता ते काम करू शकणार नव्हते व काम केले नाही तर खाणार काय? म्हणून.

(आ) बाबा बर्वे पंतांच्या समाचाराला आले नाहीत, कारण ………………………… .
उत्तर:
बाबा बर्वे पंतांच्या समाचाराला आले नाहीत कारण उपास हे त्यांचे खास राखीव कुरण होते.

प्रश्न 3.
पाठाधारे खालील संकल्पनांचा अर्थ स्पष्ट करा.
(अ) भीष्म प्रतिज्ञा
(आ) बाळसेदार भाज्या
(इ) वजनाचा मार्ग भलत्याच काट्यातून जातो
(ई) असामान्य मनोनिग्रह
उत्तर:
(i) भीष्म प्रतिज्ञा : पंतांनी आपले वजन कमी करण्याचे ठरवल्यावर मित्रांकडून वेगवेगळ्या प्रतिक्रिया येऊ लागल्या. त्यांचे एकशे एक्क्याऐंशी पौंड वजन पाहून त्यांची झोप उडाली. परंतु पंतांची झोप उडाली यावर रात्री घोरण्यामुळे त्याच्या धर्मपत्नीचा विश्वास नव्हता. एकूण सर्वांनीच त्यांची चेष्टा केल्यावर त्यांनी ‘दोन महिन्यात पन्नास पौंड वजन कमी करून दाखवीन तर खरा!’ अशी भीष्मप्रतिज्ञा केली म्हणजेच वजन कमी करण्याचा ठाम निश्चय पंतांनी केला.

(ii) बाळसेदार भाज्या : पंतांच्या ‘डाएटच्या’ बाबतीतला कुटुंबाचा उत्साह अवर्णनीय होता. रोज काही काही चमत्कारिक पदार्थ त्यांच्या पानात पडायला लागले. बाळसेदार भाज्यांची स्वयंपाकघरातून हकालपट्टी झाली. म्हणजेच कोबी, कॉलिफ्लॉवर अशा बाळसेदार भाज्यांमुळे पंतांचे वजन वाढेल असे वाटल्यामुळे त्या भाज्या कुटुंबाने आणणे सोडून दिले. शिवाय वजन कमी व्हावे म्हणून शेवग्याच्या शेंगा, पडवळ, भेंडी, चवळीच्या शेंगा अशा सडपातळ भाज्या खाणे सुरू केले.

(iii) वजनाचा मार्ग भलत्याच काट्यातून जातो : पंतांनी वजन घटवण्यासाठी आहारशास्त्राची पुस्तके वाचली. चरबीयुक्त द्रव्ये, प्रोटीनयुक्त पदार्थ या शब्दांबद्दलची त्यांची आस्था वाढली, त्यांनी मित्रांचे सल्ले पाळले उदा. दुपारी झोपणे सोडा, पत्ते खेळणे सोडा, रनिंग करा, बोलणे सोडा, तोंडावर ताबा ठेवा, तूप, लोणी, तळलेले पदार्थ खाणे सोडा, दोरीवरच्या उड्या मारा वगैरे, पंतांनी एक महिन्याचा उपास, निराहार, शास्त्रोक्त आहार, दोरीवरच्या उड्या इत्यादी उग्र साधना करूनही पंताचे वजन झाले, ‘एकशे ब्याण्णव पौंड’, त्यामुळे त्यांनी यापुढे जन्मात डाएटच्या आहारी न जाण्याचे ठरवले. कारण त्यांच्या मते एवढे करूनही वजन काही कमी झाले नाही, कारण वजनाचा मार्ग भलत्याच काट्यातून जातो.

(iv) असामान्य मनोनिग्रहः- मित्र मंडळींचे डाएट बाबतीतले विविध सल्ले पंत पाळत होते. त्यानंतर आचार्य बाबा बर्वे यांच्याकडून मौन पाळण्याचा, तोंडावर ताबा ठेवा, बोलणं सोडा हे सल्ले मिळाल्यावर पंतांनी बोलणं सोडणं शक्य नसल्याचे कबूल केलं. कारण ते टेलिफोन ऑपरेटर होते. मग बाबा म्हणाले की “मग कसलं वजन उतरवणार तुम्ही?” यावर पंतांनी चिडून निश्चय केला बस्स. वजन उतरेपर्यंत उपास! काटकुळे झाल्याची स्वप्न त्यांना पडू लागली, भरल्या ताटावरून ते उठू लागले, बिनासाखरेचा आणि बिनदुधाचाच काय बिनचहाचा चहा ते पिऊ लागले.

साखर पाहून त्यांच्या अंगाचा तिळपापड होई, ते फळांवर जगू लागले, दोरीवरच्या उड्या मारू लागले, कचेरी सुटल्यावर गिरगाव रस्त्याने धावू लागले. पंधरवडाभरात फक्त दोन वेळा साखरभात, एकदा कोळंबीभात, एकदा नागपुरी वडाभात, एवढे अपवाद वगळता त्यांनी भाताला स्पर्श केला नव्हता. पंतांच्या उपासाची चेष्टा करणाऱ्यांनाही पंतांमधील फरक जाणवत होता. पंतांना भीती वाटत होती ती प्रशस्तीने मूठभर मांस वाढण्याची परंतु त्यांचा असामान्य मनोनिग्रह आणि जीभेवर ताबा असल्यामुळे त्यांना वीस ते पंचवीस पौंड वजन कमी होण्याची अपेक्षा होती.

प्रश्न 4.
खालील शब्दसमूहासाठी पाठातून एक शब्द शोधा.
(अ) ठरवलेले व्रत मध्येच सोडणे – [           ]
(आ) वजन घटवण्यासाठी आहार बदलण्याची कल्पना – [           ]
(इ) भाषेचा (नदीसारखा) प्रवाह – [           ]
उत्तर:
(अ) ठरवलेले व्रत मध्येच सोडणे – [व्रतभंग]
(आ) वजन घटवण्यासाठी आहार बदलण्याची कल्पना – [आहारपरिवर्तन]
(इ) भाषेचा (नदीसारखा) प्रवाह – [वाक्प्रवाह]

प्रश्न 5.
अचूक शब्द ओळखून लिहा.
(अ) वडीलांसोबत/वडिलांसोबत/वडिलानसोबत/वडीलानसोबत
(आ) तालमिला/तालमीला/ताल्मीला/ताल्मिला
(इ) गारहाणी/गान्हाणि/गा-हाणी/ग्राहाणी
उत्तर:
(i) वडिलांसोबत
(ii) तालमीला
(iii) गा-हाणी

प्रश्न 6.
खालील वाक्प्रचार व त्यांचे अर्थ यांच्या जोड्या जुळवा.

उत्तर:
(i – इ),
(ii – ई),
(iii – अ),
(iv – आ)

प्रश्न 7.
स्वमत.
(अ) दोरीवरच्या उड्या मारण्याच्या प्रसंगातील तुम्हांला समजलेला विनोद स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
पंतांच्याखाजगी उपोषणाची हकीकत चाळीत जाहीर झाल्यानंतर चाळीतील मित्रमंडळींनी त्यांना सल्ले दयायला सुरुवात केली. कु. कमलिनी केंकरेंनी दोरीवरच्या उड्या मारल्यास वजन घटते असा सल्ला दिला. प्रत्यक्षात पंतांनी जेव्हा दोरीवरच्या उड्या मारण्यास सुरुवात केली. तेव्हा पहिली उडी शेवटची ठरली. त्यांच्या आठ गुणिले दहाच्या खोलीत पूर्ण दोरी फिरवणे शक्य नव्हते. त्यामुळे पहिल्या उडीतच दोरी ड्रेसिंग टेबलवरच्या तेलाच्या बाटल्या औषधाच्या बाटल्या खाली घेऊन आली. दुसरी उडी अर्धवट मारण्याच्या प्रयत्नातच ती आचार्य बाबा बर्वेच्या गळ्यात पडली. त्यांचा आधीच पंतांवर राग होता, त्यात ही दोरी गळ्यात पडली त्यामुळे त्यांना नको-नको ऐकून घ्यावे लागले. अशा प्रकारे दोरीवरच्या प्रत्येक उडीला अडथळे येत होते आणि उड्या मारणे शक्य होत नव्हते.ही हास्यास्पद गोष्ट ठरली.

(आ) पंतांच्या उपासाबाबत त्यांच्या पत्नीचा अवर्णनीय उत्साह तुमच्या शब्दांत वर्णन करा.
उत्तर:
पंतांनी वजन कमी करण्यासाठी आहारपरिवर्तन करण्याचे ठरवल्यावर त्यांच्या कुटुंबाचा उत्साह अवर्णनीय होता. रोज काही काही चमत्कारिक पदार्थ पंतांच्या पानात पडायला लागले. एके दिवशी नुसती पडवळे उकडून त्यांनी पंतांना खायला घातली. शेवग्याच्या शेंगा, पडवळ, भेंडी, चवळीच्या शेंगा वगैरे सडपातळ भाज्यांचा खुराक पंतांना देणे त्यांनी चालू केला. कोबी, कॉलिफ्लॉ वर वगैरे बाळसेदार मंडळींची स्वयंपाक घरातून हकालपट्टी झाली. सकाळचा चहा देखील पूर्वीसारखा राहिला नाही. अशा प्रकारे पंतांच्या पत्नीचा अवर्णनीय उत्साह दिसून आला.

(इ) पाठातील तुम्हाला सर्वांत आवडलेला विनोद कोणता? तो का आवडला ते स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तर:
पंतांनी असामान्य मनोनिग्रह आणि जिव्हनियंत्रणानंतर कमीत कमी वीस ते पंचवीस पौंडानी वजन घटेल अशी खात्री बाळगली होती. परंतु वजन काट्यावर वजन करताच महिन्याभरापूर्वी ज्या वजन काट्याने त्यांचे वजन एकशे एक्याऐंशी पौंड दाखवले होते त्याच वजन काट्याने त्यांचे वजन आज एकशे व्याण्णव पौंड दाखवले. शिवाय ‘आप बहुत समझदार और गंभीर है।’ असे भविष्यही दाखवले. पंत एकीकडे पौष्टिक सात्त्विक आहार घेतात. लिंबाचा रस, फलाहार, दूध व दुसरीकडे पंधरा दिवसात चार वेळा भात खाऊन तो अपवाद समजतात आणि वजन कमी झाले असेल अशी खात्री बाळगतात, हा विनोद मला सर्वांत जास्त आवडला.

(ई) तुम्ही एखादा संकल्प केला आणि तो पूर्ण केला नाही तर कुटुंबातील व्यक्ती कोणत्या प्रतिक्रिया व्यक्त करतील, याची कल्पना करून लिहा.
उत्तरः
नववीची परीक्षा झाली व मी पास होऊन दहावीच्या वर्गात गेले. यावर्षी काहीही करून सकाळी लवकर उठून अभ्यास करायचा असा मी संकल्प केला. नुकतीच मे महिन्याची सुट्टी अनुभवलेली असल्यामुळे लवकर उठायची सवय मोडली होती. आईला मी माझ्या संकल्पाविषयी सांगितले. दुसऱ्या दिवसापासून आईने मला सकाळी पाच वाजता उठवायला सुरुवात केली. पहिल्या दिवशी नवा उत्साह असल्यामुळे मी शहाण्या बाळासारखी उठून बसले.

शाळा सुरू झाल्यानंतर सुरुवातीला मैत्रिणीबरोबरच्या गप्पा, खेळ, शाळेतील अभ्यास या सर्वांमुळे मला माझ्या संकल्पाविषयी विसर पडू लागला. इतरांबरोबर मजा करणे कमी झाले. कोणतीही गोष्ट करताना मी यंदा दहावीत आहे याची जाणीव करून दिली जाई. सकाळी लवकर उठून अभ्यास करण्याचा माझा संकल्प आई विसरली नव्हती. आईनेच एकदा घरातील सर्वांच्या देखत माझी चेष्टा केली, घरातील लहान भावंडेही माझी मस्करी करू लागली. खेळणे, टि.व्ही. पाहणे हे सारेच मला पारखे झाले. मग मात्र मी निश्चय केला, की आपण कुणाच्याच चेष्टेचा विषय बनू नये, मी केलेला संकल्प पूर्ण करण्यासाठी मनाची तयारी केली व नियमित लवकर उठून अभ्यास नियमित करू लागले.

Marathi Akshar Bharati Class 10 Textbook Solutions Chapter 4 उपास Additional Important Questions and Answers

प्रश्न १. पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा.
कृती १: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
काय ते लिहा.
उत्तर:
(i) पंतांची चाळीत जाहीर झालेली गोष्ट – [खाजगी उपोषण]
(ii) पंतांच्या डोळ्यांपुढे रात्रंदिवस नाचत होते – [एकशे एक्क्याऐंशी पौंड वजन असलेले कार्ड]

प्रश्न 3.
एका वाक्यात उत्तरे लिहा.
(i) पंतांनी कोणती भीष्मप्रतिज्ञा केली?
उत्तर:
“दोन महिन्यात पन्नास पौंड वजन कमी करून दाखवीन तर खरा!” अशी भीष्मप्रतिज्ञा पंतांनी केली होती.

(ii) कोणत्या विचाराने पंतांची झोप उडाली?
उत्तर:
वजन कमी झाले पाहिजे, या विचाराने पंतांची झोप उडाली.

(iii) पंतांच्या धर्मपत्नीचा कशावर अजिबात विश्वास नव्हता?
उत्तर:
पंत पूर्वीसारखे गाढ झोपत नाहीत यावर त्यांच्या धर्मपत्नीचा अजिबात विश्वास नव्हता.

(iv) पंतांना ताटातले पदार्थ न दिसता काय दिसू लागल्या?
उत्तर:
पंतांना ताटातले पदार्थ न दिसता नुसत्या ‘कॅलरीज’ दिसू लागल्या. उताऱ्यानुसार घटनांचा क्रम लावा. वजन उतरवण्याच्या शास्त्रात पारंगत झालेले तज्ज्ञ पंतांना भेटू लागले. चाळीतल्या लोकांनी पंतांच्या उपासाची अवहेलना केली. पंतांच्या खाजगी उपोषणाची हकीकत चाळीत जाहीर झाली.

(iv) पंतांनी दोन महिन्यात पन्नास पौंड वजन कमी करून दाखवीन अशी भीष्मप्रतिज्ञा केली.
उत्तर:
(i) पंतांच्या खाजगी उपोषणाची हकीकत चाळीत जाहीर झाली.
(ii) पंतांनी दोन महिन्यात पन्नास पौंड वजन कमी करून दाखवीन! अशी भीष्मप्रतिज्ञा केली.
(iii) वजन उतरवण्याच्या शास्त्रात पारंगत झालेले तज्ज्ञ पंतांना भेटू लागले.
(iv) चाळीतल्या लोकांनी पंतांच्या उपासाची अवहेलना केली.

कृती २ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
उत्तरे लिहा.
उत्तर:
(i) पंतांचे वजन – [एकशे एक्क्याऐंशी पौंड]
(ii) चाळीतल्या लोकांनी पंतांना दिलेला सल्ला – [डाएटचा]

प्रश्न 2.
खालील शब्द मराठीत स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तर:
(i) डाएट – नेहमीचा आहार (आहारावर निबंध)
(ii) प्रोटीन – दूध, अंडी, मांस इ. मधील पोषक द्रव्य
(iii) कॅलरी – अन्नापासून मिळणाऱ्या शक्तीचे (ऊर्जेचे) प्रमाण
(iv) पौंड – वजनाचे एक माप

प्रश्न 3.
कोण कोणास म्हणाले ते लिहा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 4.
कोण ते लिहा.
उत्तर:
(i) डाएटचा सल्ला देणारी चाळीतील व्यक्ती – [सोकाजी त्रिलोकेकर]
(ii) पंतांना दुरुत्तरे करणारी – [पंतांची धर्मपत्नी]

प्रश्न 5.
चूक की बरोबर ते लिहा.
(i) चाळीतल्या लोकांनी पंतांच्या उपासाची अवहेलना केली.
(ii) प्रोटीनयुक्त पदार्थ, चरबीयुक्त पदार्थ पंत खाऊ लागले.
(iii) वजन कमी झाले पाहिजे, या विचाराने पंतांची झोप उडाली.
(iv) आहार शास्त्रातील तज्ज्ञ व्यक्तींना पंत भेटत नव्हते.
उत्तर:
(i) बरोबर
(ii) चूक
(iii) बरोबर
(iv) चूक

प्रश्न 6.
कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.
(i) रात्रंदिवस ते ………………………….. माझ्या डोळ्यांपुढे नाचत होते. (कार्ड, दिवस, वजन, घड्याळ)
(ii) आमच्या चाळीतल्या लोकांनी माझ्या उपासाची ………………………….. केली होती. (टिंगल, चेष्टा, मस्करी, अवहेलना)
उत्तर:
(i) कार्ड
(ii) अवहेलना

कृती ३ : स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
पंतांनी भीष्मप्रतिज्ञा करण्यामागचा हेतू लिहा.
उत्तरः
पंतांनी उपोषण केल्याची खाजगी हकीकत चाळीत जाहीर झाली आणि येताजाता ‘नाही ती भानगड आहे’, ‘उगीच हात दाखवून अवलक्षण’ आहे, ‘पेललं नाही तेव्हा खाजगी झालं!’ अशी वाक्ये त्यांच्या कानावर पडू लागली. पंतांना मात्र रात्रांदिवस ‘एकशे एक्क्याऐंशी पौंड’ वजनाचे कार्ड डोळ्यांपुढे नाचत होते. वजन कमी झाले पाहिजे या विचाराने त्यांची झोप उडाली. झोप कमी झाल्यामुळे वजन कमी होते या विचाराने त्यांना त्याचे काही वाटत नव्हते. पण यावर पत्नीचे दुरुत्तर होते की “घोरत तर असता रात्रभर!” एकूण काय वजन कमी झाले पाहिजे या विचाराने पंतांनी “दोन महिन्यात पन्नास पौंड वजन कमी करून दाखवीन तर खरा!” अशी भीष्मप्रतिज्ञा केली.

प्रश्न 2.
‘चाळ संस्कृती’ चे पाठातून होणारे दर्शन स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
पंत म्हणजे लेखक पु. ल. देशपांडे होत. ते चाळीत राहत असतानाचे वर्णन त्यांनी पाठात केले आहे. यासोबत चाळीतील लोकांचे स्वभाव, चाळीतील लोकजीवन यांची ओळख करून दिली आहे.

चाळ संस्कृतीत लोकांच्या वागण्यातील मोकळेपणा पाठातून दिसून येतो. एकमेकांना नावे ठेवली तरी मनात एकमेकांबद्दल प्रेम असते. कोणतीही गोष्ट चाळीत लपून राहत नाही. ही चाळ संस्कृतीची वैशिष्ट्ये पाठात दिसून येतात.

प्रश्न २. खालील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा:
कृती १: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
खालील कृती पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
एका वाक्यात उत्तरे लिहा.
(i) काशीनाथ नाडकर्णीनी पंतांना कोणती गोष्ट वर्ण्य करायला सांगितली?
उत्तर:
काशीनाथ नाडकर्णीनी पंतांना डाळ वर्ण्य करायला सांगितली.

(ii) बाबूकाकांनी कोणत्या गोष्टी सोडावयास सांगितले?
उत्तरः
बाबूकाकांनी तेल आणि तळलेले पदार्थ सोडावयास सांगितले.

(iii) बसून बसून काय खेळल्याने वजन वाढते?
उत्तरः
बसून बसून पत्ते खेळल्याने वजन वाढते.

(iv) “ए इडिअट! सगळ्याच गोष्टींत जोक काय मारतोस नेमी?” असे जनोबा रेगेंना कोण म्हणाले?
उत्तरः
“ए इडिअट! सगळ्याच गोष्टींत जोक काय मारतोस नेमी” असे जनोबा रेगेंना, सोकाजी त्रिलोकेकर म्हणाले.

प्रश्न 3.
कोण ते लिहा.
उत्तर:
(i) नेहमी तिरके बोलणारे → जनोबा रेगे
(ii) सर्व जनांचे ऐकून मनाचे करायचे ठरवणारे → पंत
(iii) ‘बटाट्याची चाळ’ म्हणू नका. वजन वाढेल! असे उपदेश करणारे → जनोबा रेगे
(iv) या ठिकाणी सगळे भात खातात

प्रश्न 4.
उताऱ्यानुसार वाक्यांचा क्रम लावा.
(i) पहिला उपाय म्हणून मी ‘आहारपरिवर्तन’ सुरू केले.
(ii) “तेल आणि तळलेले पदार्थ आधी सोडा.”
(iii) जनोबा रेगे या इसमाला काय म्हणावे हे मला कळत नाही.
(iv) “ए इडिअट! सगळ्याच गोष्टींत जोक काय मारतोस नेमी?
उत्तर:
(i) जनोबा रेगे या इसमाला काय म्हणावे हे मला कळत नाही.
(ii) “ए इडिअट! सगळ्याच गोष्टींत जोक काय मारतोस नेमी?
(iii) “तेल आणि तळलेले पदार्थ आधी सोडा.”
(iv) पहिला उपाय म्हणून मी ‘आहारपरिवर्तन’ सुरू केले.

कृती २ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.
(i) “मी सांगतो तुला पंत तू …………………………….. सोड”. (तेल, तूप, साखर, बटाटा)
(ii) आमच्या कोकणात सगळे …………………………….. खातात. (भाकरी, मासे, भात, भाजी)
(iii) “हो! ‘म्हणजे कुठं राहता?’ म्हणून विचारलं तर नुसतं …………………………….. राहतो’ म्हणा.” (रस्त्यावर, चाळीत, घरात, बंगल्यात)
(iv) “खरं म्हणजे पत्ते खेळायचं सोडा बसून बसून …………………………….. वाढतं.” (पोट, वजन, हाड, झोप)
उत्तर:
(i) बटाटा
(ii) भात
(ii) चाळीत
(iv) वजन

प्रश्न 2.
कोण कोणास म्हणाले?
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 3.
कारणे लिहा.

(i) पंतांना दिवसा झोपणं आणि पत्ते खेळणं सोडावयास सांगितले.
उत्तर:
दिवसा झोपण्यामुळे व पत्ते खेळण्यानं बसून बसून वजन वाढते म्हणून दिवसा झोपणं व पत्ते खेळणं सोडावयास सांगितले.

(ii) पंतांना लोणी-तूप सोडा असे सांगितले.
उत्तर:
पंतांना लोणी-तूप सोडा असे सांगितले कारण त्यांच्या हेडक्लार्कच्या वाईफचं वजन लोणी-तूप सोडल्यानं एका आठवड्यात दहा पौंड घटलं होतं म्हणून त्यांनी हा सल्ला दिला.

कृती ३ : स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
पंतांना कोणाचा सल्ला तिरकेपणाचा वाटला तुमच्या शब्दांत लिहा.
उत्तर:
पंतांच्या चाळीतील सोकाजी त्रिलोकेकर यांनी पंतांना डाएटचा सल्ला दिला. पंतांना बटाटा सोडण्यास सांगितले. त्यावर जनाबा रेगे म्हणाले की, “हो! म्हणजे कुठं राहाता असं जरी विचारले तरी नुसतं ‘चाळीत राहतो’ असे म्हणायचे” ‘बटाट्याच्या चाळीत’ म्हणायचं नाही. वजन वाढेल. असे हे जनोबा रेगे यांचे बोलणे तिरकेपणाचे होते कारण बाकी सगळ्यांनी पंतांना खाण्याबाबत व त्यांच्या वजन वाढीस पूरक अशा सवयी सोडण्याबाबत सल्ले दिले होते, पण रेगे यांनी ‘बटाट्याची चाळ’ असे सुद्धा न म्हणता फक्त चाळच म्हणा असा तिरकस सल्ला पंतांना दिला.

प्रश्न ३. खालील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा:
कृती १ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
कोण ते लिहा.
उत्तर:
(i) डाएटवर सूड घेणारा → कैंटीनचा आचारी
कचेरीतील साऱ्या सेक्शनला पार्टी देणारा → अण्णा नाडगौडा

प्रश्न 3.
एका वाक्यात उत्तरे लिहा.

(i) व्रतभंगाचा प्रसंग केव्हा आला?
उत्तरः
व्रतभंगाचा प्रसंग दुसऱ्या दिवशी म्हणजे अण्णा नाडगौडाच्या पार्टीच्या दिवशी आला.

(ii) पंतांना डाएटवर असल्याची आठवण केव्हा झाली?
उत्तरः
भज्यांची सहावी प्लेट खाल्ल्यावर पंतांना डाएटवर असल्याची आठवण झाली.

(iii) पंतांच्या वजन घटवण्याच्या व्रताची वार्ता पहिल्या दिवशी कोठे गेली होती?
उत्तर:
पंतांच्या वजन घटवण्याच्या व्रताची वार्ता पहिल्या दिवशी कचेरीला गेली होती.

प्रश्न 4.
कारणे लिहा.

(i) पंतांनी बिन साखरेचा चहा सुरू केला.
उत्तर:
साखरेत सर्वांत अधिक कॅलरीज असतात, म्हणून बिनसाखरेचा चहा पंतांनी सुरू केला.

(ii) पंतांनी फक्त मधला भात वर्ण केला.
उत्तरः
वजन कमी करायचे तर पंतांना भात पूर्णपणे सोडावा लागणार होता परंतु भात अजिबात वर्ण्य करणे अवघड होते म्हणून पंतांनी फक्त पहिला भात आणि ताकभात ठेवून मधला भात वर्ण्य केला.

कृती २ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
कारणे लिहा.

(i) पंतांना खाल्लेले गोड लागत नव्हते.
उत्तरः
पंतांना खाल्लेले गोड लागत नव्हते, कारण आचाऱ्याने मिठाईत साखर न घालता साखरेत मिठाई घालून आणली होती. त्यामुळे घासा-घासागणिक सहस्रावधी कॅलरीज पोटात जात होत्या.

(ii) नाडगौडाने स्पेशल भज्यांची ऑर्डर दिली.
उत्तरः
नाडगौडाने स्पेशल भज्यांची ऑर्डर दिली कारण भज्यांशिवाय पार्टी कसली?’ असा भिकोबा मुसळ्याने टोमणा दिला, म्हणून चेकाळून नाडगौडाने स्पेशल भज्यांची ऑर्डर दिली.

प्रश्न 3.
कंसातील योग्य पर्याय निवडून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.

(i) कुटुंबाला सारी …………………………….. तिखटामिठावर उरकायची सक्त ताकीद दिली. (संक्रांत, दिवाळी, गुढीपाडवा, होळी)
(ii) चिवडा अस्सल …………………………….. तला, त्यामुळे आणखी कॅलरीज, (‘तूप’, ‘तेला’, ‘वनस्पती’, ‘साखरेत’)
उत्तर:
(i) दिवाळी
(ii) ‘वनस्पती’

प्रश्न 4.
सहसंबंध लिहा.

(i) चहा : बिनसाखरेचा : भाजी : ……………………………..
(ii) भजी : स्पेशल : चिवडा : ……………………………..
उत्तर:
(i) उकडलेली
(ii) अस्सल

प्रश्न 5.
चूक की बरोबर लिहा.

(i) ‘सध्या मी ‘डाएट’ वर असल्याचे सांगितल्यावर पंतांना सर्वांनी वेड्यात काढले.
(ii) साखरेत सर्वात अधिक कॅलरीज नसतात.
उत्तर:
(i) बरोबर
(ii) चूक

कृती ३ : स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
पंतांची ‘साखरबंदी’ वर्णन करा.
उत्तरः
पंतांनी आहारपरिवर्तन सुरू केल्यानंतर साखरेत सर्वांत अधिक कॅलरीज असतात; म्हणून प्रथम बिनसाखरेचा चहा सुरू केला. घरात साखरबंदी जाहीर केली. कुटुंबाला सारी दिवाळी तिखटमिठावर उरकायची सक्त ताकीद दिली. मुलांसाठीच फक्त गोडाधोडाचं करण्याची सवलत ठेवली.

प्रश्न 2.
नाडगौडाला वाईट वाटू नये म्हणून पंतांनी काय केले?
उत्तरः
पंतांच्या व्रताचा पहिला दिवस सुरळीत पार पडला. दुसऱ्या दिवशी मात्र व्रतभंगाचा प्रसंग आला. अण्णा नाडगौडाला प्रमोशन मिळाले; म्हणून त्याने साऱ्या सेक्शनला पार्टी दिली. कँटीनच्या आचाऱ्याने पंतांच्या डाएटवर सूड घ्यायचा असे ठरवून पदार्थ केले होते; पण न खावे तर अण्णा नाडगौडाला वाईट वाटेल; कारण सहा वर्षांनी तो ‘एफिशिएन्सी बार’ च्या जाळ्यातून बाहेर पडला होता. पंतांनी नाडगौडाला वाईट वाटू नये म्हणून, स्वतः ‘डाएट’ वर असतानासुद्धा सर्व पदार्थ भरपूर खाल्ले.

प्रश्न 3.
पत्नीने केलेल्या भाजीची पंत कशी खिल्ली उडवतात?
उत्तरः
पंतांनी आहारपरिवर्तन सुरू केल्यावर नुसती उकडलेली पालेभाजी खाणे कसे जमणार हा विचार पोकळ होता. त्याचा अनुभव ती खाल्ल्यावर आला आणि नेहमीच्या भाजीत आणखी वेगळे काय करते याचा कधी अंदाज आला नाही. म्हणजे एक तर पत्नीने केलेली भाजी बेचव असू शकते अथवा पत्नीने फसवून नेहमीसारखी न उकडता दिलेली असावी; पण पंत मात्र केलेल्या भाजीला नाव ठेवतात. पंत आपल्या पत्नीला नेहमीच्या भाजीत ‘ही’ निराळे काय करते याचा अजूनही अंदाज आला नाही, असा उपरोधिक टोमणा देऊन भाजीची खिल्ली उडवतात.

प्रश्न 4.
‘सध्या मी ‘डाएट’ वर असल्याचे सांगितल्यावर सर्वांनी पंतांना वेड्यात काढले’, स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
पंतांनी व्रत सुरू केले आणि दुसऱ्याच दिवशी अण्णा नाडगौडाच्या प्रमोशनची पार्टी होती. नाडगौडाला वाईट वाटू नये म्हणून पंतांनी पार्टीतील पदार्थ खाल्ले. आचाऱ्याने मिठाईत साखर न घालता साखरेत मिठाई घालून आणली होती. वनस्पती तूपातला चिवडा, बटाटेवडे एवढे सगळे असूनही शेवटी भज्यांशिवाय पार्टी कसली म्हणून भजीही होती. एवढ्या सगळ्यातून सहस्त्रावधी कॅलरीज पोटात चालल्या होत्या. भजीची सहावी प्लेट खाल्ल्यावर पंतांनी आपण डाएटवर असल्याचे केविलवाण्या स्वरात सांगितले, म्हणून सर्वांनी पंतांना वेड्यात काढले.

प्रश्न ४. पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा,
कृती १: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
एका वाक्यात उत्तरे लिहा.

(i) जगदाळेंनी कोणता सल्ला दिला?
उत्तरः
पंतांना जगदाळेंनी रनिंग करण्याचा सल्ला दिला.

(ii) कु. कमलिनी केंकरेंनी पंतांना कोणता सल्ला दिला?
उत्तर:
कु. कमलिनी केंकरेंनी पंतांना दोरीवरच्या उड्या मारण्याचा सल्ला दिला.

(iii) पंतांना यापूर्वी कधीच कोणती कल्पना आली नव्हती?
उत्तर:
बिनसाखरेचा चहा इतका कडू लागत असेल अशी यापूर्वी पंतांना कधीच कल्पना आली नव्हती.

प्रश्न 3.
कोण कोणास म्हणाले.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 4.
कंसातील योग्य पर्याय निवडून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.
(i) कुटुंबाचा मात्र माझ्या ‘डाएटच्या’ बाबतीतला उत्साह होता. (जेवढ्यासतेवढा, अवर्णनीय, वर्णनीय, खूप)
(ii) रोज काही काही ……………………. पदार्थ माझ्या पानात पडायला लागले. (चविष्ट, खास, आवडते, चमत्कारिक)
उत्तर:
(i) अवर्णनीय
(ii) चमत्कारिक

कृती २: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
काय ते लिहा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 3.
खालील विधाने चूक की बरोबर ते लिहा.
(i) शेवटी सर्वांच्या मते मी सकाळी पोहावे असे ठरले.
(ii) सकाळचा चहा देखील सुरुवातीला होता तसा राहिला नाही.
(iii) सडपातळ भाज्यांची स्वयंपाकघरातून हकालपट्टी झाली.
(iv) बाळसेदार भाज्यांचा खुराक चालू झाला.
उत्तर:
(i) चूक
(ii) बरोबर
(iii) चूक
(iv) चूक

प्रश्न 4.
जोड्या जुळवा.

उत्तर:
(i-आ),
(ii – इ),
(iii – अ),
(iv – ई)

कृती ३: स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
भिकोबा मुसळेने पंतांचे कसे समर्थन केले?
उत्तरः
पंतांनी वजन कमी करण्यासाठी ‘डाएट’ सुरू केले होते. परंतु अण्णा नाडगौडाच्या पार्टीत सहा प्लेट भजी खाऊन सातवी प्लेट झाल्यावर त्यांना आपण सध्या डाएटवर असल्याची आठवण होते. तेव्हा भिकोबा मुसळे पंतांचे समर्थन करतात, की खाण्याचा आणि वजनाचा काय संबंध? ‘मी बघ एकवीस गुलाबजाम खाल्ले. एवढंच काय, आपण तर आयुष्यात एक्सरसाईज नाही केला. तुझी कुंभ रास नि कुंभ लग्न आहे. नुसता वायू भक्षण करून राहिलास तरी असाच जाड्या राहणार. तेव्हा थोडक्यात खाण्यावर बंधन ठेवण्याचे कारण नाही, असे भिकोबांना सांगायचे होते.

प्रश्न 2.
बिनसाखरेचा चहा कडू लागतो हे पंतांच्या केव्हा लक्षात आले?
उत्तरः
पंतांनी डाएट सुरू केल्यापासून त्यांच्या धर्मपत्नीचा उत्साह अवर्णनीय होता. रोज चमत्कारिक पदार्थ त्यांच्या पानात पडू लागले. बाळसेदार भाज्यांची स्वयंपाक घरातून हकालपट्टी केली व सडपातळ भाज्यांचा खुराक सुरू केला. सकाळचा चहा देखील सुरुवातीला होता तसा राहिला नाही. बिनसाखरेचा चहा इतका कडू लागत असेल याची पंतांना कधीच कल्पना आली नाही. पत्नीला यासंबंधी विचारले असता कुटुंबाने खुलासा केला की सुरुवातीचा चहा बिनसाखरेचा नव्हताच मुळी. त्यानंतर पंतांना समजले की बिनसारखेचा चहा कडू लागतो.

प्रश्न 3.
‘बाळसेदार भाज्यांची स्वयंपाकघरातून हकालपट्टी झाली’. स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
पंतांचे डाएट सुरू झाल्यानंतर कुटुंबाचा उत्साह वर्णन करता न येण्यासारखा होता. रोज चमत्कारिक पदार्थ पंतांच्या ताटात पडू लागले. सडपातळ भाज्या शेवग्याच्या शेंगा, पडवळ, भेंडी, चवळीच्या शेंगा यांचा खुराक सुरू केला. पंतांचे वजन कमी व्हावे म्हणून बाळसेदार भाज्या कोबी, कॉलिफ्लॉवरची स्वयंपाक घरातून हकालपट्टी केली.

प्रश्न ५. पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा.
कृती १: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कारणे लिहा.

(i) पंतांना सुरुवातीला चहा बिनसाखरेचा असूनही कडू लागला नाही.
उत्तर:
पंतांना सुरुवातीला चहा बिनसाखरेचा असूनही कडू लागला नाही कारण तो बिनसाखरेचा नव्हता म्हणून.

(ii) पंतांना बिनसाखरेचा चहा धर्मपत्नीने दिला नाही.
उत्तर:
पंतांना बिनसाखरेचा चहा न देण्याचे कारण घरात थोडीशीच साखर होती. ती संपेपर्यंत धर्मपत्नीने साखरेचा चहा दयायचे ठरवले.

प्रश्न 2.
पुढील घटनांचे परिणाम लिहा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 3.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 4.
उताऱ्यानुसार वाक्यांचा क्रम लावा.
(i) “इश्श! साखरेशिवाय लाडू आमच्या नाही घराण्यात केले कुणी!”
(ii) “उगीच आरडाओरडा नका करू.”
(iii) “चहा सुरुवातीला बिनासाखरेचा असूनही कडू लागला नाही.”
(iv) कसलं कमी होतंय माझं वजन?
उत्तर:
(i) “चहा सुरुवातीला बिनासाखरेचा असूनही कडू लागला नाही.”
(ii) कसलं कमी होतंय माझं वजन?
(iii) “उगीच आरडाओरडा नका करू.”
(iv) “इश्श! साखरेशिवाय लाडू आमच्या नाही घराण्यात केले कुणी!”

कृती २ : आकलन कृती.

प्रश्न 1.
कोण कोणास म्हणाले?
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
कंसातील योग्य पर्याय निवडून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.
(i) चहा सुरुवातीला बिनसाखरेचा असूनही …………………………….. लागला नाही. (गोड, कडू, खारट, आंबट)
(ii) ‘साखरेशिवाय …………………………….. आमच्या नाही घराण्यात केले कुणी! (लाडू, पेढे, वड्या, बर्फी)
उत्तर:
(i) कडू
(ii) लाडू

प्रश्न 3.
चूक की बरोबर ते लिहा.
(i) लाडवाच्या रूपाने काही कॅलरीज पोटात गेल्याच!
(ii) लाडू बशीत ठेवून कुटुंबाने पंताच्या वजनक्षय – संकल्पाला मदत केली.
(iii) सुरुवातीला दिलेला चहा बिनसाखरेचा होता,
उत्तर:
(i) बरोबर
(ii) चूक
(iii) चूक

प्रश्न 4.
घटना क्रमानुसार लिहा.
(i) पंतांच्या वजनक्षय संकल्पाला नवे सुरुंग लावणारे कुटुंबाचे उद्गार
(ii) चहा सुरुवातीला बिनसाखरेचा असूनही कडू लागला नाही.
(iii) चहा बिनसाखरेचा नव्हता याचा खुलासा झाला.
(iv) बिनसाखरेचा चहातील साखरेची उणीव लाडू खाऊन भरून काढली.
उत्तर:
(i) चहा सुरुवातीला बिनसाखरेचा असूनही कडू लागला नाही.
(ii) चहा बिनसाखरेचा नव्हता याचा खुलासा झाला.
(iii) पंतांच्या वजनक्षय – संकल्पाला नवे सुरुंग लावणारे कुटुंबाचे उद्गार
(iv) बिनसाखरेच्या चहातील साखरेची उणीव लाडू खाऊन भरून काढली.

प्रश्न ६. पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा.
कृती १: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृती पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
उत्तरे लिहा.

(i) आचार्य बाबा बर्वेनी पंतांना कोणते सल्ले दिले?
उत्तरः
पंतांचे वजन कमी करण्यासाठी आचार्य बाबा बर्वेनी जिभेवर ताबा ठेवा, संयम राखा, मनाची एकाग्रता ठेवा, बोलणे सोडा, असे सल्ले दिले.

(ii) आचार्य बाबा बर्वेनी पंतांना क्षमा केली.
उत्तरः
पंतांच्या दोरी उड्या मारण्याच्या सरावातील दुसरी उडी मारताना बाबा बर्वेच्या गळ्यात दोरी पडली. यावर बर्वे खूप संतापले व पंतांना म्हणाले, ‘हा दुष्टपणा माझ्या गळ्यात दोरी अडकवून केलात हे ठीक झालं, पण तुमच्या वयाला न शोभणाऱ्या या धिंगामस्तीला दुसरा कोणी माझ्यासारखं बळी पडला असता, तर धडगत नव्हती.’ आणि बर्वेनी पंतांना माफ केले.

प्रश्न 3.
कंसांतील योग्य पर्याय निवडून वाक्ये पूर्ण करा.
(i) मौन ही एक …………………………… आहे. (शक्ती, भक्ती, मुक्ती, उक्ती)
(ii) ‘आता या उड्या मारायला मी …………………………… देखील सोडली.’ (खाज, माज, लाज, व्याज)
(iii) उड्या मारायच्या माझ्या दोरीचे एक टोक हातात धरून बाबा एक तास …………………………… या विषयावर बडबडत होते. (उपासाचे महत्त्व, मौनाचं महत्त्व, वजनाचे महत्त्व, संसाराचे महत्त्व)
उत्तर:
(i) शक्ती
(ii) लाज
(iii) मौनाचं महत्त्व

प्रश्न 4.
का ते लिहा.

(i) पंत बोलणं सोडू शकत नव्हते.
उत्तरः
पंत टेलिफोन – ऑपरेटर असल्यामुळे त्यांना दिवसभर बोलावे लागत असे. न बोलता ते त्यांची नोकरी करू शकणार नव्हते. नोकरी नसेल तर पोटापाण्याचे काय? म्हणून पंत बोलणं सोडू शकत नव्हते.

(ii) पंतांना पश्चात्ताप झाला.
उत्तर:
आचार्य बाबा बर्वेना पंतांच्या वजन घटवण्याची वार्ता समजली, तेव्हा त्यांनी पंतांना वेगवेगळे सल्ले दिले. एक तास मौनाच्या सामर्थ्यावर बोलले. पंतांना मात्र मौन पाळणे शक्य नव्हते. तेव्हा वजन घटणे शक्य नसल्याचे सांगत कारुण्यपूर्वक कटाक्ष टाकत बाबा गेले. तेव्हां पंतांना वाटले की मघाशी बाबांच्या गळ्यात दोरी पडली ती गच्च आवळली का नाही, या विचाराने पंतांना पश्चात्ताप झाला.

कृती २: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
पुढील घटनांचे परिणाम लिहा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
जोड्या जुळवा.

उत्तर:
(1 – इ),
(ii – अ),
(iii – ई),
(iv – उ)
(v – आ)

प्रश्न 3.
खालील विधाने चूक की बरोबर ते लिहा.
(i) मौनाचं सामर्थ्य मोठं नसते.
(ii) वजन वाढवण्यासाठी पंत दोरीच्या उड्या मारत होते.
(iii) पंतांच्या दिवाणखान्यात दोरी संपूर्ण फिरवणे अवघड होते.
(iv) पंतांच्या समाचाराला चाळीतली सारी मंडळी येऊन गेली.
उत्तर:
(i) चूक
(ii) चूक
(iii) बरोबर
(iv) बरोबर

प्रश्न 4.
कोण कोणास म्हणाले?
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 5.
एका वाक्यात उत्तरे लिहा.

(i) ‘मौनाचं महत्त्व’ या विषयावर कोण बडबडत होते?
उत्तर:
‘मौनाचं महत्त्व’ या विषयावर आचार्य बर्वे बडबडत होते.

(ii) पंत कोणती नोकरी करत होते?
उत्तर:
पंत टेलिफोन – ऑपरेटरची नोकरी करत होते.

प्रश्न 6.
उताऱ्यानुसार वाक्यांचा क्रम लावा.
(i) “बोलण्याचा आणि खाण्याचा संबंध काय?”
(ii) जिभेवर ताबा नाही तुमचा.
(iii) “अहो वजन कमी करायला दोरीच्या उड्या मारतोय मी.”
(iv) ‘उपास’ हे त्यांचे खास राखीव कुरण होते.
उत्तर:
(i) ‘उपास’ हे त्यांचे खास राखीव कुरण होते.
(ii) “अहो वजन कमी करायला दोरीच्या उड्या मारतोय मी.”
(iii) जिभेवर ताबा नाही तुमचा.
(iv) “बोलण्याचा आणि खाण्याचा संबंध काय?”

कृती ३: स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
आचार्य बाबा बर्वेची स्वभाव वैशिष्ट्ये लिहा.
उत्तरः
आचार्य बाबा बर्वे ही पंतांच्या शेजारच्या खोलीत राहणारी व्यक्ती होती. उपास हे त्यांचे खास कुरण होते. स्पष्टवक्तेपणाने पंतांना सांगणारे, दोरीवरच्या उड्या मारण्यावरून पंतांची कान उघडणी करणारे; पण माफ करणारे, मौनाचे महत्त्व जाणणारे, मौन या विषयावर बोलताना त्यांना स्वत:लाच बोलणे थांबवा असे सांगण्याची आवश्यकता असणारे, पंतांना बोलणं सोडण्याचा उपाय शक्य नाही हे पाहून कारुण्यपूर्ण नजरेने कटाक्ष टाकत ‘मग कसलं वजन उतरवणार तुम्ही.’ असं उघड उघड सांगणारे आचार्य बाबा बर्वे होते.

प्रश्न 2.
‘जिभेवर ताबा नाही तुमचा.’ या बोलण्यामागची भूमिका स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
पंतांचा उपास सुरू झाल्याची हकीकत चाळीत पसरल्यावर लोक त्यांच्या समाचाराला येऊ लागली. प्रत्येकजण त्यांना वजन घटवण्यासाठी उपाय सुचवू लागला. कोणी खाण्यावर बंधन आणण्यासाठी सांगे तर कोणी शारीरिक व्यायामासाठी सांगे; पण आचार्य बनी मात्र जिभेवर बंधन घातले. म्हणजेच खाणे आणि बोलणे या दोन्ही गोष्टी संयमित हव्यात. जिभेचा जसा खाण्यासाठी उपयोग करतो, तसा बोलण्यासाठी उपयोग होतो. हे पंतांना प्रकर्षाने सांगू इच्छितात. त्यासाठी संयम हवा. मौन पाळले पाहिजे तरच वजन घटेल. अशी आचार्य बाबा बर्वेची बोलण्यामागची भूमिका होती.

प्रश्न ७. पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा.
कृती १: आकलन कृती.

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
एका वाक्यात उत्तरे लिहा.

(i) पंतांच्या अंगाचा तिळपापड केव्हा होई?
उत्तर:
साखर पाहिली की पंतांच्या अंगाचा तिळपापड होई.
(ii) पंतांच्या दोरीवरच्या उड्या मारणे बंद का झाले?
उत्तर:
खालच्या मजल्यावरील मंडळींच्या दुष्टपणाने व आकसाने केलेल्या तक्रारींमुळे पंतांना दोरीवरच्या उड्या मारणे थांबवावे लागले.

(iii) पंतांनी कोणता आहार सुरू केला?
उत्तरः
केवळ पौष्टिक व सात्त्विक आहार पंतांनी सुरू केला.

प्रश्न 3.
उत्तरे लिहा.

(i) पंधरवडाभरात पंतांनी कोणते अपवाद वगळता भाताला स्पर्श केला नाही?
उत्तर:
पंधरवडाभरात फक्त दोन वेळाच साखरभात झाला.एकदा सोकाजीने चोरून कोळंबीभात चारला व खालच्या मजल्यावरच्या भाऊजी पसरटवारांनी एकदा नागपुरी वडाभात पाठवला होता. एवढे अपवाद वगळल्यास पंतांनी भाताला स्पर्श केला नाही.

(ii) पंतांच्या आहारपरिवर्तनाचा परिणाम लिहा.
उत्तरः
पंतांनी आहारपरिवर्तन करून दहाबारा दिवस झाल्यावर त्यांच्यातला फरक त्यांनाच कळायला लागला. लहान मुले बी पेरले की रोप किती वाढले हे रोप उपटून पाहतात त्याप्रमाणे पंतांना रोज संध्याकाळी वजन काट्यावर वजन करावे असे वाटत होते.

प्रश्न 4.
कंसातील योग्य पर्याय निवडून रिकाम्या जागा भरा, मला मी ………………………… झाल्याची स्वप्ने पडू लागली. (जाडजूड, सडपातळ, काटकुळा, उंच)
(ii) ………………………… ताटावरून मी उठू लागलो. (रिकाम्या, सजवलेल्या, जेवलेल्या, भरल्या)
(iii) बिनसाखरेचा आणि बिनदुधाचाच काय; पण ” देखील चहा मी पिऊ लागलो. (पाण्याचा, दुधाचा, कॉफीचा, बिनचहाचा)
उत्तर:
(i) काटकुळा
(ii) भरल्या
(iii) बिनचहाचा

प्रश्न 5.
चूक की बरोबर ते लिहा.
(i) पंत केवळ फळांवर जगू लागले.
(ii) धारोष्ण दुधासाठी गिरगावातील गोठ्यात जाऊ लागले.
(iii) दोरीवरच्या उड्या मारण्यासाठी खालच्या मजल्यावरील मंडळींनी प्रोत्साहन दिले.
(iv) कचेरी सुटल्यावर पंत गिरगाव रस्त्याने धावत येऊ लागले.
उत्तर:
(i) बरोबर
(ii) चूक
(iii) चूक
(iv) बरोबर.

कृती २: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कारणे लिहा.
(i) कचेरी सुटल्यावर, पंत गिरगाव रस्त्याने धावू लागले कारण …………………………
(अ) त्यांना घरी लवकर पोहोचायचे होते.
(आ) मित्रांबरोबर गप्पा मारायच्या होत्या.
(इ) फिरत फिरत पायी येऊन पैसे वाचवायचे होते.
(ई) त्यांना वजन कमी करायचे होते.
उत्तरः
कचेरी सुटल्यावर, पंत गिरगाव रस्त्याने धावू लागले कारण त्यांना वजन कमी करायचे होते.

(ii) लिंबाचा रस पंतांना अमृतासारखा वाटू लागला कारण …………………………
(अ) लिंब स्वस्त होती.
(आ) लिंब आवडत होती.
(इ) लिंबाच्या रसाने वजन कमी होते.
(ई) लिंबाचा सिझन होता.
उत्तर:
लिंबाचा रस पंतांना अमृतासारखा वाटू लागला कारण लिंबाच्या रसाने वजन कमी होते.

प्रश्न 2.
ओघतक्ता तयार करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 3.
कसे ते लिहा.
उत्तर:
(i) लिंबाचा रस – अमृतासारखा
(ii) दूध – धारोष्ण
(iii) आहार – पौष्टिक आणि सात्त्विक

प्रश्न 4.
उताऱ्यानुसार वाक्यांचा क्रम लावा.
(i) मग मात्र मी चिडलो आणि निश्चय केला की बस्स.
(ii) लिंबाचा रस तर मला अमृतासारखा वाटू लागला.
(iii) मुख्यत: चरबी युक्त द्रव्ये शरीरात कमी गेली.
(iv) एकूण आहारव्रत जोरात चालू ठेवले.
उत्तर:
(i) मग मात्र मी चिडलो आणि निश्चय केला की बस्स.
(i) लिंबाचा रस तर मला अमृतासारखा वाटू लागला.
(iii) एकूण आहारव्रत जोरात चालू ठेवले.
(iv) मुख्यत: चरबी युक्त द्रव्ये शरीरात कमी गेली.

कृती ३: स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
पंतांना भात अतिशय प्रिय होता, हे स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
पंतांचे एकूण आहारव्रत जोरदार सुरू होते. केवळ पौष्टिक व सात्विक आहार दहाबारा दिवस चालू होता. त्यांच्यातील फरक त्यांनाच कळत होता. एक महिनाभर तुपाचा थेंब त्यांच्या पोटात जाणार नव्हता. केवळ दूध! असे असताना पंतांनी भात खाणे वर्ण्य केलेले असताना पंधरवडाभरात दोन वेळा साखरभात खाल्ला. एकदा सोकाजीने चोरून कोळंबीभात चारला व भाऊजी पसरवटांनी एकदा नागपुरी वडाभात पाठवला होता, एवढे अपवाद वगळता त्यांनी भाताला स्पर्श केला नाही. आहारव्रत सुरू असताना त्यांच्या समोर आलेल्या भाताचे प्रकार पाहून त्यांचा मोह आवरता आला नाही. यावरून पंतांना भात अतिशय प्रिय खादय होते हे स्पष्ट होते.

प्रश्न 2.
कचेरी सुटल्यावर पंत गिरगाव रस्त्याने धावू का लागले?
उत्तरः
पंतांचे वजन कमी करण्यासाठी त्यांच्या आहारतज्ज्ञ मित्रमंडळींनी विविध उपाय सांगितले.खाणे कमी करण्याबरोबरच शारीरिक व्यायाम व्हावा म्हणून दोरीच्या उड्या व रनिंग करावे असा सल्ला मिळाल्यामुळे पंत कचेरी सुटल्यावर गिरगाव रस्त्याने धावत घरी येऊ लागले.

प्रश्न 3.
पंतांनी उपास सुरू केल्यापासून त्यांनी केलेल्या कष्टाविषयी माहिती दया.
उत्तरः
पंतांनी वजन कमी व्हावे म्हणून उपासाचा निश्चय केला आणि आहारात बदल घडवून आणला. आहाराबरोबरच त्यांनी शारीरिक कष्टही घेतले. गाईचे दूध आणण्यासाठी ते अंधेरीच्या गोठ्यात जाऊ लागले. कचेरी सुटल्यावर गिरगाव रस्त्याने धावत येऊ लागले. दोरीवरच्या उड्या मारू लागले. या सर्व कष्टांच्या मागे त्यांना आपले वजन कमी व्हावे ही एकच अपेक्षा होती.

प्रश्न ८. पुढील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा.
कृती १: आकलन कृती.

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
कोण कोणास म्हणाले?
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 3.
कंसातील योग्य पर्याय निवडून रिकाम्या जागा भरा,
(i) मंडळींच्या प्रशस्तीने मला ……………………………. वाटत होती. (खात्री, वाईट, लाज, भीती)
(ii) छे, छे, वजनाचा मार्ग ……………………………. काट्यातून जातो. (नेहमीच्या, हलक्या, भलत्याच, लोखंडी)
(iii) हल्ली मी वजन आणि ……………………………. या दोन्ही गोष्टींची चिंता करायचे सोडून दिले आहे. (खाणे, पिणे, फिरणे, भविष्य)
उत्तर:
(i) भीती
(ii) भलत्याच
(iii) भविष्य

प्रश्न 4.
घटना क्रमानुसार लिहा.
(i) डाएटच्या आहारी या जन्मात न जाण्याचे ठरवले.
(ii) पंतांच्या डाएटची चेष्टा करणाऱ्यांनी प्रशंसा केली.
(iii) एकशे ब्याण्णव पौंड वजन दाखवले.
(iv) असामान्य मनोनिग्रह आणि जिव्हा नियंत्रण केले.
उत्तर:
(i) पंतांच्या डाएटची चेष्टा करणाऱ्यांनी प्रशंसा केली.
(ii) असामान्य मनोनिग्रह आणि जिव्हा नियंत्रण केले.
(iii) एकशे ब्याण्णव पौंड वजन दाखवले.
(iv) डाएटच्या आहारी या जन्मात न जाण्याचे ठरवले.

कृती २: आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तर:

प्रश्न 2.
उत्तरे ते लिहा.
उत्तर:
(i) पंतांना खात्री होती – [वीस पंचवीस पौंडांनी वजन घटण्याची.]
(i) मंडळींच्या प्रशस्तीने पंतांना भीती वाटत होती – [मूठभर मांस वाढण्याची.]

प्रश्न 3.
चूक की बरोबर ते लिहा.
(i) पंत तुरळक तारीफ ऐकून भुलले.
(ii) पंतांनी डाएटच्या आहारी जन्मात न जाण्याचे ठरवले.
(iii) वजनाच्या यंत्रावर पाय ठेवून पंतांनी दोन रुपयाचे नाणे आत टाकले.
उत्तर:
(i) चूक
(i) बरोबर
(iii) चूक

प्रश्न 4.
एका वाक्यात उत्तरे लिहा.
(i) पंतांनी कोणत्या गोष्टींची चिंता करणे सोडून दिले?
उत्तर:
पंतांनी वजन आणि भविष्य या दोन्ही गोष्टींची चिंता करणे सोडून दिले.

(ii) चाळीतील मंडळी कोणत्या गोष्टींची चेष्टा करत होती?
उत्तरः
चाळीतील मंडळी पंतांची, त्यांच्या डाएटची व त्यांच्या उपासाची चेष्टा करत होती.

प्रश्न 5.
रिकाम्या जागी योग्य विधान घालून वाक्य पूर्ण करा.
(i) माझा एकूण निश्चय पाहून चाळीतल्या मंडळीचे आदर दुणावल्याचे …………………………..
(अ) माझ्या सूक्ष्म नजरेतून सुटत नव्हते.
(आ) त्याच्या सूक्ष्म नजरेतून सुटत नव्हते.
(इ) हिच्या सूक्ष्म नजरेतून सुटत नव्हते.
(ई) माझ्या तीक्ष्ण नजरेतून सुटत नव्हते.
उत्तर:
माझा एकूण निश्चय पाहून चाळीतल्या मंडळीचे आदर दुणावल्याचे माझ्या सूक्ष्म नजरेतून सुटत नव्हते.

(ii) ………………………….. या दोन्ही गोष्टींची चिंता करायचे सोडून दिले आहे.
(अ) वजन आणि घट
(आ) वजन आणि भविष्य
(इ) भविष्य आणि चिंता
(ई) वजन आणि काळजी
उत्तरः
वजन आणि भविष्य या दोन्ही गोष्टींची चिंता करायचे सोडून दिले आहे.

कृती ३: स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
चाळीतील मंडळींचा उत्साह दुणावल्याचे कोणत्या उद्गारातून स्पष्ट होते?
उत्तरः
पंतांचा डाएट बद्दलचा एकूण निश्चय पाहून पंतांविषयीचा आदर दुणावला व ते पंतांना जाणवत होते. ज्या मंडळींनी पंतांच्या उपासाची चेष्टा केली त्यांनीच ‘पंत, फरक दिसतोय हं!’ अशी कबुली दयायला सुरुवात केली. जनोबा रेग्यांसारख्या कुजकट शेजाऱ्यालाही ‘पंत, भलतेच काय हो रोडावलेत’ असे मान्य करावे लागले.

प्रश्न 2.
एक महिन्याच्या पंतांच्या उग्र साधनेबद्दल माहिती लिहा.
उत्तर:
पंतांनी आपले वजन घटवण्यासाठी एक महिन्याचा उपास, निराहार, शास्त्रोक्त आहार, दोरीवरच्या उड्या इत्यादी उग्र साधना केली. या साधनेनंतर पंतांना खात्री होती, की आपले वजन वीस ते पंचवीस पौंडांनी घटेल. पंतांनी केलेल्या उपासामुळे त्यांच्यातील फरक लोकांनाही जाणवत होता. त्यामुळे पंतांना नक्की वजन घटणार याची खात्री होती.

प्रश्न 3.
उपास करूनही पंतांचे वजन वाढण्यामागचे कारण कोणते असावे असे तुम्हाला वाटते.
उत्तर:
पंतांनी एक महिन्याचा उपास, निराहार, शास्त्रोक्त आहार, दोरीवरच्या उड्या इत्यादी उग्र साधना केली असे म्हटले असले तरी बिनसाखरेचा समजून साखरेचा चहा, लाडू, पंधरवडाभरात भात वर्ण्य केला असूनही चार वेळा भात खाल्ला होता. एकीकडे निराहार, शास्त्रोक्त आहार घेणारे पंत दुसरीकडे कोण कोणत्या पदार्थांचा आस्वाद घेतला हे मार्मिकतेने सांगतात. एकूण पाठातील उपास हा मार्मिकतेचा विषय असल्यामुळे पंतांच्या वागण्यातील विरोधाभासामुळे वजन घटण्याऐवजी वाढलेले दिसून आले, असे मला वाटते.

स्वाध्याय कृती

स्वमत

प्रश्न 4.
तुम्ही एखादा संकल्प केला आणि तो पूर्ण केला नाही तर कुटुंबातील व्यक्ती कोणत्या प्रतिक्रिया व्यक्त करतील, याची कल्पना करून लिहा.
उत्तरः
नववीची परीक्षा झाली व मी पास होऊन दहावीच्या वर्गात गेले. यावर्षी काहीही करून सकाळी लवकर उठून अभ्यास करायचा असा मी संकल्प केला. नुकतीच मे महिन्याची सुट्टी अनुभवलेली असल्यामुळे लवकर उठायची सवय मोडली होती. आईला मी माझ्या संकल्पाविषयी सांगितले. दुसऱ्या दिवसापासून आईने मला सकाळी पाच वाजता उठवायला सुरुवात केली. पहिल्या दिवशी नवा उत्साह असल्यामुळे मी शहाण्या बाळासारखी उठून बसले.

शाळा सुरू झाल्यानंतर सुरुवातीला मैत्रिणीबरोबरच्या गप्पा, खेळ, शाळेतील अभ्यास या सर्वांमुळे मला माझ्या संकल्पाविषयी विसर पडू लागला. इतरांबरोबर मजा करणे कमी झाले. कोणतीही गोष्ट करताना मी यंदा दहावीत आहे याची जाणीव करून दिली जाई. सकाळी लवकर उठून अभ्यास करण्याचा माझा संकल्प आई विसरली नव्हती. आईनेच एकदा घरातील सर्वांच्या देखत माझी चेष्टा केली, घरातील लहान भावंडेही माझी मस्करी करू लागली. खेळणे, टि.व्ही. पाहणे हे सारेच मला पारखे झाले. मग मात्र मी निश्चय केला, की आपण कुणाच्याच चेष्टेचा विषय बनू नये, मी केलेला संकल्प पूर्ण करण्यासाठी मनाची तयारी केली व नियमित लवकर उठून अभ्यास नियमित करू लागले.

उपास शब्दार्द्ध

• उपास‌ ‌–‌ ‌निरशन,‌ ‌दिवसभर‌ ‌न‌ ‌जेवणे,‌ ‌निराहार‌‌ – (fasting,‌ ‌a‌ ‌fast)‌ ‌
• परिवर्तन‌ ‌–‌ ‌मोठा‌ ‌बदल‌ ‌–‌ ‌(a‌ ‌radical‌ ‌change)‌ ‌
• आचारी‌ ‌–‌ ‌स्वयंपाक‌ ‌करणारा‌ ‌–‌ ‌(a‌ ‌cook)‌ ‌
• चमत्कारिक‌ ‌–‌ ‌विक्षिप्त,‌ ‌विचित्र‌ ‌–‌ ‌(strange,‌ ‌odd)‌ ‌
• ‌मौन‌‌ – न‌ ‌बोलणे‌‌ –‌ ‌(silence)‌ ‌
• धारोष्ण‌ ‌–‌ ‌नुकतीच‌ ‌धार‌ ‌काढली‌ ‌आहे‌ ‌असे‌ ‌ताजे‌ ‌दूध‌‌ – (fresh‌ ‌immediately‌ ‌after‌ ‌milking)‌ ‌
• सामर्थ्य‌ ‌–‌ ‌शक्ती‌,‌ ‌बळ,‌ ‌क्षमता‌ ‌–‌ ‌(power,‌ ‌ability)‌ ‌
• पश्चात्ताप‌ ‌–‌ ‌खेद,‌ ‌अनुताप‌ ‌–‌ ‌(respentance)‌ ‌
• वाक्प्रवाह‌ ‌–‌ ‌अखंड‌ ‌बोलणे‌ ‌–‌ ‌(a‌ ‌flow‌ ‌of‌ ‌speech)‌ ‌
• एकाग्रता‌ ‌–‌ ‌एकाच‌ ‌गोष्टीत‌ ‌पूर्ण‌ ‌लक्ष‌ ‌असणे‌‌ – (concentration)‌ ‌
• शास्त्रोक्त‌ ‌–‌ ‌शास्त्रात‌ ‌नमूद‌ ‌केल्याप्रमाणे‌‌ – (scientific)‌ ‌
• भविष्य‌ ‌–‌ ‌भावी‌ ‌गोष्टीचे‌ ‌पूर्वकथन,‌ ‌भाकीत‌‌ – (prediction)‌ ‌
• पौष्टिक‌ ‌–‌ ‌ताकद‌ ‌वाढवणारे‌ ‌–‌ ‌(nutritious)‌ ‌
• सात्विक‌ ‌–‌ ‌सत्वगुणी,‌ ‌शुद्ध,‌ ‌पवित्र‌‌ – (pure,‌ ‌god‌ ‌fearing)‌ ‌
• दुर्दैव‌ ‌–‌ ‌अभागी,‌ ‌कमनशिबी‌‌ – (unfortunate,‌ ‌unlucky)‌ ‌
• उग्रसाधना‌ ‌–‌ ‌दुःसह‌ ‌तपश्चर्या‌‌ – (learning‌ ‌the‌ ‌hard‌ ‌way,‌ ‌penance)‌ ‌
• ‌आहार‌ ‌–‌ ‌नेहमी‌ ‌खाण्याचे‌ ‌अन्न –‌ ‌(adiet)‌ ‌
• आणेली‌ ‌–‌ ‌जुन्या‌ ‌काळातील‌ ‌एक‌ ‌नाणे‌‌ – (old‌ ‌currency‌ ‌coin)‌ ‌
• वर्य‌ ‌–‌ ‌टाळण्याजोगे,‌ ‌वगळण्याजोगे – (fit‌ ‌to‌ ‌be‌ ‌avoided)
• ‌‌खाजगी‌‌ –‌ ‌स्वत:चा‌‌ – (private)‌ ‌
• उपोषण‌ ‌–‌ ‌अन्न–पाणी‌ ‌वयं‌ ‌करणे‌‌ – (fasting)‌ ‌
• टीका‌ ‌–‌ ‌गुणदोषांचे‌ ‌विवरण‌ ‌–‌ ‌(criticism)‌‌
• प्रैंड –‌ ‌वजन‌ ‌मोजण्याचे‌ ‌परिमाण‌‌ – (weight‌ ‌measuring‌ ‌element)‌ ‌
• घोरणे‌‌ –‌ ‌(to‌ ‌snore)‌ ‌
• आहारशास्त्र‌ ‌–‌ ‌(sitology)‌ ‌
• शास्त्र‌ ‌–‌ ‌(येथे‌ ‌अर्थ)‌ ‌कला‌ ‌
• तज्ज्ञ‌ ‌–‌ ‌जाणकार,‌ ‌ज्ञानी‌ ‌–‌‌ (expert)‌ ‌
• घटेल‌ ‌–‌ ‌घटणे,‌ ‌कमी‌ ‌होणे‌ ‌–‌‌ (reduce)‌ ‌
• सल्ला‌ ‌–‌ ‌उपदेश‌‌ – (to‌ ‌advice)‌ ‌
• लोणी‌ ‌–‌ ‌(butter)‌‌
• तूप‌‌ –‌ ‌(ghee)‌ ‌
• आहारपरिवर्तन–‌ ‌जेवणातला‌ ‌बदल‌ ‌–‌ ‌(change‌ ‌in‌ ‌diet)‌ ‌
• वर्ण्य‌ ‌करणे‌ ‌–‌ ‌त्याग‌ ‌करणे‌‌ – (to‌ ‌avoid)‌ ‌
• सुरळीत‌ ‌–‌ ‌व्यवस्थित‌‌ – (smoothly)‌ ‌
• कचेरी‌ ‌–‌ ‌कार्यालय‌‌ – (office)‌ ‌
• कुंभ‌ ‌रास‌ ‌–‌ ‌(aquarius)‌ ‌
• वायू‌ ‌–‌ ‌हवा‌‌ – (air)‌ ‌
• दोरीवरच्या‌ ‌उड्या‌‌ – (skipping)‌ ‌
• अवर्णनीय‌ ‌–‌ ‌वर्णन‌ ‌करता‌ ‌न‌ ‌येणारे‌ ‌–‌ ‌(indescribable)‌ ‌
• पडवळ‌ ‌–‌ ‌एक‌ ‌भाजी‌ ‌–‌ ‌(snake‌ ‌gourd)‌ ‌
• शेवग्याच्या‌ ‌शेंगा‌ ‌–‌ ‌(drum‌ ‌sticks)‌ ‌
• भेंडी‌ ‌–‌ ‌एक‌ ‌भाजी‌ ‌–‌ ‌(lady‌ ‌finger)‌ ‌
• संयम‌ ‌–‌ ‌ताबा‌‌ –‌ ‌(control)‌ ‌
• कटाक्ष‌ ‌–‌ ‌डोळ्यांच्या‌ ‌कोपऱ्यातून‌ ‌टाकलेला‌ ‌दृष्टिक्षेप‌‌ – (a‌ ‌glance)‌ ‌
• अमृत‌ ‌–‌ ‌पीयुष,‌ ‌सुधा‌ ‌–‌ ‌(rector)
• गोठा‌ –‌ ‌गुरे‌ ‌बांधण्याची‌ ‌जागा‌ ‌–‌ ‌(cow‌ ‌shed)
• ‌कुजकट‌ ‌–‌ ‌(येथे‌ ‌अर्थ)‌ ‌वाईट‌ ‌
• तुरळक‌‌ –‌ ‌क्वचित‌ ‌घडणारी‌ ‌–‌ ‌(rarely)
• ‌जिव्हा ‌‌ ‌–‌ ‌जीभ‌‌ –‌ ‌(tongue)‌‌

Marathi Aksharbharati Std 10 Digest Pdf भाग-१

• तू बुद्धी दे Question Answer (प्रार्थना)
• संतवाणी अंकिला मी दास तुझा-संत नामदेव Question Answer
• संतवाणी योगी सर्वकाळ सुखदाता-संत एकनाथ Question Answer
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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Marathi Solutions Aksharbharati Chapter 10 रंग साहित्याचे Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10th Marathi Aksharbharati Chapter 10 रंग साहित्याचे Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Std 10 Marathi Chapter 10 Question Answer

Marathi Aksharbharati Std 10 Digest Chapter 10 रंग साहित्याचे Textbook Questions and Answers

प्रश्न 1.
प्रस्तुत पाठात आलेल्या साहित्य प्रकारांची नावे लिहा.

उत्तर:
(i) कथा
(ii) कादंबरी
(iii) कविता
(iv) नाटक
(v) चरित्र
(vi) आत्मचरित्र
(vii) प्रवासवर्णन

प्रश्न 2.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.

उत्तर:

प्रश्न 3.
फरक स्पष्ट करा.

उत्तर:

प्रश्न 4.
खाली दिलेल्या अनेकवचनी नामांचे एकवचनी रूप लिहून त्यांचा वापर करून प्रत्येकी एक वाक्य तयार करा.
(i) रस्ते
(ii) वेळा
(iii) भिंती
(iv) विहिरी
(v) घड्याळे
(vi) माणसे
उत्तर:
(i) रस्ते – रस्ता – हा रस्ता रूंद व डांबरी आहे.
(ii) वेळा – वेळ – सकाळची वेळ अभ्यासासाठी चांगली असते.
(iii) भिंती – भिंत – चीनची भिंत खूप उंच व लांब आहे.
(iv) विहिरी – विहीर – गावाकडची विहीर पाण्याने भरली आहे.
(v) घड्याळे – घड्याळ – भिंतीवरचे घड्याळ सुशोभित दिसते.
(vi) माणसे – माणूस – कष्टाळू व इमानदार माणूस बक्षिसपात्र असतो.

प्रश्न 5.
खालील शब्दांना ‘पर’ हा एकच शब्द जोडून नवीन अर्थपूर्ण शब्द तयार होतात. ते बनवा. मराठी भाषेतील अशा विपुल शब्दसंपत्तीचा अभ्यास करा. त्याप्रमाणे वेगवेगळे शब्द तयार करा.

उत्तर:

प्रश्न 6.
खालील सामासिक शब्दांचा समास ओळखून तक्ता पूर्ण करा.
यथामती, प्रतिदिन, आईवडील, चारपाच, त्रिभुवन, केरकचरा, भाजीपाला, चहापाणी, आजन्म, गैरशिस्त, विटीदांडू, पापपुण्य, स्त्रीपुरुष

उत्तर:

प्रश्न 7.
स्वमत.
(अ) पुस्तकाशी मैत्री करण्याचे फायदे लिहा.
उत्तरः
पुस्तकांशी मैत्री म्हणजे निर्भेळ आनंदच. पुस्तके आपल्याशी बोलतात, त्यांचे विचार प्रगट करतात. ज्ञान देतात. चांगल्या कामासाठी प्रेरणा देतात. कठीण संकल्पना सोप्या करून सांगतात. चित्रांद्वारे, शब्दांतून मनमोकळ्या गप्पा मारतात. शब्दसंग्रह वाढवितात. प्रसंगी विविध स्थळांना भेटी दिल्याचा आनंद देतात. पुस्तके आपल्यावर कधीही रागावत नाहीत. रूसत नाहीत. भांडत नाहीत. काही अपेक्षा ठेवत नाहीत. म्हणून त्यांच्याशी मैत्री करून आपणही त्यांची काळजी घेणे तितकेच गरजेचे आहे.

(आ) तुम्हाला आवडलेल्या कोणत्याही एका साहित्यप्रकाराची वैशिष्ट्ये तुमच्या शब्दांत लिहा.
उत्तरः
मला आवडलेला साहित्यप्रकार म्हणजे कादंबरी. कादंबरी म्हणजे मोठी कथाच. विविध पात्रांनी, प्रसंगांनी नटलेली, सजलेली. कादंबरी जर खुमासदार असेल तर, ती हातातून सोडवत नाही. पुढे काय होणार याची उत्कंठा लागते. त्यातील पात्रांचा परिचय होतो व ती पात्रे आपल्याला आपल्यातीलच वाटू लागतात. कादंबरीत मन रममाण होते. सुखाच्या प्रसंगात भान हरपते. दु:खी प्रसंगाने अतिशय वाईटही वाटते, इतके तादात्म्य कादंबरीशी साधता येते. ‘ययाति’, ‘स्वामी’, या कादंबऱ्या माझ्या आवडत्या आहेत.

(इ) ‘उत्तम लेखक होण्यासाठी उत्तम वाचक होणे आवश्यक असते’, याबाबत तुमचे विचार स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
‘वाचाल तर वाचाल’ या उक्तीप्रमाणे वाचनाने आपणांस अनेक लाभ होतात. वाचनाने शब्द संपत्ती वाढते. नवनवीन संकल्पना कळतात. विचार प्रगल्भ होतात, लेखक होण्यासाठी या सर्वांचा उपयोग होतो. समाजातील चालीरिती, संस्कृती, नवीन शोध, पर्यटन, शैक्षणिक स्तर यांची माहिती वाचनाने मिळते. विचारांची बैठक पक्की होते. काळाचे भान येते. नव्या जुन्या गोष्टी कळतात. उत्तम विचार समर्थ लेखणीद्वारे प्रगट होतात.

(ई) तुम्हाला आवडलेल्या पुस्तकाबाबत खालील मुद्द्यांचा विचार करून माहिती लिहा.
(१) पुस्तकाचे नाव
(२) लेखक
(३) साहित्यप्रकार
(४) वर्ण्य विषय
(५) मध्यवर्ती कल्पना
(६) पुस्तकातून मिळणारा संदेश
(७) मूल्य
(८) सामाजिक महत्त्व
(९) आवडण्याची कारणे
उत्तरः
मला ‘पांडुरंग सदाशिव साने’ लिखित ‘श्यामची आई’ हे पुस्तक आवडते. हा ‘कादंबरी’ साहित्यप्रकार असून प्रस्तुत कादंबरीत श्याम हे मुख्य पात्र आहे. बालपणी त्यावर झालेले संस्कार, आईने लावलेले वळण, घरची गरीबी पण संस्कारांची श्रीमंती अशा मिश्रणातून घडलेला श्याम म्हणजे स्वतः लेखक पांडुरंग सदाशिव साने, अर्थात साने गुरूजी. मोठेपणी स्वातंत्र्य लढ्यात सहभागी झाले.

गांधीवादाचा पुरस्कार केला. कारागृहात रोज रात्री आपल्या इतर कैदी मित्रांसोबत लहानपणीच्या सर्व आठवणींना उजाळा दिला. रोज एक कथा सांगण्याचा परिपाठ झाला व त्यातून ‘श्यामची आई’ पुस्तक साकारले. धारिष्ट्य, खरेपणा, स्वाभिमान, निखळप्रेम, सहिष्णूता या गोष्टींचा अंतर्भाव या कादंबरीत ओतप्रोत भरला आहे.

आजच्या तंत्रज्ञानाच्या युगात बुद्ध्यांक जरी वाढला तरी भावनांक कमी झाला आहे. ही कादंबरी वाचून समानता, आदरभाव, स्वाभिमान, सच्चेपणा या मुल्यांची सजवणूक समाजात होईल, आईविषयीचे नितांत प्रेम, आईचे ही खरे मार्गदर्शन अशा वात्सल्यतेची अपूर्व कहाणी ‘श्यामची आई’ मध्ये असल्याने ही कादंबरी आवडते.

Marathi Akshar Bharati Class 10 Textbook Solutions Chapter 10 रंग साहित्याचे Additional Important Questions and Answers

प्रश्न १. खालील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा.

कृती १ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
चौकटीत उत्तरे लिहा.
उत्तरः
(i) सुश्रुतची सहल या गावी नेण्याचे ठरले – [भिलार]
(ii) मुलामुलींचा वेश करून आले – [पुस्तके]
(ii) कथेचे दुसरे नाव – [गोष्ट]

प्रश्न 3.
कोण कोणास म्हणाले?
उत्तरः

कृती २ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
खालील शब्द उत्तर येईल असे प्रश्न तयार करा,
(i) हातात हात घालून
(ii) लहानपणापासूनच.
उत्तर:
(i) काही पुस्तके कशी नाचत होती?
(ii) कथेची ओळख सुश्रुतला केव्हापासून आहे?

प्रश्न 2.
सहसंबंध लिहा.
(i) सूचना : वर्ग : : सहल : ……………………………..
उत्तर:
भिलार

प्रश्न 3.
कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा,
(i) सुश्रुतच्या वर्गाची …………………………….. गावाला सहल नेण्याचे ठरले. (किल्लारी, भिलार, पुणे, ठाणे)
(ii) काही पुस्तके मुला – मुलींचा वेश करून आणि हातात हात घालून …………………………….. गाणी गात आहेत. (नाचत, बागडत, आनंदाने, उत्साहाने)
उत्तर:
(i) भिलार
(ii) आनंदाने

प्रश्न 4.
खालील प्रश्नांची एका वाक्यात उत्तरे लिहा.

(i) सुश्रुतला कथा आपले दुसरे नाव काय सांगते?
उत्तर:
सुश्रुतला कथा आपले दुसरे नाव ‘गोष्ट’ असे सांगते.

(ii) सुश्रुतची आजी त्याला कोणत्या गोष्टी सांगायची?
उत्तर:
सुश्रुतची आजी त्याला कोल्हा, उंदीर, ससा-कासव यांच्या गोष्टी सांगायची.

(iii) अरे आम्ही सर्व तुला भेटायला आलो आहोत, असे सुश्रुतला कोण म्हणाले?
उत्तर:
अरे आम्ही सर्व तुला भेटायाला आलो आहोत, असे सुश्रुतला पुस्तकाच्या वेशातील मुले म्हणाली.

प्रश्न २. खालील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा.

कृती १ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
खालील प्रश्नांची उत्तरे एका वाक्यात लिहा.

(i) कलाकृती उत्तम केव्हा होते?
उत्तरः
दर्जेदार कथा असली की कलाकृती उत्तम होते.

(ii) कथेच्या यशाचे रहस्य काय?
उत्तर:
उत्तम निवेदनतंत्राचा वापर हे कथेच्या यशाचे रहस्य आहे.

(iii) कादंबरी वाचताना वाचक कशात रममाण होतो?
उत्तरः
कथानकात पुढे काय होईल याच्या विचारात कादंबरी वाचताना वाचक गुंतून जातो व रममाण होतो.

(iv) कथेची थोरली बहीण कोण?
उत्तर:
कथेची थोरली बहीण कादंबरी होय.

प्रश्न 3.
कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.
(i) …………………………… म्हणजे खरं तर मोठी कथाच; पण माझा आवाका कथेपेक्षा पार मोठा! (कथा, निबंध, कादंबरी, संवाद)
(ii) साहित्य क्षेत्रातील सर्वोच्च मानाचा …………………………… पुरस्कार वि. स. खांडेकर यांच्या ययाति या कादंबरीला मिळाला. (अर्जुन, ज्ञानपीठ, साहित्य)
(iii) कवितेची शब्दरचना अर्थपूर्ण व …………………………… असते. (चपखल, लयबद्ध, वैशिष्ट्यपूर्ण, आशययुक्त)
(iv) उत्तम …………………………… तंत्रामुळे मी खुलत जाते, रंगत जाते किंबहुना उत्तम निवेदनतंत्राचा वापर हे माझ्या यशाचं रहस्य. (भाषण, कथन, निवेदन, अनुवादन)
उत्तर:
(i) कादंबरी
(ii) ज्ञानपीठ
(iii) चपखल
(iv) निवेदन

कृती २ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
सकारण लिहा.

(i) कवितांची व आपली फार पूर्वीपासून चांगलीच ओळख आहे.
उत्तर:
शालेय जीवनात पाठ्यपुस्तकातील सगळ्या कविता तालासुरांत म्हटल्या जातात.

(ii) मराठी माणसांचा ऊर अभिमानानं भरून आला.
उत्तरः
साहित्य क्षेत्रातील सर्वोच्च मानाचा ‘ज्ञानपीठ’ पुरस्कार वि. स. खांडेकर यांच्या ‘ययाति’ या कादंबरीला मिळाला.

प्रश्न 3.
चूक की बरोबर ते लिहा.

(i) ‘ही आवडते मज मनापासुनी शाळा’ आणि ‘श्रावणमासी हर्ष मानसी’ या सुश्रुतच्या नावडत्या कविता होत्या.
(ii) कादंबरी म्हणजे खरं तर मोठी कथाच.
उत्तर:
(i) चूक
(ii) बरोबर

कृती ३ : स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
तुम्ही दूरदर्शनवर किंवा प्रत्यक्षात पाहिलेल्या काव्य संमेलनाविषयी तुमचे मत लिहा.
उत्तर:
होळीच्या निमित्ताने भरलेल्या काव्यसंमेलनास मला प्रत्यक्ष उपस्थित राहण्याचा योग आला. मोठ्या व्यासपीठावर अनेक कवी, कवयित्री विराजमान होते. प्रत्येक जण आपली कविता विशिष्ट हावभावांसहित, चालीत म्हणून दाखवीत होते. कवितांची रचना अर्थपूर्ण व चपखल होती. कल्पनांचा सुंदर आविष्कार होता. काही कविता सामाजिक होत्या तर काही कविता हास्यरसपूर्ण होत्या. श्रोते मनापासून कवितांना दाद देत होते. कवीच्या आवाजातील चढउतार, त्यांचे हावभाव कौतुकास्पद होते. काही कवितांमध्ये अनुप्रासामुळे गोडवा होता. उत्प्रेक्षा, उपमा, रूपक अलंकारांनी सजलेल्या या कविता मनाला मोहून गेल्या. काव्यसंमेलन कधी संपले ते कळले नाही. कविता गुणगुणतच आम्ही बाहेर पडलो.

प्रश्न ३. खालील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा.

कृती १ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
खालील प्रश्नांची उत्तरे एका वाक्यात लिहा.

(i) सामान्य लोकांची मते कशी बदलतात?
उत्तर:
चरित्र वाचनाने सामान्य लोकांची मते बदलतात,

(ii) चरित्र कसे असते?
उत्तर:
चरित्र संघर्षमय, कर्तृत्ववान, संधीचे सुवर्णसंधीत रूपांतर करणारे असते.

(iii) चरित्र कसे जन्माला येते?
उत्तर:
एखादया थोर व्यक्तिमत्त्वाच्या आयुष्याची गाथा लिहिण्याची प्रेरणा लेखकाला मिळते व चरित्र जन्माला येते.

(iv) नाटककाराची कोणती अपेक्षा असते?
उत्तरः
नाटक वाचनीय आणि प्रेक्षणीय व्हावं अशी नाटककाराची अपेक्षा असते.

प्रश्न 3.
कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.
(i) …………………………. नाटकाचे लेखक वि. वा. शिरवाडकर म्हणजेच कवीवर्य कुसुमाग्रज. (‘नटसम्राट’, ‘विठ्ठल तो आला’, ‘गिधाड’, ‘कुलांगार’)
(ii) माझं रंगमंचावर सादरीकरण होणार याचे भान ठेवूनच …………………………. माझी मांडणी करतो. (कादंबरीकार, कथाकार, कविताकार, नाटककार)
उत्तर:
(i) ‘नटसम्राट’
(ii) नाटककार

कृती २ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
कारणे शोधा.

(i) नाटक मराठी माणसाच्या हृदयात अढळ स्थान प्राप्त करते कारण . . .
उत्तरः
पात्ररचना, चुरचुरीत संवाद आणि नाट्यमय घटना प्रसंग यांमुळे नाटक मराठी माणसाच्या हृदयात अढळ स्थान प्राप्त करते.

(ii) २७ फेब्रुवारीला मराठी दिन साजरा करतात कारण . . .
उत्तर:
२७ फेब्रुवारी हा ‘ज्ञानपीठ’ पुरस्काराचे मानकरी कविवर्य कुसुमाग्रज म्हणजे वि.वा.शिरवाडकर यांचा जन्मदिन आहे. त्यांच्या साहित्य सेवेमुळेच त्यांचा जन्मदिवस मराठी दिन म्हणून साजरा करतात.

प्रश्न 2.
वर्गीकरण करा.
वसंत कानेटकर, रणजित देसाई, पु.ल. देशपांडे, धनंजय गाडगीळ, प्र.के. अत्रे, भा.द.खेर, राम गणेश गडकरी, मधुसुदन कालेलकर, बाबासाहेब पुरंदरे
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 3.
योग्य पर्याय निवडून विधान पूर्ण करा.
(i) संतकाव्यापासून पंतकाव्य, मध्ययुगीन काव्य, शाहिरी काव्य अशी वळणे घेत आधुनिक काळात मी …
(अ) मुक्त छंदाचे रूप धारण केले आहे.
(आ) करूण रसाचे रूप धारण केले आहे.
(इ) अभंग छंदाचे रूप धारण केले आहे.
(ई) मुक्त छंदाचे रूप स्वीकारले आहे
उत्तर:
संतकाव्यापासून पंतकाव्य, मध्ययुगीन काव्य, शाहिरी काव्य अशी वळणे घेत आधुनिक काळात मी मुक्त छंदाचे रूप धारण केले आहे.

प्रश्न 4.
चूक की बरोबर लिहा.
(i) ‘नटसम्राट’ नाटकाचे लेखक कुसुमाग्रज म्हणजेच वि. वा. शिरवाडकर.
(ii) थोरांची चरित्रे सामान्यांना धोका देतात.
उत्तर:
(i) बरोबर
(ii) चूक

कृती ३ : स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
‘नाटक कलाकाराला घडवते’ याचे समर्थन करणारे विचार तुमच्या शब्दांत मांडा.
उत्तरः
साहित्यप्रकारातील ‘नाटक’ हा भाग म्हणजे विलक्षण आव्हानात्मक, नाट्यसंहिता लिहिण्यापासून ते थेट रंगमंचापर्यंतचा नाटकाचा प्रवास हा विविधांगी असतो. उत्कृष्ट लेखन, उत्कृष्ट दिग्दर्शन व उत्कृष्ट अभिनय यावर नाटकाचे यश अवलंबून असते, नाटकात काम करणारे कलाकार शब्दांना मूर्तरूप देतात. प्रेक्षकांच्या मनावर पकड करतात. संवादफेक, शब्दांचे उच्चार, आवाजातील चढ-उतार, नाटकाचा आशय व त्यातून समाजाला मिळणारा संदेश याची जबाबदारी कलाकारावर असते. कलाकार त्या भूमिकेत मनापासून शिरल्याखेरीज ती भूमिका प्रभावी होत नाही. नाटक कलाकाराच्या रोमारोमांत भिनलेले असते. म्हणून नाटक कलाकाराची सर्वांगीण प्रगती करते व त्याला घडवते.

प्रश्न ४. खालील उताऱ्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार कृती करा.

कृती १ : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
मी कोण ते लिहा.
उत्तरः
(i) एखादया व्यक्तिच्या आयुष्याचे वर्णन – [चरित्र]
(ii) स्वत:च्या जीवनप्रवासाचे तटस्थपणे केलेले वर्णन – [आत्मचरित्र]

प्रश्न 3.
खालील प्रश्नांची उत्तरे एका वाक्यात लिहा.

(i) आत्मचरित्रात तटस्थपणे कशाचे कथन आढळते?
उत्तरः
आत्मचरित्रात आयुष्यात आलेल्या विविध टप्प्यांचे, वळणांचे, भल्याबुऱ्या अनुभवांचे तटस्थपणे केलेले कथन आढळते.

(ii) घरी बसून दूरच्या गावी नेणारे कोण असते?
उत्तरः
घरी बसून दूरच्या गावी नेणारे प्रवासवर्णन असते.

(iii) प्रवासवर्णनात लेखकाचे कसब कोणते?
उत्तरः
माहिती रटाळ, कंटाळवाणी न होऊ देता रंजक पद्धतीने मनोवेधक भाषेत मांडणं हे लेखकाचं कसब असतं.

(iv) सर्व साहित्य मित्रांमुळे सुश्रुतला काय फायदा होणार आहे ?
उत्तरः
सर्व साहित्य मित्रांमुळे मनोरंजन होऊन ज्ञानही वाढेल व लेखनही सुधारेल.

कृती २: आकलन

प्रश्न 1.
आकृती पूर्ण करा.
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
सकारण लिहा.
प्रवासवर्णन रंजक होते –
उत्तरः
लेखक त्या ठिकाणच्या माहितीबरोबर स्वत:चे अनुभव, भावना, निसर्गसौंदर्य, व्यक्तिविशेष यांची सुरेख मांडणी करतो.

प्रश्न 3.
योग्य पर्याय निवडा.
(i) सुश्रुतला साहित्य मित्रांशी मैत्री करायला आवडेल कारण . . .
(अ) ते सुश्रुतला बक्षिस देतील.
(ब) ते सुश्रुतला कधीच सोडून जाणार नाही.
(क) ते सप्तरंगी इंद्रधनुष्यासारखे आहेत.
(ड) ते सुश्रुतशी खेळतील.
उत्तरः
सुश्रुतला साहित्य मित्रांशी मैत्री करायला आवडेल कारण ते सुश्रुतला कधीच सोडून जाणार नाही.

(ii) मी प्रेक्षणीय ठिकाणांची माहिती वाचकांपर्यंत पोहोचवतो –
(अ) लेखक
(ब) कवी
(क) चित्रकार
(ड) प्रवासवर्णन
उत्तरः
मी प्रेक्षणीय ठिकाणांची माहिती वाचकांपर्यंत पोहोचवतो प्रवासवर्णन.

प्रश्न 4.
कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.
(i) …………………………….. रंग विविध हे, भुलविती साऱ्या रसिकजना. (विषयाचे, साहित्याचे, कथेचे, निबंधाचे)
(ii) धन्य आमुची …………………………….. मराठी, धन्य साहित्यसंपदा. (माय, मातृ, श्रेष्ठ, कनिष्ठ)
उत्तर:
(i) साहित्याचे
(ii) माय

कृती ३ : स्वमत

प्रश्न 1.
‘आत्मचरित्र म्हणजे लेखकाच्या जीवनाचा आरसा’ हे विधान स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
आत्मचरित्र म्हणजे लेखकाने स्वत:च्या जीवनप्रवासाचे तटस्थपणे केलेले वर्णन. विविध वळणांचे, आयुष्यातील भल्या-बुऱ्या घटनांचे लेखक तटस्थपणे वर्णन करून शब्दात मांडतो. त्यात खोटेपणाला वाव नसतो. जे घडले ते जसेच्या तसे मांडण्याचा त्याचा प्रामाणिक प्रयत्न असतो.

जसा आरसा जे आहे तसेच दाखवतो तसेच आत्मचरित्र ही घडलेल्या घटना अतिरंजीत न करता जशाच्या तशा दाखवते. त्यात लेखकाचा संघर्ष असू शकतो, त्याचे कर्तृत्व, त्याचा मान-अपमान व त्याची गुणवैशिष्ट्ये आत्मचरित्रातून दिसतात. अनेक आत्मचरित्रे बोधप्रद असतात. त्यातून जिद्द, चिकाटी, सच्चेपणा हे गुण शिकता येतात. मी स्वातंत्र्यवीर सावरकर व गांधीजीचे चरित्र वाचले आहे. खरोखरच आत्मचरित्र म्हणजे लेखकाच्या जीवनाचा आरसा असतो हे तेव्हा उमगले.

स्वाध्याय कृती

(७) स्वमत

(i) पुस्तकाशी मैत्री करण्याचे फायदे.
उत्तरः
पुस्तकांशी मैत्री म्हणजे निर्भेळ आनंदच. पुस्तके आपल्याशी बोलतात, त्यांचे विचार प्रगट करतात. ज्ञान देतात. चांगल्या कामासाठी प्रेरणा देतात. कठीण संकल्पना सोप्या करून सांगतात. चित्रांद्वारे, शब्दांतून मनमोकळ्या गप्पा मारतात. शब्दसंग्रह वाढवितात. प्रसंगी विविध स्थळांना भेटी दिल्याचा आनंद देतात. पुस्तके आपल्यावर कधीही रागावत नाहीत. रूसत नाहीत. भांडत नाहीत. काही अपेक्षा ठेवत नाहीत. म्हणून त्यांच्याशी मैत्री करून आपणही त्यांची काळजी घेणे तितकेच गरजेचे आहे.

(ii) तुम्हांला आवडलेल्या कोणत्याही साहित्यप्रकाराची वैशिष्ट्ये तुमच्या शब्दात लिहा.
उत्तरः
मला आवडलेला साहित्यप्रकार म्हणजे कादंबरी. कादंबरी म्हणजे मोठी कथाच. विविध पात्रांनी, प्रसंगांनी नटलेली, सजलेली. कादंबरी जर खुमासदार असेल तर, ती हातातून सोडवत नाही. पुढे काय होणार याची उत्कंठा लागते. त्यातील पात्रांचा परिचय होतो व ती पात्रे आपल्याला आपल्यातीलच वाटू लागतात. कादंबरीत मन रममाण होते. सुखाच्या प्रसंगात भान हरपते. दु:खी प्रसंगाने अतिशय वाईटही वाटते, इतके तादात्म्य कादंबरीशी साधता येते. ‘ययाति’, ‘स्वामी’, या कादंबऱ्या माझ्या आवडत्या आहेत.

(iii) ‘उत्तम लेखक होण्यासाठी उत्तम वाचक होणे आवश्यक असते’ यावर तुमचे विचार स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
‘वाचाल तर वाचाल’ या उक्तीप्रमाणे वाचनाने आपणांस अनेक लाभ होतात. वाचनाने शब्द संपत्ती वाढते. नवनवीन संकल्पना कळतात. विचार प्रगल्भ होतात, लेखक होण्यासाठी या सर्वांचा उपयोग होतो. समाजातील चालीरिती, संस्कृती, नवीन शोध, पर्यटन, शैक्षणिक स्तर यांची माहिती वाचनाने मिळते. विचारांची बैठक पक्की होते. काळाचे भान येते. नव्या जुन्या गोष्टी कळतात. उत्तम विचार समर्थ लेखणीद्वारे प्रगट होतात.

रंग साहित्याचे Summary in Marathi

रंग साहित्याचे पाठपरिचय‌
प्रत्येक‌ ‌भाषा‌ ‌विविध‌ ‌साहित्यप्रकारांनी‌ ‌नटलेली‌ ‌असते.‌ ‌असे‌ ‌साहित्यप्रकार‌ ‌मानवी‌ ‌रूप‌ ‌घेऊन‌ ‌या‌ ‌पाठातून‌ ‌स्वपरिचय‌ ‌करून‌ ‌देत‌ ‌आहेत,‌ ‌भाषासमृद्धीकरणासाठी‌ ‌साहित्यप्रकारांचा,‌ ‌त्यांच्यातील‌ ‌वैशिष्ट्यांचा‌ ‌उपयोग‌ ‌होतो.‌ ‌या‌ ‌साहित्यप्रकारांशी‌ ‌मैत्री‌ ‌केली,‌ ‌तर‌ ‌मनोरंजनाबरोबर‌ ‌आपले‌ ‌ज्ञानही‌ ‌वाढेल‌ ‌असा‌ ‌संदेशही‌ ‌पाठातून‌ ‌दिला‌ ‌आहे.‌ ‌नाट्यस्वरूपातील‌ ‌हा‌ ‌पाठ‌ ‌साहित्यातील‌ ‌विविध‌ ‌कलाकृतींचा‌ ‌परिचय‌ ‌करून‌ ‌देणारा‌ ‌आहे.‌‌

रंग साहित्याचे Summary in English

Every‌ ‌language‌ ‌is‌ ‌enhanced‌ ‌by‌ ‌a‌ ‌body‌ ‌of‌ ‌literature.‌ ‌When‌ ‌different‌ ‌types‌ ‌of‌ ‌literature‌ ‌take‌ ‌human‌ ‌form‌ ‌and‌ ‌introduce‌ ‌themselves,‌ ‌they‌ ‌add‌ ‌to‌ ‌the‌ ‌beauty‌ ‌of‌ ‌language.‌ ‌The‌ ‌various‌ ‌characteristics‌ ‌of‌ ‌literature‌ ‌help‌ ‌in‌ ‌this‌ ‌process.‌ ‌If‌ ‌we‌ ‌get‌ ‌acquainted‌ ‌with‌ ‌these‌ ‌literary‌ ‌types,‌ ‌we‌ ‌not‌ ‌only‌ ‌get‌ ‌entertained‌ ‌but‌ ‌also‌ ‌acquire‌ ‌a‌ ‌fair‌ ‌amount‌ ‌of‌ ‌knowledge.‌ ‌This‌ ‌message‌ ‌is‌ ‌conveyed‌ ‌through‌ ‌this‌ ‌lesson.‌ ‌This‌ ‌animated‌ ‌lesson‌ ‌introduces‌ ‌us‌ ‌to‌ ‌various‌ ‌types‌ ‌of‌ ‌literary‌ ‌divisions.‌‌

रंग साहित्याचे ‌शब्दार्थ‌

• सहल‌ ‌–‌ ‌यात्रा‌‌ –‌ ‌(picnic)‌ ‌
• वेश‌ ‌–‌ ‌पोशाख‌‌ –‌ ‌(costume)‌ ‌
• सूचना‌ ‌–‌ ‌बातमी‌‌ –‌ ‌(notice)‌ ‌
• ओळख‌ ‌–‌ ‌परिचय‌‌ – (introduction)‌ ‌
• कथा –‌ ‌गोष्ट‌‌ – (story)‌ ‌
• आकर्षक‌ ‌–‌ ‌लक्षवेधी‌‌ –‌ ‌(attractive)‌ ‌
• परिणामकारक‌ ‌–‌ ‌प्रभावी‌ ‌–‌ ‌(effective)‌ ‌
• शेवट‌‌ –‌ ‌समारोप‌‌ – (ending)‌ ‌
• साहसकथा‌ ‌–‌ ‌शौर्यकथा‌‌ – (adventurous)‌ ‌
• परीकथा‌ ‌–‌ ‌पऱ्यांच्या‌ ‌गोष्टी‌ ‌–‌ ‌(fairly‌ ‌tales)‌ ‌
• बोधकथा‌ ‌–‌ ‌नीतीकथा‌‌ – (moral‌ ‌stories)‌ ‌
• नाटक‌ ‌–‌ ‌नाटिका‌ ‌–‌ ‌(drama,‌ ‌play)‌ ‌
• मालिका‌ ‌–‌ ‌संलग्नकथा‌ ‌–‌ ‌(episodes)‌ ‌
• चित्रपट‌ ‌–‌ ‌सिनेमा‌‌ –‌ ‌(movies)‌ ‌
• दर्जेदार‌ ‌–‌ ‌गुणवत्तापूर्ण‌ ‌–‌ ‌(qualitative)‌ ‌
• उत्तम‌ ‌–‌ ‌सुरेख‌‌ –‌ ‌(excellent)‌ ‌
• निवेदन‌ ‌–‌ ‌कथन‌‌ –‌ ‌(statement)‌ ‌
• तंत्र –‌ ‌पद्धत‌ ‌–‌ ‌(technique)‌ ‌
• यश‌ ‌–‌ ‌सफलता‌ ‌–‌ ‌(success)‌ ‌
• रहस्य‌ ‌–‌ ‌गुपीत‌‌ – (mystery)‌ ‌
• तृप्त‌ ‌–‌ ‌समाधान‌‌ –‌ ‌(satisfaction)‌ ‌
• कादंबरी‌ ‌–‌ ‌अखंड‌ ‌मोठी‌ ‌कथा‌ ‌–‌ ‌(novel)‌ ‌
• आवाका‌ ‌–‌ ‌पसारा‌ ‌–‌ ‌(volume)‌‌
• पात्र‌ कलाकार‌ ‌–‌ ‌(characters)‌ ‌
• ‌परस्पर‌ एकमेकांशी‌ ‌–‌ ‌(inter‌ ‌related)‌ ‌
• ‌उत्कंठा‌‌ –‌ ‌उत्सुकता‌ ‌–‌ ‌(eagerness)‌
• सर्वोच्च‌‌ –‌ ‌अत्यंत‌ ‌मोठा‌‌ –‌ ‌(highest)
• पुरस्कार‌ ‌‌–‌‌ ‌बक्षिस‌‌ –‌ ‌(award)‌ ‌
• आटोपशीर‌ ‌–‌ ‌नेमके‌‌ –‌ ‌(handily)‌‌
• आशय‌‌ –‌ ‌हेतू‌‌ –‌ ‌‌(purpose)‌
• वैशिष्ट्य‌‌ –‌ ‌विशिष्टता‌‌ –‌ ‌(peculiarity)‌ ‌
• यमक‌‌ ‌–‌ एक‌ ‌शब्दालंकार‌ ‌–‌ ‌(homonym)‌ ‌
• अनुप्रास‌ –‌ ‌एक‌ ‌शब्दालंकार‌ ‌–‌ ‌(alliteration)
• ‌उपमा‌‌ –‌ ‌‌एक‌ ‌अर्थालंकार‌ ‌–‌ ‌(example)‌
• रूपक‌‌ ‌–‌ ‌एक‌ ‌अर्थालंकार‌ ‌–‌ ‌(metaphor)‌ ‌
• चपखल‌ ‌–‌ ‌तंतोतंत‌ ‌–‌ ‌(precise)‌ ‌
• आविष्कार‌ ‌–‌ ‌प्रगटीकरण‌ ‌–‌ ‌(manifestation)‌ ‌
• रूपांतर‌ ‌–‌ ‌परिवर्तन‌ ‌–‌ ‌(transfiguration)‌ ‌
• निरीक्षण‌ ‌–‌ ‌बारकाईने‌ ‌पहाणे‌ ‌–‌ ‌(observation)‌ ‌
• अर्थालंकार‌‌ –‌ ‌एक‌ ‌अलंकाराचा‌ ‌प्रकार‌‌ (figure‌ ‌of‌ ‌speech)‌ ‌
• अर्थपूर्ण‌ ‌–‌ ‌उद्देशपूर्ण‌ ‌–‌ ‌(meaningful)‌ ‌
• कल्पना‌ ‌–‌ ‌कल्पित‌‌ (imagination)‌
• संवाद ‌–‌ ‌संभाषण‌ ‌–‌ ‌(dialogue)‌‌

Marathi Akshar Bharati Class 10th Digest भाग-३

• औक्षण Question Answer (कविता)
• रंग साहित्याचे Question Answer
• जंगल डायरी Question Answer
• रंग मजेचे रंग उदयाचे Question Answer (कविता)
• जगणं कॅक्टसचं Question Answer (स्थूलवाचन)

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 History Chapter 8 Question Answer Tourism and History Maharashtra Board

Class 10 History Chapter 8 Tourism and History Question Answer Maharashtra Board

History Class 10 Chapter 8 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) Thomas Cook established a travel agency selling ……………………….. .
(a) handicrafts
(b) toys
(c) food items
(d) tourist tickets
Answer:
(d) tourist tickets

(2) Bhilar is known as the ‘Village of ……………………….. .
(a) books
(b) plants
(c) mangoes
(d) forts
Answer:
(a) Books

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Matheran – Hill Station
(2) Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves
(3) Kolhapur – Pilgrim Centre
(4) Ajanta – World Heritage
Answer:
(2) Wrong Pair: Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves

Question 2.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) The number of people travelling back and forth from India has increased considerably.
Answer:

• It has become easier to travel because of the easy availability of a number of options like railway, marine and air services.
• Marine has linked the coastal regions. Aviation has brought the entire world closer.
• The economic liberalisation policy of the Indian government has made the travel more easy.
• People travel for studies, relaxation, sightseeing and professional assignments (meetings, etc.), also for shooting films. Therefore, there has been a considerable increase in the number of people travelling back and forth from India.

(2) It is important to take a few primary precautions in order to preserve the historical heritage sites.
Answer:
India has rich natural and cultural heritage. In order to preserve the historical sites following precautionary measures should be taken.

• Avoid vandalising or defacing the heritage monuments and sites.
• To refrain from activities like writing on the wall or carving on the trees.
• Ancient monuments should not be painted in garish colours.
• Lack of good amenities in the precints of the heritage sites causes filthiness. Proper amenities should be provided.
• Heritage monuments like forts and other monuments are testimonies of our glorious past and they serve as guide for future generations.

Therefore, they should be preserved..

Question 3.
Write short notes :
(1) Tradition of Travelling
Answer:

• The tradition of traveffing from one corner to another is not new.
• It existed in India since ancient times.
• In stone age, man was constantly on the move in search of food but that was just wandering not travelling.
• India has got a rich tradition of travelling.
• People go for local fairs, temple fairs, festivals and pilgrimage which comes under cultural tourism.
• People travelled long distance for education and trade.
• Many students visited Nalanda, Takshshila universities in the past.
• As travelling is a natural instinct in man, the tradition of travelling for various reasons is prevalent since ancient times.

(2) Marco Polo
Answer:

• Marco Polo was born in a business family in the Italian city of Venice in 1254 CE.
• He was the first European traveller to reach China taking the silk route.
• His travelogue introduced Asia, especially China to Europe.
• He wrote about the rich flora and fauna, social life, information on culture and trade system in Asia.
• His writings initiated trade between Europe and Asia.

(3) Agro-tourism
Answer:
Visit to agricultural centres and agricultural universities comes under agro-tourism.

1. In recent times lot of research is conducted in the agricultural field. Many new agricultural universities and research centres are formed in India.
2. Projects are undertaken to inform farmers about suitable soil for their crops, organic manures, earthworm compost, etc. Sikkim state is the first organic state of India.
3. Though it receives less rainfall, Israel has made a lot of development in agricultural sector. To obtain information on novel techniques in farming and on projects started, students and city people travel to places.
4. As urban population has very little exposure to rural life and agriculture, agro-tourism is developing rapidly.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions in detail.
(1) What are the crucial issues in the development of tourism?
Answer:
In modern times, tourism is not limited to being a job-oriented profession but it also contributes to the nation’s development.

• Safety of the tourists and secure transport facilities should be given utmost preference.
• Availability of good accommodation and amenities of reasonably good standard should be made available.
• Good washroom facilities oq, the travel routes and at tourists sites should be provided.
• Pamphlets, guides, maps should be made available to the tourists, preferably in their own language.
• It would be helpful if taxi drivers are trained to converse in more than one languages.
• They can also be trained as tourist guides.
• Attention should be given towards the needs of specially challenged people.

(2) In what way tourism becomes a major source of their livelihood?
Answer:
In the following ways development takes place at local level because of tourism:

•  Local markets are developed in the vicinity of a tourist site.
• There is considerable increase in purchase and sales of goods liked by tourists.
• Production and sale of ethnic handicraft goods increase eventually leading to the development of these industries.
• Economic well-being of the skilled craftsmen.
• Increase in demand of locally processed food, hotel services, accommodation and in shops leads to development of these services.
• Local transport, travel agents, guides are in demand. Hence more and more employment opportunities are generated.

(3) What would you do to develop the surroundings of your village /town to help the growth of tourism?
Answer:
It is important to have an understanding of our surroundings. For that some ground work is essential.

1. Historical monuments and temples should be conserved and preserved. Boards having information on them should be put up around the city. We need to pay attention towards cleanliness.
2. Beaches should be clean as clean beaches always attract tourists.
3. Tourists are interested to see projects like earthworm composts, zero waste and working of solar power projects. If such projects are installed they become centre of major tourist attraction.
4. Similarly, tourists are interested to see local art, culture, cottage and handicraft industry. They are enthusiastic to buy locally made handicrafts as souvenirs. I feel if there is economical, geographical, cultural and educational development in our surroundings it will definitely boost tourism.

Question 5.
Complete the following Concept chart:

Answer:

Question 6.
Give elaborate answers to the following.
(1) What are the professional fields associated with tourism?
Answer:
The following fields are related to tourism:

• Hotels, lodging and boarding services.
• Shops selling food items and catering services, etc.
• A reviväl or boost to Handicraft and Cottage industiy resulting in economic well-being of the skilled craftsmen.
• Demand for industries affiliated to hotel industry like Dairy industry.
• Agro industry which supplies vegetables, fruits, fish and meat increases.
• Transport services which are required by tourists such as bus, autorickshaw and taxi, increase in numbers.
• Travel agents, photographers, guides, etc. and other professions related to tourism get a boost.

(2) Describe any three types of tourism.
Answer:
Tourism has been classified into many types, three important types of them are:
(1) Historical Tourism:

• Tourism and history are inseparable.
• The number of people visiting historical places are increasing day by day.
• Tours are arranged to see forts, battlefields which narrate stories of valour of our ancestors and monuments made by them.
• Tourists visit memorials of freedom fighters, forts built by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, palaces built by kings.
• Important places related to the Indian war of independence in 1857, and ashrams of Mahatma Gandhi and Vinoba Bhave.

Thus, this type of historical tourism is popular all around the world.

(2) Geographic Tourism:
Sea beaches, mountain ranges, valleys, snow-capped peaks, pristine jungles, sanctuaries, lakes formed because of meteor impact, waterfalls, form wealth of a nation. People enjoy nature and feel a natural attraction towards it. People around the world visit 8 such places out of curiosity or for leisure.

(3) International Tourism:

• International tourism is on the rise in modern times because of availability of transport facility.
• International tourism is on the rise because people travel for various reasons like international literary conferences, world summits, meetings, business deals, site seeing and visit to religious places.
• International seminars and conferences are held.
• Film festivals are arranged. Such events promote international tourism.

Project
Explain the need to preserve the heritage sites. What measures are required to achieve it? Discuss.

Question 7.
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:
(a) The Chinese monk …………………….. travelled in India in 630 C.E.
(a) Hiuen Tsang
(b) Yuan Shwcmg
(c) Fa-Hien
(d) Ho Chi Minh
Answer:
(b) Yuan Shwang

(b) The number of people travelling back and forth from India has increased considerably because of …………………….. .
(a) India’s first war of Independence
(b) India’s independence
(c) Economic liberalisation
(d) Good railway services
Answer:
(c) Economic liberalisation

(c) …………………….. used to arrange hiking tours in Maharashtra to explore the sights closely linked to Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
(a) N.S. Incim dar
(b) Ranjit Desai
(c) Vishnubhcrt Godse
(d) Gopal Neelkanth Dandekar
Answer:
(d) Gopal Neelkanth Dandekar.

(d) In order to provide good’ amenities on the pilgrim routes like Chardham Yatras and Bara Jyotirlings …………………….. has spent from her personal funds.
(a) Queen Lakshmibcri
(b) Ahilyabai Holkar
(c) Nanasaheb Peshwa
(d) Vshunbhat Godse
Answer:
(b) Ahilyabai Holkar

(e) A visit to …………………….. at Nighoj in Maharashtra is geographic tourism.
(a) palace
(b) fort
(c) ranjankhalage
(d) temple
Answer:
(c) ranjankhalage

(f) …………………….. has conducted experiments of advanced technology in agriculture.
(a) Egypt
(b) Jordan
(c) Italy
(d) Israel
Answer:
(d) Israel

(g) Travelling to attend events like Maharashtra Kesari is known as ……………………. .
(a) Geographic Tourism
(b) Health Tourism
(c) Agro Tourism
(d) Sports Tourism
Answer:
(d) Sports Tourism

(h) …………………….. successfully circumnavigated Europe.
(a) Marco Polo
(b) Thomas Cook
(c) Benjamin of Tudela
(d) Gerardus Mercator
Answer:
(b) Thomas Cook.

Question 8.
Identify the wrong pair in the following, and write it:
(1)

(1) Matheran	Hill Station
(2) Tadoba	Rock-cut Caves
(3) Kolhapur	Pilgrim Centre
(4) Ajanta	World Heritage

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves

(2)

(1) First Cartographer who made world map	Thomas Cook
(2) First European discoverer	Benjamin of Tudela
(3) Italian traveller who introduced China to Europe	Marco Polo
(4) Traveller who travelled extensively in Islamic world	Ibn Batuta

Answer:
Wrong Pair: First Cartographer who made world map – Thomas Cook

(3)

Place	Popular for
(1)  Lonar (2)  Jayakwadi (3)  Gharapuri (4)  Jantar Mantar	Lake Hill Station Rock-cut Caves Observatory

Answer:
Wrong Pair Jayakwadi – Hill Station

(4)

(1) Gharapuri (Elephanta)	Cave
(2) Pandharpur	Pilgrim centre
(3) Sagareshwar	Dam
(4) Panchgani	Hill station

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Sagareshwar – Dam

(5)

(1) Chikhaldara	Hill station
(2) Tuljapur	Pilgrim centre
(3) Sagareshwar	Sanctuary
(4) Tadoba	Rock-cut Caves

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves

Question 9.
Do as directed:
(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

(3)

Answer:

Question 10.
Explain the concept:
(1) Tourism:
Answer:

1. Visiting places in distant regions with a specific purpose is known as Tourism.
2. Tourism can also be defined as going for local fairs, festivals, pilgrimage, entertainment, leisure, historical or places of natural beauty. Man has a natural instinct to travel.
3. Travelling is an old tradition which has undergone changes with time. In modern times, tourism has changed in its nature and form.
4. Tourism expands from the local to the international level. As tourism develops it opens the doors of development for a country.

(2) Religious Tourism:
Answer:

1. When people travel individually or in groups on a pilgrimage, it is known as Religious Tourism. Religious seminars, pilgrimages, religious festivals and travel on occasions to bathe in holy rivers come under religious tourism.
2. Gautam Buddha and Buddhist monks travelled to preach Buddhism and give discourses on Dhama. In the same way, Shankarachaya had travelled to spread Hinduism. St. Francis Xavier along with his followers travelled all over India to preach Christianity.
3. People in Maharashtra walk on foot to reach Pandharpur, Shirdi and many holy places to pay their obeisance.
4. Guru Nanak, Saint Namdev, Samarth Ramdas, as well as Yuan Shwang who came from China in 630 CE to study Buddhism in India, travelled extensively in India.

(3) Heritage Walk:
Answer:

1. Heritage walk . involves physical walking in the area-and observing the historical sites. People go for heritage walks to see historical palaces, forts and old temples.
2. The first hand experience we get is inspirational in forming an emotional connect and a long lasting impression. .
3. Many enthusiastic organisations held such heritage walks in city of Ahmadabad, Mumbai and Pune to enable the people to get glimpses of history.

(4) Cultural tourism:
Answer:

• India has rich tradition of folk arts. Festivals are arranged to promote such art forms.
• Travelling to see such festivals comes under Cultural tourism.
• Visiting historical places to get a glimpse of local culture is also cultural tourism.
• It also involves visiting reputed educational institutions and understand their traditions as well as travelling to see festivals and celebrations in different parts of the country.
• Travelling to participate in various music- dance festivals as audience is also part of cultural tourism.

Question 11.
Write short notes:
(a) Benjamin of Tudela:
Answer:

• Benjamin of Tudela is known to be the first traveller in the world. He was born in Spain.
• He travelled through Asia, Europe and Africa in between 1159-1173 C.E.
• He visited France, Germany, Italy, Greece, Syria, Arabia, Egypt, Iraq and Persia. He even visited India and China.
• He noted down his experiences and observations about people and their living style in his diaries.
• He made accurate observations about the social life in the medieval period.

Hence, his accounts are authentic and are studied by scholars studying the medieval period.

(b) Ibn Batuta:
Answer:

1. Ibn Batuta was born on 25th February, 1304 in present Morocco. He was a great 14th century traveller who travelled for 30 years. His travel accounts enabled people an insight into the Islamic world.
2. Having made’ the resolution of not taking the same route again, he travelled to South and East Africa, South and East Europe, Middle and South east Asia in the Indian subcontinent.
3. His writings are helpful for those who study medieval history and social life.
4. In his book Batuta said,’ “Travelling – it leaves you speechless, then turns you into storyteller.”

(c) Gerardus Mercator:
Answer:

• Gerardus Mercator of 16th century was the first Dutch cartographer.
• He was the first one to make a world map and globe of the earth. He made large and small maps which could be hung on a wall.
• Mercator used the word Atlas’ for the first time. He made scientific and astronomical instruments.
• His maps gave momentum to navigation around the world.

Question 12.
Explain the following statements with reasons:

(a) Maza Pravas is an important source of history.
Answer:

1. Vishnubhat Godse in his travelogue wrote about his journey to Ayodhya and back to Maharashtra.
2. He published a book, called ‘Maza Pravas’ in which he gave an eye witness account of the events which unfolded during the Indian War of Independence in 1857.
3. He gave full detailed descriptions about various incident during that period, especially on the life of the Queen of Jhansi Lakshmibai.
4. His writings give us an idea about the nature of the Marathi language in the 18th century.
   Therefore, it is considered as an important source of history.

(4) Tourism can provide a source of livelihood.
Answer:

1. Tourists visit religious, historical and places of natural beauty. Job opportunities develop to meet the requirements of the tourists.
2. Guides are required to provide information about the place. Photographers take photos of the tourists wearing local costumes. Suppliers of such dresses are required.
3. Horse carts, cabs and other means of transport are required Which gives scope for transport business. Tourists buy local handicrafts. Hence the local handicraft and cottage industry gets promoted.
4. Hotel industry gets boosted. In short, the markets near the tourist centre develop. So, tourism can be a source of livelihood for local people.

Question 13.
Answer the following questions in 20 – 25 words:

(a) Write about the work of Thomas Cook.
Answer:

• Thomas Cook started group tours on commercial basis in the latter half of the 19th century.
• He took 600 people from Leicester to Loughborough by railway.
• Later, he successfully organised a round trip of Europe.
• He opened a travel agency and sold tourists tickets. He organised affordable tours and easy travel.

Thus, his ventures opened the doors for the development of modem tourism.

(b) What are the benefits of religious tourism?
Answer:
The following are the benefits of religious tourism:

• People staying in different parts of the world come together.
• They develop ties as they share the sgme* faith and also feeling of unity develops.
• Religious places get importance and many social welfare projects are undertaken.
• As these places develop, the local business develops leading to improvement in the standard of living of the local people.

(c) Write information on the tourists places in Maharashtra.
Answer:

Caves	Ajanta and Ellora caves, Verul, Bhaje, Kanheri caves
Temples	Pandharpur, Shirdi, Jejuri, Shegaon, Tuljapur, Kolhapur, Nashik, Paithan, Dehu, Alandi, Haji Malang, Mount Mary’s Church.
Hill stations	Mahabaleshwar, Panchgani, Chikhaldara, Matheran, Lonavala, Khandala.
Dams	Koynanagar, Jayakwadi, Bhatghar, Chandoli, Panshet, Bhandara, Khadakwasla.
Sanctuaries	Dajipur Tadoba, Karnala.
Historical places	Raigad, Simhgad, Sindhudurg, Vijaydurg, Palace of Kolhapur, Janjeera, Memorials.

(d) What is Sports Tourism?
Answer:

1. Sports tourism developed in the 20th century. It involves travelling either to participate in a sporting event or to watch the event.
2. Various sports events are organised at local and state level for different inter school competitions. National level Sports Competitions are also held. International cricket, hockey and football tournaments are held at regular intervals.
3. Wimbledon, French Open, Australian Open and US Open lawn tennis tournaments are held. Every four years, Olympics and Asian Games are held in the country which is the host. Events like the Himalayan car rally at the national level and Maharashtra Kesari at the state level are held.
4. Travelling to participate in these events as players, coaches, umpires, referees, organisers or to attend them as spectators come under sports tourism.

Question 14.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions:
(a) Complete the graphical presentation:

Answer:

(b) What types of books are there in the Village of Books?
Answer:
In the Village of Books, we find books of old and new authors and saints, ranging from biographies, autobiographies, fiction, poetry literature by women, literature on sports and literature for kids. as Village of

(c) Why is Bhilar village known as Village of Books?
Answer:

• Each household in this village maintains a library of its own.
• Tourists enjoy reading these books.
• Maharashtra Government has kept these books in every household so that it becomes easy for the tourists to take and read.
• It is done with a view to accelerate the ‘Reading Culture’ movement to enjoy Marcrthi literature.

Hence, the village is known as ‘Village of Books’.

Question 15.
Give elaborate answers to the following:

(a) Explain the benefits of increasing tourism.
Answer:
Tourism not only benefits an individual but also a country.

• Tourism is an industry which has potential to generate maximum employment.
• New markets are created leading to the development of tourist sites.
• Urbanisation takes place giving rise to new colonies.
• The country earns foreign exchange.
• Handicraft and cottage industry gets a boost.
• Visiting different sites, meeting people speaking different languages and knowing different cultures increases tolerance and peace.
• We get information when we visit places of historical importance and natural beauty. It widens our perspective.
• When we visit historical places we come to know about the glorious past which gives us inspiration to build a bright future.
• It emphasises the need that we have to take care of our heritage.
• Tourism gives us a feeling of personal and collective fulfillment.

(b) Explain the purpose of tourism.
Answer:
Tourism has several purposes and inspiration behind it. They are as follows:

• To see historical monuments forts and cities discovered during excavations. To visit centres promoting ancient art and craft, museums.
• To visit different pilgrim centres, sea beaches, mountain ranges, valleys, snow-capped peaks, pristine jungles.
• To visit special plateaus like Kas plateau, museums, lakes formed because of meteoric impact and valleys of flowers.
• Places of natural beauty gives us enjoyment and experiences which connects us to nature.
• To visit different industrial sites.
• To see medicinal plants and avail of ayurvedic therapies.
• To visit places to see agricultural projects, visit to see agricultural research centres and making of compost pits.
• To travel to watch sports events which comes under sports tourism. To be. part of dance-music, festival or watch as audience, which is cultural tourism.
• People also visit places to attend film festivals, witness the making of movies, science seminars, international conferences, book exhibitions and literary events.

In short, the purpose of tourism differs from person to person. It is explored as per individual interest.

(c) What measures should be taken to conserve historical monuments?
Answer:
Historical monuments and ancient historical sources constitute our cultural heritage. The following measures should be taken to conserve them:

• Seepage of water in forts and in rock-cut caves should be stopped. Creepers which grow on forts should be uprooted.
• Damages due to humidity and heat should be stopped with proper measures.
• To take precautions to avoid deterioration of monuments near the sea because of salt.
• Hygiene should be maintained at tourist sites.
• One should be fined for writing names, carving or defacing the monument in ary manner.
• Government should take measures to avoid the monuments getting vandalised.
• Awareness should be created among the people about the need to preserve monuments.
• Along with government, people and private sectors should contribute to raise funds for the preservation of projects.

(d) Distinguish between Local tourism and International tourism.
Answer:

Local/Interstate Tourism	International Tourism
1. Travelling within our country is local tourism.	1. Crossing border and going overseas means international tourism.
2. There is no need to seek the government’s permission or paperwork.	2. Visa is required to travel to a foreign country. Visa is not granted unless we complete all paperwork. It is essential to keep documeñts with us.
3. Local tourism is hassle-free as the land is known to us.	3. Having no acquaintances with the people or land can create challenges.
4. No need for currency exchange	4. Currency exchange is required.
5. We can make changes in the itinerary to suit our convenience.	5. Fixed itinerary has to be followed. We cannot make any changes to it.
6. Language, mostly, is not an obstacle. We can communicate in our mother tongue or in the national language.	6. Language can be an obstacle. One should know the language of that country if one wants to interact with locals or at least be well versed in English.
7. We can extend our stay if we desire to.	7. Our stay in a foreign country cannot be extended. It has a fixed time duration as long as permission is granted.

(e) What facilities should be made available to the tourists?
Answer:
The following facilities should be provided to tourists:
Facilities for tourists:

• Safe and secured transport facilities, translators and guides.
• Ensure safety of the tourists.
• Good and clean hotels and eateries. Clean drinking water at various places of visit.
• Good washrooms on the travel routes and at tourists sites.
• Care should be taken that tourists do not endure physical or mental distress.
• Tourists should not be cheated when they make purchases.

(f) How would you behave with the tourists if you are the local person at a tourist site?
Answer:
Tourists visit any tourist site having faith in the local people:

• I will behave well with the tourists. I will extend my cooperation.
• I will inform them about the tourist places , known to me, which things they can buy and where.
• I will be careful that they face no problems.

(g) What kind of new occupations were introduced in the surroundings of your village/ town because of growing tourism?
Answer:
The following job opportunities were created in the surroundings of my town because of growing tourism:

• The number of tourist guides, porters increased.
• More services of autorickshaw, taxi, horse-to ride, horse carts, etc. were provided.
• New hotels and shops selling food items came up in vicinity.
• Juice and cold drink centres were started.
• Milk, vegetables and tea stalls were set up.
• New shops selling handicraft and local things opened.
• What kind of new occupations were introduced in the surroundings of your village/town because of growing tourism?
• What difference could be observed in the lifestyle of people in the surroundings of your village-town because of growing tourism?

(h) What difference can be observed in the lifestyle of people in the surroundings of your village-town because of growing tourism?
Answer:
Tourism improves standard of living of the people:

• Small towns transform into urban cities.
• Standard of living improves to great extent.
• Modern housing colonies come up in place of small houses.
• Different types of business as prosper.
• Artists get promoted which helps in sale of their artefacts.
• Number of two-wheelers and four-wheelers increase.
• I have observed these changes in the surroundings of my town.

Memory Map

10th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Historiography Development in the West Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Historiography Indian Tradition Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Applied History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• History of Indian Arts Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Mass Media and History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Entertainment and History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Sports and History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Tourism and History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Heritage Management Class 10 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 History Chapter 7 Question Answer Sports and History Maharashtra Board

Class 10 History Chapter 7 Sports and History Question Answer Maharashtra Board

History Class 10 Chapter 7 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) The ancient event of Olympic competitions used to be held at ………………………… .
(a) Olympia, Greece
(b) Rome
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Greece

(2) The wooden dolls made in Maharashtra are known as ………………………… .
(a) Thaki
(b) Kalichandika
(c) Gangavati
(d) Champavati
Answer:
(a) Thaki

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Mallakhamb – Outdoor game based on physical skills
(2) Water polo – Water sport
(3) Skating – Adventurous ice sport
(4) Chess – Outdoor game
Answer:
(4) Chess – Outdoor game

Question 2.
Write notes :
(1) Toys and Festivals
Answer:

• Toys and festivals are inter-related since ancient times.
• Toys are used for decoration in different cultures and religions during festivals.
• In some cultures toys are distributed as gifts. Santa Claus gifts children toys during Christmas.
• As part of Diwali celebration in Maharashtra, model forts are made displaying images of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, his soldiers and animals which are toys.
• Clay images of snakes and bullocks are- sold during festivals like Bail pola and Nagpanchami.

(2) Sports and movies
Answer:

• The presence of sports was limited to a scene in the movies made earlier.
• In recent times, biographical movies are made on sportspersons and on sports.
• Movies like Lagaan and Dangal are made related to cricket and wrestling respectively.
• Biographical movies are made on Mary Kom, and the Phogat sisters.
• Movies are made on careers of famous sprinter Milkha Singh.
• Bharat Ratna Sachin Tendulkar and Cricketer Mahendra Singh Dhoni.
• Overall, movies and sports are related from the silent era till date.

Question 3.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) Currently the structure of sports economy has been significantly affected.
Answer:

• The process of globalisation has influenced the field of sports in the 20th-21st century.
• International matches of various sports like Cricket, Football, etc. are*telecast in every corner of the world.
• Fans watch these matches for entertainment,r and aspiring players to learn more.
• The citizens of the non-participating countries also watch these matches.
• Retired players get a chance on television channels as commentators.
• Matches garner a large audience, hence the commercial companies look at it as an opportunity to advertise and sell their products.
• All these factors have led to change in the structure of sports economy.

(2) Toys can tell us about cultural history.
Answer:
A tradition of making different type of toys for entertainment is going on since ancient time.

• Toys give us an idea about the cultural and religious development of that period.
• Clay models of forts and the images of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj placed on fort gives us an idea about the structures of forts during that period.
• An ivory doll found at Pompeii, an ancient city in Italy, sheds light on Indo-Roman trade and cultural relations.
• The mention of games, toys and flying and dancing dolls in Kathasaritsagara give us an idea about cultural history of toys. In this way, we come to know about cultural history from toys.

Question 4.
Write detailed answers to the following questions.
(1) Write about the history of sports equipment and toys in ancient India.
Answer:

1. The history of sports equipment and toys dates back to epic age. The ancient Indian literature and epics mention various games such as games of dice, wrestling, horse and chariot race.
2. Sports are of two types ‘Indoor Games’ and ‘Outdoor Games’. Indoor games such as chess, card games, dice, carrom, kachkavadya or Indian ludo, Bhatukli were very popular. It can be noted that all of them required equipment to play.
3. Cards to play card games, dice to play game of dice, a board and pieces to play chess, bunch of seeds or stones to play sagargote; (playing house) to play Bhatukli.
4. Likewise, Outdoor games like marbles, lagori (seven stones), vitti-dandu, bhavare (tops) all require material like marbles, stones, tops, a small and large stick to play.
5. A Sanskrit play by Shudraka is named as Mrichchhakatika. It means a clay cart. A clay cart was a toy used to play during Harappan period.
6. Kathasaritsagara has very interesting descriptions of games and toys. There are descriptions of flying dolls. There is a mention that on pressing a key some dolls used to fly, some used to dance and some used to make sounds.

(2) Explain the close tie between sports and history.
Answer:
Sports and history are closely related with each other.

1. It is a must for a sports writer to know the history of the game he chooses to write on.
2. In order to write a review on any sport competition, the critic should have knowledge of competitions held in the past.
3. A comparative study of the skills, techniques and strategies used in the past and developments or improvements in the present makes the review comprehensive.
4. The writer has to resort to history while writing columns or articles on sports events like Olympics or Asiad or any national or international matches.
5. While commentating on Akashvani and Doordarshan, an expert commentator needs to have good knowledge of the history of the game, previous records of illustrious and eminent players, statistical analysis and historical anecdotes related to the game and players.
6. Coaches, special experts, selection committee should have information of the players, their strength and weakness and also history of the players in the opposing team. Even players should know history of their competitors.
   In short, it is essential to know the history of all the aspects related to sports.

(3) Explain the difference between indoor and outdoor games.
Answer:

Indoor games	Outdoor games
1. Most of the indoor games are played by sitting at one place. They are played in a closed environment.	1. Outdoor games are played on a field.
2. Indoor games require skills but physical exercise is negligible.	2. Outdoor games need more physical exercise and skill.
3. As there is no exertion in indoor games, so it is not essential to develop stamina.	3. Outdoor games require stamina and strength.
4. Indoor games do not involve adventure.	4. Outdoor games involve adventures at times, e.g.. Auto racing
5. Indoor games includes Chess, Indian Ludo (Playing house) Bhatukli and many more.	5. Outdoor games involve national and international games like Kabaddi, Kho-kho, Hockey, Cricket, etc.
6. With the exception of chess and carrom no competitions are held for rest of the Indoor games.	6. National and international competitions are held of almost all outdoor games.

Project
(1) Collect information about your favorite sports and its players.
(2) Discuss the hardships the sportspersons have to face while training for the sport with the help of information gathered through movies and literature.

Question 5.
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:
(a) The activity which combines physical exercise and entertainment is ……………………….. .
(a) Show
(b) Attitude
(c) Sports
(d) Competition
Answer:
(c) Sports

(b) ……………………….. was looked upon as a game and entertainment by ancient people.
(a) Dancing
(b) Playing
(c) Singing
(d) Hunting
Answer:
(d) Hunting

(c) ……………………….. and its various tactics were devised by Balambhat Deodhar, the physical trainer of Peshwa Bajirao II.
(a) Kabaddi
(b) Atyapatya
(c) Khokho
(d) Mallakhamb
Answer:
(d) Mallakhamb.

(d) The Indian Government has honoured Sachin, Tendulkar with ……………………… for his illustrious achievements in the field of cricket.
(a) Padma Shri
(b) Khel Ratna
(c) Arjuna Award
(d) Bharat Ratna
Answer:
(d) Bharat Ratna

(e) ……………………… is the national game of India.
(a) Hockey
(b) Cricket
(c) Football
(d) Kabaddi
Answer:
(a) Hockey

(f) The National Sports Day of India is celebrated on 29th August which is the birth date of …………………….. .
(a) Khashaba Jadhav
(b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Major Dhyan Chand
(d) Bal J. Pandit
Answer:
(c) Major Dhyan Chand

(g) Vishnubhat Godse in his book Maza Pravas wrote that sports and physical activity had great importance in the daily schedule of ………………………
(a) Tatya Tope
(b) Queen of Jhansi Lakshmibai
(c) Bahadur Shah Jaffar
(d) Nanasaheb Peshwa
Answer:
(b) Queen of Jhansi Lakshmibai

(g) Maruti Mane is known for …………………….. .
(a) Hockey
(b) Kabaddi
(c) Marathon
(d) Wrestling
Answer:
(d) Wrestling.

(h) …………………….. wrote the play Mrichchhakatika which means a clay cart.
(a) Harshvardhan
(b) Shudraka
(c) Bhavbhuti
(4) Kalidas
Answer:
(b) Shudraka

(i) The findings in the excavations of …………………….., an ancient city in Italy includes an ivory doll made by Indian craftsmen.
(a) Rome
(b) Athens
(c) Sparta
(d) Pompeii
Answer:
(d) Pompeii

(j) An interesting description of games and toys is found in ……………………. .
(a) Shakuntal
(b) Panchatantra
(c) Mrichchhakatika
(d) Kathasaritsagara
Answer:
(d) Kathasaritsagara

(k) Major Dhyan Chand was honoured in 1956 with …………………….. for his marvellous achievements in hockey.
(a) Padma Shri
(b) Padma Bhushan
(c) Padma Vibhushan
(d) Bharat Ratna
Answer:
(c) Padma Bhushan

(l) …………………….. was the first Indian female boxer to win a bronze medal in the Olympics.
(a) P 7 Sindhu
(b) Mary Kom
(c) Geeta Phoghat
(d) Saina Nehwal
Answer:
(b) Mary Kom.

Question 6.
Identify the wrong pair in the following and write it:
(1)

(1) Mallakhamb	Outdoor game based on physical skills
(2) Water Polo	Water sport
(3) Skating	Adventure ice sports
(4) Chess	Outdoor game

Answer:
Wrong pair: Chess – Outdoor game

(2)

(1) Mallakhamb trainer	Balambhat Deodhar
(2) Wizard of Hockey	Milkha Singh
(3) First Indian female boxer	Mary Kom
(4) First Indian female wrestlers	Phogat sisters

Answer:
Wrong pair: Wizard of Hockey – Milkha Singh

Question 7.
Do as directed
(A) Complete the graphical description:
(1)

Answer:

Answer:

Answer:

Answer:

(B) Prepare a Tree-Diagram on typs of games:
Answer:

Question 8.
Write short notes:

(a) Indigenous Games:
Answer:

1. The games which have their origin in India and are an important part of Indian culture are indigenous games.
2. They are of two types – ‘Indoor Games’ and ‘Outdoor Games’. Indoor Games are played within a closed environment and a number of them are played by sitting at one place. Chess, card games, dice, carrom, etc. are indigenous indoor games.
3. An open space or preferably a playground is required to play outdoor games. Kabaddi, Atyapatya, Kho-kho etc. are indigenous outdoor games.
4. The special feature of indigenous games is that they do not require high cost material and hence are less expensive. Phugadi, Zimma, Bhatukali are some of the indigenous games played by girls. In modern times, all national and international games are played by both girls and boys.

Question 9.
Explain the following statements with reasons:

(a) Major Dhyan Chand is called the Wizard of Hockey.
Answer:

• Major Dhyan Chand was part of hockey teams as a player in 1928 and 1932 which won gold medal at Olympics.
• He was also captain of the Indian Hockey team which won a Gold Medal at the Berlin Olympics in 1936.
• He shot 25 goals against America and Japan in the 1932 Olympics.
• He shot more than 400 goals in his entire career which include national and international matches. Owing to his brilliant achievement he is called the ‘Wizard of Hockey’.

(b) Globalisation has influenced sports.
Answer:

1. No sport is limited to any one country. Television and other media channels telecast matches widening the reach of sports in all comejcs, of the world.
2. International competition Asiad, Paralympics, Cricket Wc watched by people irrespective r
   part of the world.
3. World Cup matches of cricket, hockey and football are held.
4. No country has a monopoly on any sport which means that globalisation has influenced sports.

(c) A commentator should know the history of the game.
Answer:

• The mere description of a live match is not enough for commentators.
• A commentator should have good knowledge of the history of the game, previous records (who made or who broke) and eminent players in the past as well as events related to different competitions.
• Along with the history and information of the playground, commentator should narrate records made by the players in different matches.
• It will make his commentary interesting. Therefore, it is essential for the commentator to know the history of the game.

Question 10.
Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:
(a) Explain the importance of sports.
Answer:
Sports has gained great importance for the following reasons:

• Sports helps us to overcome our pains, worries and sufferings. We feel relaxed and refreshed by playing games.
• Games which involve a lot of physical activity not only provide good exercise but also help in building a tenacious and strong body.
• One. can develop courage; determination and sportsmanship playing games. A sense of cooperation and teamspirit develops when we participate in games which require collective participation.
• Team games also help in developing a leadership! quality.

(b) Write about the history of sports.
Answer:

• It is a natural instinct in human beings to play. From beginning of civilisation till date man has played different types of games for his entertainment.
• Hunting was a way of obtaining food for the ancient people as well as considered a game.
• Horse and chariot races, wrestling, game of dice (dyut) are mentioned in ancient Indian literary texts and epics.
• Dolls, whistles, toy carts were discovered in the excavations at Harappa. So, it can be said that the history of sports is as old as the history of man.

(c) Write about the importance of sports in education field.
Answer:

• Sports are an integral part „ of education. The making of a player begins at school level.
• Many types of sports events are held at the international level. To make the players competent they are given opportunity to play at district, state and national level.
• They are promoted and sponsored by the government and private sectors. Talented and ranking players get State scholarship or National scholarship.
• Seats are reserved for them in colleges and Universities. It has been observed that the foundation of successful players is laid in school life.

(d) What do we need to know while making movies on sports?
Answer:
While making a movie on sports the makers should have complete information of the. sport as well as its history.

1. Nowadays special research teams are appointed by production houses which do thorough research on the subject of the movie.
2. In order to gather information on the sportsperson or the sport it is essential to study books, articles, columns written by eminent sports writers.
3. If the movie is on a sportsperson, all interviews published in national and international magazines and newspapers should be read.
4. Factors such as period, type of equipment used, sports wear, dressing style, social life needs to be studied.
5. General understanding of the people about the game, practises and famous sportspersons is required.

Question 11.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions:

(a) Complete the Concept Map:

Answer:

(b) How are the experts in history helpful regarding international sports competition?
Answer:
Experts in history are helpful to write and critically analyse the game.

(c) How are professional opportunities available in field of sports?
Answer:
There are many professional opportunities available in the field of sports.

• Writers are in demand who can write on sports and critics to write reviews are in demand.
• Commentators are in demand on Television, radio and various other private channels. Experts and assistants are needed to provide information regularly.
• Coaches train the players, playground staff to maintain the field, umpires, etc.
• Cameramen, computer experts and team of assistants to have uninterrupted transmission. Trained and qualified referees are required to work at district, national and international levels.
• Overall, a great number of job opportunities are available in the field of sports.

Question 12.
Write a detailed answer to the following:

(a) Write about the history of sports literature and toys in ancient India.
Answer:
A new enterprise is developing in publishing related to sports in India. There is extensive written work on various sports.

• Many books related to sports and biographies are published. Encylopaedias are being written on sports.
• An independent encyclopaedia is written on exercise. The History of Mallakhamb is recently published.
• Sports magazines are published fortnightly and monthly.
• Many newspapers have allotted a separate section or last pages for news related to sports.
• ‘Shatkar’ was a sports magazine published some years ago. There is ample of literature available on sports.

(b) Trace the development of toys and their importance.
Answer:

• Toys and games have been essentially part of entertainment from ancient times. Every I developing society has made toys for the 8 entertainment and education of their children.
• Toys were found at archaeological sites at various places. The toys were made of clay, baked clay, terracotta and ivory.
• Either a mould was used to make the toy or it was fashioned by hand.
• Toys and the material used to make them were indicators of the development and advancement of civilisations.
• An interesting description of flying dolls is found in Kathasaritsagara. The dolls used to fly, made some sound and some danced when a key was pressed.
• Toys give us information about the period it was made, how they were made, religious and 8 cultural practices and technical know-how of the 8 people. ’

Question 13.
Observe the picture and write information about the event it is related to:

Answer:

1. This picture is the logo of the modern Olympic Games. The five interlocked rings represent the five continents of the world.
2. The rings coloured blue, yellow, black, green and red on a white field are known as the ‘Olympic rings’. The symbol was originally designed in 1912 by Pierre de Coubertin.
3. Olympic rings are the symbol of games which were first played in the ancient city of Olympia. They were held after every four years.
4. The ancient Olympics had fewer events than the modern games and only Greek men were allowed to participate. Events such as Horse and Chariot race, Footrace, Wrestling, Boxing, Discus Throw, Pentathlon were held.
5. The Greeks standardised rules of the sports were laid which was helpful to organise the games systematically.
6. The modern Olympic games are also held every four years. It is a great honour for sportspersons to participate and win the Olympic medals.

Memory Map

10th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Historiography Development in the West Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Historiography Indian Tradition Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Applied History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• History of Indian Arts Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Mass Media and History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Entertainment and History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Sports and History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Tourism and History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Heritage Management Class 10 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Political Science Chapter 2 Question Answer The Electoral Process Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Political Science Chapter 2 The Electoral Process Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 10 Chapter 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences.
(1) The Election Commissioner is appointed by the …………………………. .
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of Loksabha
(d) Vice President
Answer:
(a) President

(2) …………………………. was appointed as the first Chief Election Commissioner of independent India.
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) T.N. Sheshan
(c) Sukumar Sen
(d) Neela Satyanarayan
Answer:
(c) Sukumar Sen

(3) Constituencies are created by …………………………. committee of the Election Commission.
(a) Selection
(b) Delimitation
(c) Voting
(d) Timetable
Answer:
(b) Delimitation

Question 2.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(1) The Elections Commission lays down the code of conduct during elections.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons:

• It ensures free and fair elections.
• Maipractices during the election come under control.
• Due to the strict observance of the code of conduct in the last few’ elections, the common voters have become confident.

(2) Under special circumstances the Election Commission holds re-elections in a particular constituency for a second time.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons :

• Sometimes, the representative of Lok Sabha, Vidhan Sabha or the local self governmènt resigns from his/her constituençy.
• In some cases, death of the representative occurs.
• In such special situations, the Election Commission has to conduct an election for a second time. It is called By-elections.

(3) The state government decides as to when and in how many stages the elections would be held in a particular State.
Answer:
The above statement is False. Reasons :

• The entire process of conducting elections is entrusted upon and managed by the Election Commission.
• If this responsibility is given to the state government it may adopt a biased approach.
• Hence, the Constitution has formed the Election Commission an independent body to carry out the responsibility.

Therefore, it is decided by the Election Commission as to when and in how many stages it will conduct elections.

Question 3.
Explain the concept.
(1) Reorganising the constituencies
Answer:
(1) The Election Commission of India formed constituencies for Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly.
(2) The Election Commission had decided upon the constituencies before the first election. As the years passed, there was a lot of migration of the people for business and other activities from the villages to cities.
(3) This changed the demography to large extent. Number of voters in some constituencies reduced while in some it increased to a very great extent. This disturbed the ratio of- seats allotted as compared to population in those constituencies.
(4) Hence, the need to readjust the constituencies arose. The Delimitation Commission of the election commission does the work of reorganising or restructuring of constituencies.

(2) Midterm Elections

Question 4.
Complete the following picture.

Answer:


Answer:

Answer:

Answer:

Question 5.
Answer in brief.
(1) Explain the functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:
The functions of the Election Commissipn are:
(1) Prepare the voters’ list.
(2) Decide election timetable and decide the entire process of holding elections.
(3) Scrutinize the applications of the candidates.
(4) Conduct free and fair elections and do all the work related to it.
(5) Give recognition and also de-recognize political parties.
(6) Resolve all the disputes and complaints regarding elections.

(2) Write some additional information about post of the Election Commissioner.
Answer:
(1) The Election Commission in India has one Chief Election Commissioner and two other Chief Commissioners.
(2) All the commissioners are appointed by the President.
(3) The Chief Election Commissioner of India is usually a member of the Indian Civil Service or. Indian Administrative Service.
(4) The responsibility of conducting free and fair elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures lies with the Election Commissioner.
(5) In order do safeguard the independence of the Election Commissioner, he cannot be easily removed from the post for any political reasons.

(3) Explain the meaning of Code of Conduct.
Answer:
(1) After the announcement of elections till the declaration of results, the Election Commission enforces the Code of Conduct.
(2) It explains the rules to be followed by the government, political parties candidates and voters before and during elections.
(3) Code of conduct is adopted to control malpractices during elections. It ensure free and fair ecections.

Project
Organise a mock poll in the school to understand the process of voting.
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 6.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences:
(a) Article of Indian Constitution created the independent body of Election Commisšion.
(a) 351
(b) 370
(c) 324
(d) 301
Answer:
(c) 324

(b) system exists in India.
(a) Single-party
(b) Two-party
(c) Multi-party
(d) No-party
Answer:
(c) Multi-party.

(c) The right to give recognition or de-recognize a political party lies with ……………….. .
(a) President
(b) Election Commission
(c) Parliament
(d) Vice-President
Answer:
(b) Election Commission

(d) There are constituencies of Lok Sabha at present.
(a) 288
(b) 350
(c) 500
(d) 543
Answer:
(d) 543

(e) from the present state of Himachal Pradesh was the first voter.
(a) Sukumar Sen
(b) Sham Sharan Negi
(c) Prem Kumar Ghumal
(d) P N. Chadda
Answer:
(b) Sham Sharan Negi

(f) Due to EVM, people can also vote easily.
(a) elder
(b) salaried
(c) Divyanga
(d) Transgender
Answer:
(c) Divyanga

(g) The first elections in India were held in
(a) 1948-49
(b) 1949-50
(c) 1950-51
(d) 1951-52
Answer:
(d) 1951-52.

Question 7.
State whether following statements are True or False. Give reasons for your answer :
(a) There should be secrecy in Election process.
Answer:
The above statement is False. Reasons :

• Election should be conducted in a free and fair environment.
• If the elections are not held in free environment then there are chances of malpractices and corruption.
• Then, it will be impossible to elect the honest and efficient candidates.

(b) The Election Commission has started awareness campaign for registration of voters.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons :

• The responsibility of preparing and updating electoral roll lies with the Election Commission.
• The Election Commission starts an awareness campaign to create awareness among new eligible voters so that they register themselves in the voter’s list.
• The Indian voter is not -much aware about the election process.
• Special voter’s awareness campaign is run for voter’s registration.
• For their awareness National Voter’s Day is celebrated every year.

(c) Every candidate who fills the nomination form can contest election.
Answer:
The above statement is False. Reasons :

• Every candidate of a party or independent candidate has to be personally present to fill the nomination form.
• It is necessary for him or her to give complete information in the nomination form as decided by the Election Commission.
• The nomination forms are then scrutinized. If there are irregularities in a nomination paper and if the information is found to be false the nomination forms are rejected.

Therefore, it is not possible for every candidate who fills the nomination form to contest election.

(d) Sometimes, the Election Commission has to conduct mid-term elections. OR Explain the concept : Mid-Term Elections.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons :

• If the elected government in power loses its majority before completing its term.
• If no party gets complete majority, then two or more parties come together and form a coalition government.
• Such coalition government collapses if any party withdraws the given support.
• In such situations, the government is left with no option other than resigning.
• If there is no alternative available to form government then the Parliament or Vidhan Sabha is dissolved before completing its term. In such a scenario, the Election Commission has to conduct mid-term elections.

Question 8.
Explain the following concepts :

(a) What is representation?
Answer:
Modern democracy is a representative democracy. In a democracy it is not possible to involve the entire population in the ecision-making process. This resulted in the starting of the practice of electing some people on behalf of entire population
as representatives who would run the government. The representatives who form the government are expected to be responsible to the people and give preference to the welfare of the people.

• Direct and Indirect or representative democracy rire two types of democracy.
• In modem nation-states; the population has increased to a great èxtent.
• So it is impossible to involve all the people in decision-making process.
• Thus, th practice of electing some people on behalf of entire population as representatives started.
• The elected representatives form government and work for the welfare of the people.

(b) Election Commission :
Answer:
In India, the Election Commission is central to the process of elections. Art. 324 of the Indian Constitution has established this autonomous body which consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two other commissioners.

1. One of the most important features of a democratic nation is elections at regular intervals. Holding free and fair elections at regular intervals is essential for a democratic system.
2. Under the Article 324 of the Constitution, Election Commission was formed in 1950. The President appoints one Chief Election Commissioner and two additional commissioners. It is an autonomous body.
3. The rank and powers of all the three commissioners are the same. The declaration of dates of the elections to the announcement of the results the entire procedure is monitored by the Election Commission.
4. The Election Commission does not have its own staff to carry out this procedure. So they carry out the work with help of government employees and teachers. Special provisions are made for all finances incurred by the Election Commission.

Question 9.
Write short notes :
(a) Journey from Ballot box to EVM machine :
Answer:

1. From the first election in 1951-52 till 1999, elections were held using ballot box. Twenty lakh ballot boxes were used in the first election. Voters used to cast his or her vote by stamping in front of the candidate’s name and put them in the metal boxes.
2. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were first used for 5 seats in Rajasthan, 5 seats in Madhya Pradesh and 6 seats in New Delhi 1998 in Legislative Assembly.
3. EVM machines were used at all polling booths in the general elections held in 2004. It proved to be a very useful device.
4. It has been improvised since its first use. Due to the use of EVMs the results are declared early and at a very fast rate.

(b) Recognition to Political Parties :
Answer:

• India has a multi-party system with recognition accorded to national, state and regional level parties by the Election Commission.
• Their recognition depends on the voting percentage received by them in the assembly elections and number of elected representatives of their party.
• If any party does not fulfill these criteria, its recognition is cancelled.
• The Election Commission allots appropriate symbols to parties and independent candidates. All political parties should have recognition of the Election Commission.

Question 10.
Complete the concept map :

(a) Prepare a flow chart on the process of election.
Answer:

(b) Which two conditions among following is the violation of code of conduct?
(1) The candidate distributes items of household use. –
(2) Promises made to resolve the water problem if elected.
(3) To go from door to door to meet voters and request them to vote.
(4) To appeal on the basis of caste and religion to get support.
Answer:
(1) The candidate distributes items of household use.
(2) To appeal on the basis of caste and religion to get support.

Question 11.
Answer in brief :
(a) Why is it important to conduct elections?
Answer:
It is important to conduct elections because of the following reasons :

• The existence and working of democracy depends on elections.
• All political parties get a chance to rule.
• Elections help to bring a change in power through peaceful meAnswer:
• It not only changes government policies but also society.

(b) What are the conditions for voting?
Answer:
The following are the conditions for voting:

• The person should be a citizen of India.
• He should have completed 18 years of age.
• His name should appear in voters’ list.
• The person should have photo identity card issued by the Election Commission of India.

(c) What action is taken by the Election Commission if disputes arise regarding elections?
Answer:

• If any disputes arise regarding the elections, the Election Commission is empowered to take final decisions.
• The Election Commission conducts a thorough inquiry about the said dispute.
• If there is evidence of any malpractices during elections, in any constituency, it declares the elections invalid and announces re-polls.
• If any candidate breaks the code of conduct and contests elections, he/she is barred by the Election Commission from contesting elections.

(d) What challenges are faced by the Election Commission to conduct free and fair elections?
Answer:
The following challenges are faced by the Election Commission tcx conduct free and fair elections :

• Managing the large geographical landscape and huge electoral population.
• To stop misuse of money and muscle power during elections.
• Barring candidates with criminal background from contesting elections.
• Conducting elections successfully in politically criminalised environment.
• Conducting elections in spite of increasing instances of violence and making them a success.

(e) What are the advantages of EVM machines?
Answer:
The battery operated Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) has more advantages than the ballot box. They are as follows :

• It saves tonnes of paper used to make ballot paper.
• So, it conserves the environment as it stops the reckless cutting of trees required to make paper.
• If the voter does not wish to cast his vote in favour of any candidate contesting, he can make use of NOTA (None Of The Above).
• It makes counting of the votes much faster which enables the election officer to declare result in a short time.
• It is helpful for disabled (Divyanga) people to cast vote.

(f) Explain the features of procedures of voting during the first Lok Sabha Election.
Answer:

• It was a challenge to prepare voters’ list at the time of the first election. Illiteracy rate was very high in our country. Therefore, the procedure to vote and making the voter list was a challenge.
• 20 lac steel boxes were made and election symbols of political parties were stuck on it.
• Blank ballot papers were given to the voters and they were supposed to drop in the box having the election symbols of the party they decide to vote for.
• Even the illiterate people could vote because of this system.

Question 12.
Give your opinion :
(a) When candidates have only the condition of age, why should they give other information to Election Commission? Answer:

• While filling the form candidates should reveal information about his property assets and if there are any criminal charges against him.
• When candidates have only the condition of age as eligibility, why should they give other information to election commission?
• Why are the candidates required to give the information of their property to Election Commission?
• Such candidates if elected can misuse power and amass wealth with corrupt practices.
• With criminal background they can even threaten voters to vote for him.
• His nomination could get cancelled based on the information.

(b) Why is it so?
(A) Some constituencies are reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
Answer:

• It is difficult for the people of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes to get representation as they are scattered in different parts.
• Without a representative it is difficult to discuss their problems in Parliament.
• Lack of representative will hinder their progress. Hence some constituencies are reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
• Some constituencies are kept reserved for Scheduled caste and Scheduled tribes.
• Every political party has an election symbol.
• At the time of voting and counting of votes, the official representatives of political parties remain present.
• Recognised parties have equal opportunity to present their side before media such as television and radio.

(B) Why every political party has an election symbol?
Answer:

• After independence, the literacy rate was quite low in India.
• It was not possible for the voters to read the name of the candidate and vote.
• Therefore, the Election Commission gave symbols to political parties and independent candidates which helped the voters to identify and decide whom to vote for.

(C) At the time of voting and counting of votes, the official representatives of political parties remain present.
Answer:

• There are incidences of duplicate voters who register in multiple constituencies.
• There are cases of rigging of EVM or booth capturing.
• Such incidences are brought to light by representatives who are present at polling centres.
• During the counting process, if the EVM machine looks tampered, the representative can raise an objection.

(D) All recognised parties should get an equal opportunity to express their opinion on media such as television and radio.
Answer:

• All political parties should get a fair chance to express their agenda.
• Their ideas and philosophy should reach the people.
• Television and radio are owned by the government.
• Political parties have equal right on both.
• Hence, all the recognised parties can express their opinion on Doordarshan and Radio.

(c) Think!
(A) How political parties suffer due to family monopoly in the party? OR What are the disadvantages of dynasty rule?
Answer:

1. If only one family has domination on the political party because of dynasty rule then others are not given leadership opportunity.
2. It is impossible to have all the members of the family efficient. An inefficient heir can cause damage to the party.
3. The growth and expansion of party comes to a halt because of such heir. His faults seep into the party making it weak in the long term.
4. The nature of such a party become dictatorial. Opposing views are suppressed and the internal democracy in the party vanishes.
5. If the heir does not have progressive thoughts then the party becomes regressive and of obsolete ideology.
6. How political parties suffer due to family monopoly in the party?
7. What do you understand by the system of ‘one vote one value’?

(B) What do you understand by the system ‘One Vote One Value’?
Answer:

• There is great importance in political and social equality in democracy.
• According to this ideology, ‘One Vote One Value’ is very important.
• In a democracy, each vote has the same value. The value of the vote of a Prime Minister and a common man is same.
• Under military rule or dictatorship or during monarchy the value of a vote for privileged classes was more. There was no importance given to the vote of the common man.
• ‘One Man One Vote’ indicates all the people in the country have same status. This is the gift of democracy.

(d) Voting is our duty as well as responsibility to vote.
Answer:

• It is enshrined in the fundamental principles of our Constitution to vote.
• It is not only our duty but also responsibility.
• Democracy exists because of elections. People should elect honest and efficient representatives through election.
• If voters show no interest in voting then the government will ignore people’s welfare.
• Hence I feel it is not only the duty of every citizen to vote but also his responsibility.
• Government has to observe the code of conduct declared by the Election commission.

(e) What measures should be taken to increase the credibility of elections?
Answer:
To increase the credibility of elections the following measures should be taken :

• 50% seats should be reserved for women candidates by every party.
• Candidates with a criminal background should be permanently barred from contesting any elections.
• The misuse of money should be stopped during elections. The government should incur the expenditure.
• Candidates who resort to malpractices should be immediately booked. A strict inquiry and action should be taken against them by the court.
• Laws and regulations should be followed strictly by the political parties before giving election tickets.
• If the political parties do not co-operate with the above terms, the Election Commission should cancel their recognition.

(f) Which rules would you include in Code of Conduct for voters?
Answer:
The following rules should be included in Code of Conduct for voters :

• The voters who abstain from voting should be fined and government should suspend all the facilities given to them.
• If it is proved that the voter has accepted money or any kind of gifts, he should be punished.
• The action of voters should not instigate common people.
• They should not involve in bogus voting.
• They should not resort to illegal means for voting.
• The candidate distributes items of household use.
• Promise made to resolve the water problem if elected.
• To go from door to door to meet voters and request them to vote.
• To appeal on the basis of caste and religion to get support.

10th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

• Chapter 1 Working of the Constitution Class 10 Political Science Questions And Answers
• Chapter 2 The Electoral Process Class 10 Political Science Questions And Answers
• Chapter 3 Political Parties Class 10 Political Science Questions And Answers
• Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements Class 10 Political Science Questions And Answers
• Chapter 5 Challenges faced by Indian Democracy Class 10 Political Science Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 4 History of Indian Arts Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 History Chapter 4 Question Answer History of Indian Arts Maharashtra Board

Class 10 History Chapter 4 History of Indian Arts Question Answer Maharashtra Board

History Class 10 Chapter 4 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) The arts of painting and sculpting are …………….……. .
(a) visual arts
(b) performing arts
(c) folk arts
(d) classical arts
Answer:
(a) visual arts

(2) The …………….……. saw the rise of Mathura school.
(a) Kushana period
(b) Gupta period
(c) Rashtrakuta period
(d) Maurya period
Answer:
(a) Kushana period

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Qutub Minar – Mehrauli
(2) Gol Gumbaz – Vijapur
(3) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus – Delhi
(4) Taj Mahal – Agra
Answer:
(3) Wrong Pair: Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus – Delhi

Question 2.
Write short notes.
(1) Art
Answer:

• It is a natural instinct in humans to share their emotions, experience, wisdom acquired with others.
• This act of sharing, results in beautiful creation, called an ‘Art’.
• Art gives us an experience of different elements.
• These elements are expressed through sculpture, singing, painting and dance.
• The crucial factors which are at the root of artistic creation are the imagination power of the artist.
• The sensibility state of his emotions and skills.

(2) Hemadpanti style
Answer:

1. Hemadpanti temples were primarily built in 12th- 13th century.
2. The main feature of this style is its masonry. The walls are built without mortar, by locking stones, using the tenon and mortise joints technique.
3. Hemadpanti temples are built in square¬shaped and star-shaped designs. In the star¬shaped plan, the outer walls of a temple has a zigzag design which gives interesting effect of alternating light and shadow.
4. Tourists are attracted to see these beautiful designs. Hemadpanti temples are found at several places in Maharashtra.

(3) Maratha style of painting
Answer:

• The Maratha style of paintings began to develop in the later half of the 17th century.
• This style consists of coloured paintings which are in form of murals and miniatures used in manuscripts.
• Murals of Maratha style can be seen at the entrance of old wadas, in drawing rooms and on the ceilings of the temples.
• The Maratha style was influenced by the Rajput and European style of paintings.
• The Maratha style of paintings helps us to understand various things about the times in which it was developed such as lifestyle, attires, customs, etc.

Question 3.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) An expert with deep understanding of art history is required in the art market.
Answer:

• There is an independent market for purchase and sale of art objects.
• The authenticity of the object, its standards can only be assessed by an expert.
• Only an artist can know the exact value of an art object or ensure if it is genuine or not.
• So, when art objects are assessed all the above points are considered.
• This requires special expertise. Hence an expert with deep understanding of art history is required for this task.

(2) It is necessary to preserve the tradition like Chitrakathi, which is on the verge of extinction.
Answer:

1. The stories from Ramayana or Mahabharata narrated with the help of wooden puppets and paintings is known as Chitrakathi or Pinguli tradition.
2. It is preserved by the Thakur community.
3. As the Chitrakathi pictures are drawn on papers and painted using col9urs made from natural substances, they deteriorate rapidly if not maintained.
4. Therefore it is necessarý to preserve the tradition like Chitrakathi as it is part of our glorious cultural heritage and is on the verge of extinction.

Question 4.
Complete the following table.

Temple Architecture Naagara	Naagara	Draavida	Hemadpanti
Characteristics
Examples

Answer:

Styles of Temple Architecture	Nagara	Dravid	Hemadpanti
Characteristics	(1) Series of miniature towers are arranged (2) Towers taper towards the top (3) Tower appears to be continuously rising from the base of the temple to the top.	(1) Temple towers resembled pyramid shape. (2) Gopura (main entrance) was large and magnificent than the tower. (3) Mythological stories were carved on walls and ceilings.	(1) The temple structure was star-shaped with outer walls having zigzag design. (2) The walls were built without using any mortar. (3) The stones were locked by using the technique of tenon and mortise joints.
Examples	(1) Konark Sun Temple (2) Lingraj Temple of Bhubaneshwar (3) Kandariya Mahadev temple at Khajuraho	(1) Meenakshi Temple at Madurai (2) Chariot Temple at Mahabalipuram (3) Brihadeeshvara temple at Thanjavur (4) Tirupati Temple	(1) Gondeshwar temple at Sinnar (2) Ambreshwar temple at Ambarnath (3) Aundha Nagnath temple at Hingoli (4) Kopeshwar temple at Khidrapur

Question 5.
Answer the following questions in detail.
(1) Write in detail about folk styles of painting.
Answer:

• The art of rock painting dates back to Stone Age. These rock paintings have preserved the style of folk painting.
• Rock paintings usually depict humans, animals and geometric figures.
• The style of rock paintings seems to be changing according to the cultural changes from Stone age to the beginning of agriculture.
• Man started depicting flora and fauna in a different style and also figures.
• There was difference in colours too. Black and Red were used in rock paintings.
• Colours extracted from natural substances were used.
• The man started using the knowledge he got from the surroundings and nature and depicted it in the pictures.
• In the later stage of development, man started customs such as decorating the walls and courtyards (Rangawali).
• By drawing various figures and symbols or using panels of painting to narrate stories. It helped in the development of folk paintings.

(2) Explain the characteristics of the Islamic architecture in India by giving examples.
Answer:
A blend of Persian, Central Asian, Arabic and pre Islamic native Indian styles created the Islamic architecture of India.
Following are the characteristics of Islamic architecture developed in the medieval period under the patronage of Muslim sultanates:

• Built in Islamic style, the Kutub Minor is the highest minaret in the world. It is 73 metres (240 ft) in height.
• The Taj Mahal built by the Mughal emperor Shah Jah’an is looked’ upon as the paramount* example of Islamic’architecture.
• The Gol Gumbaz at Bijapur in Karnataka built in 17th century is known for its echo which can be heard many times.
• The forts at Agra and Delhi are known for their massive walls of redstone.
• The walls are interrupted by graceful curves and lofty bastions. Red sandstone, domes, arches, minarets, magnificance all combined form characteristics of Islamic architecture.

(3) What kind of professional opportunities are available in the field of arts?
Answer:
Various opportunities are available in different fields of art:

1. Art historian can work in field of journalism. Art students can work in museums, archives, libraries. Information Technology, archaeological research and Indology contribute to recently developed fields like Heritage Management and Cultural Tourism.
2. An expert in art is required to assess the exact value of an art object and also in its sale and purchase. Experts are required in the field of manufacturing of objects for home decoration.
3. Ornaments, artistic creations of metals, earthen pots with colourful designs, objects made from cane and bamboo, beautiful glass objects, attractive textiles and clothing all come are under applied arts.
4. These fields require experts in manufacturing and sales. Hence many opportunities of employment are available in the field of arts.

(4) Observe the illustration of Warli painting on p. 23 and write about:
(a) Depiction of nature
(b) Drawings of human figures
(c) Depiction of occupations
(d) Houses
Answer:

The traditions of Warli painting and Pingul or Chitra Katha in Maharashtra are among the finest examples of folk style of paintings. Divya Somya Mashe, the artist in Thane district has played a great role in making the Warli style of paintings very popular. He has been honored with a number of national and international awards for his paintings. In the year 2011, he was awarded ‘Padmashree’.

Name of the painting tradition:
This picture is from Warli tradition.

Nature’s description:
Artist has sketched trees, leaves and shrubs in the picture. A fish is also drawn.

Sketch of human activities:
Women dancing in a circular pattern is also sketched in the picture.

Designing features:
Pictures of men, women and children are sketched. Warli paintings do not portray the exact objects but only a sketch. Human figures are drawn with the help of a triangle, circle and square which are placed at the tip.

Project
(1) Collect additional information of the World Heritage sites in India.
(2) Observe the sculptors or image-makers at work in your locality and interview them.
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 6.
Complete the sentences by choosing a correct option:
(a) Lalit Kala is also known as …………………… .
(a) Folk art
(b) Aangik Kala
(c) Drik Kala
(d) Nagara art
Answer:
(b) Aangik Kala

(b) Jivya Somya Mashe, an artist in the Thane district played a great role in making the …………………… style of painting very popular.
(a) Chitrakathi
(b) Maratha
(c) Warli
(d) Classical
Answer:
(c) Warli

(c) The Chalukya King, Someshvara, mentioned in …………………… book the tradition of Chitrakathi.
(a) Natyashastra
(b) Kitab-e-Navras
(c) Paintings of Ajanta
(d) Manasollas
Answer:
(d) Manasollas.

(d) The ancient Indian texts mentioned …………………………. styles of Classical Art.
(a) Nine
(b) Thirty-six
(c) Sixty-four
(d) Eighty-four
Answer:
(c) Sixty-four

(e) During the reign, of Mughal Emperor …………………………., the Mughal miniature style showing a blend of Indian and Persian was developed.
(a) Akbar
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Jahangir
(d) Babur
Answer:
(a) Akbar

(f) Some of the drawings of Gangaram Tambat are preserved in …………………………. university.
(a) Stanford
(b) Cambridge
(c) Oxford
(d) Yale
Answer:
(d) Yale

(g) …………………………. is the characteristic of European style of painting.
(a) Sketching
(b) Exact portrayal of object
(c) Natural colours
(d) Landscape
Answer:
(b) Exact portrayal of object

(h) Replicas of Ajanta paintings was made by
(a) Pestonji Bomanji
(b) Gangaram Tambat
(c) Raja Ravi Verma
(d) James Wales
Answer:
(a) Pestonji Bomanji.

(i) The lion capital of the Ashoka pillar found at …………………………. is the national emblem of India.
(a) Bodhgaya
(b) Patliputra
(c) Sanchi
(d) Sarnath
Answer:
(d) Sarnath

(j) The stupa at …………………………. in Indonesia is the largest stupa in the world.
(a) Ubud
(b) Sigiran
(c) Borobudur
(d) Palembang
Answer:
(c) Borobudur

(k) The …………………………. school of art laid the foundation of Indian iconography.
(a) Gandhar
(b) Nagara
(c) Dravid
(d) Mathura
Answer:
(d) Mathura

(l) The temple architecture developed in India around 4th century C.E. during the …………………………. period.
(a) Kushana
(b) Rashtrakuta
(c) Gupta
(d) Chola
Answer:
(c) Gupta

(m) …………………………. is a blend of Nagara style of architecture of North India and Dravid style of South India.
(a) Gandhar
(b) Mathura
(c) Bhoomija
(d) Vesara
Answer:
(d) Vesara.

(n) The two main branches of the Indian classical music are ………………………… .
(a) Folk music and Vocal
(b) Dadraa and Thumri
(c) Bhajans and Qawwalis
(d) Hindustani music and Carnatic music
Answer:
(d) Hindustani music and Carnatic music

(o) The text of …………………………. written by Bharatmuni is supposed to be the earliest one discussing music and theatre.
(a) Manasollas
(b) Abhilasha Chintamani
(c) Natyashastra
(d) Rasratnakar
Answer:
(c) Natyashastra

(p) Every year the …………………………. festival is held in Pune.
(a) Kala Ghoda
(b) Gunidas
(c) Savai Gandharva
(d) Gharapuri
Answer:
(c) Savai Gandharva

(q) The ruler of Bijapur, Ibrahim Adilshah wrote …………………………. text in Persian language.
(a) Tuzuk-i-Babari
(b) Padmavat
(c) Akbarnama
(d) Kitab-e-Navras
Answer:
(d) Kitab- e-Navras

(r) …………………………. is a prominent name among artists who created a new style of fusion of Indian and Western dance.
(a) Pandit Shivkumar Sharma
(b) Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia
(c) Pandit Uday Shankar
(d) Ustad Zakir Hussain
Answer:
(a) Pandit Uday Shankar.

Question 7.
Identify the wrong pair in the following and write it:
(1)

Architectural structure	Place
(1) Kutub Minar	(a) Mehrauli
(2) Gol Gumbaz	(b) Bijapur
(3) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus	(c) Delhi
(4) Taj Mahal	(d) Agra

Answer:
Wrong pair: Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus – Delhi

(2)

Picture	Style
(1) Murals seen in the old wadas at Wai, Menavali	(a) Miniature style
(2) Bhimbetka	(b) Folk painting
(3) Pictures narrating Ramayana and Mahabharata story	(c) Chitrakathi
(4) Painting style in Thane district	(d) Warli painting

Answer:
Wrong pair: Murals seen in the old wadas at Wai, Menavali – Miniature style

(3)

Architectural structure	Style
(1) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus	(a) Gothic architecture
(2) Gol Gumbaz	(b) Muslim architecture
(3) Temples in South India	(c) Nagara architecture
(4) Gondeshwar Temple	(d) Hemadpanti architecture

Answer:
Wrong pair: Temples in South India – Nagara architecture

(4)

Monument	Emperors
(1) Completed Kutub Minar	(a) Altmash
(2) Construction of Taj Mahal	(b) Emperor Akbar
(3) Gol Gumbaz	(c) Mohammed Adilshah
(4) Built Sanchi Stupa	(d) Emperor Ashoka

Answer:
Wrong pair: Construction of Taj Mahal – Emperor Akbar

Question 3.
Do as directed:
(A) Complete the following concept chart:
(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

(3)

Answer:

(4)

Answer:

(5)

Answer:

(6)

Answer:

(B) Prepare a flow chart on the Development of Indian Iconography.
Answer:

Question 8.
Explain the following concepts:
(a) Style in Art:
Answer:

• Every artist has its own method of working which becomes his style.
• When this style is repeated by several artists over a prolonged period of time it becomes a tradition.
• This tradition is known as an art ‘style’.
• Such traditions are established in every art style. Various art styles are developed over the years in every culture.
• The specific art styles indicate the characteristic of a certain region and period.
• They help us to learn the history of arts of these civilizations.

(b) Classical Style of Paintings:
Answer:

• Art which is expressed within an established frame of consistent rules is known as classical art. The ancient Indian texts mentioned altogether 64 arts.
• The aft of painting is mentioned as alekhyam or alekhya vidya in these texts.
• This alekhya vidya has six main aspects of paintings (Shadange).
• They are shapes and forms (Roopbheda), expressions (Bhava).
• Proportionate depiction of various features of an image (Pramana).
• Aesthetics (Lavanyayojana), resemblance to reality (Sadrushyata) and colour composition (Varnikabhang).
• Agama text of Jainism and in Puranas various arts like painting, sculpting are explained in context of temple architecture.

Question 9.
Write short notes:
(a) Chitrakathi:
Answer:

1. The tradition of narrating stones from Ramayana and Mahabharata with the help of wooden puppets and paintings is known as Chitrakathi. It is also known as Pinguli.
2. This tradition is mentioned in Manasollas, a book written by the Chalukya King Someshvara in the 12th century. People belonging to Thakur community stifi practise this art They are frm village, Pinguli near Kudal in Maharashtra.
3. The Chitrakathi pictures are drawn on paper and painted with natural substances. To complete the narration of a single story it takes around 30 to 50 pictures.
4. These pictures are preserved and are passed on from one generation to another. The artists and government are trying to preserve this tradition which is on the verge of extinction.

(b) Miniature Painting:
Answer:

• Painting in a small size square is called Miniature painting.
• The miniature reached people through manuscripts. The earlier period of miniature painting shows the influence of Persian style.
• The Deccan miniature style was developed under the patronage of the Deccan Sultanate.
• Mughal miniature painting style of painting’ was developed during the reign of Mughal Emperor Akbar. ¡t shows a blend of Indian and Persian style.

(c) Western style of painting:
Answer:

• Indian artists came under the influence of European style of painting during the British period.
• An art school at Shaniwar Wada at Pune was established under the leadership of Scottish artist James Wales.
• J. J. School of art and industry was established in 1857 to offer the courses in European style of painting.
• Pestonji Bomanji made replicas of Ajanta paintings.
• lames Wales had done a portrait of Savai Madhavrao and Nana Phadnavis.
• Exact portrayal of the object of the painting is a characteristic of European style.

(d) Gangaram Tambat:
Answer:

• An art school was established under the leadership of Scottish artist James Wales at Shanivar Wada in Pune.
• Marathi artist Gangaram Tambat worked with James Wales.
• He made drawings of rock-cut caves at Verul and Karle.
• Some of his drawings are preserved in the Yale Centre of British Art of Yale University.

(e) Temple architecture:
Answer:

1. Temple architecture began to develop in India around 4th century C.E. during the Gupta period. In the initial stage of the Gupta period, the temples had only the Sanctum Sanctorum (Garbhagriha) and a Veranda with four columns.
2. Temple architecture reached its peak by the 8th century C. E. and its example is the Kailas temple of Verul. By medieval period various types of temple architecture had developed in India.
3. The styles of tower (Shikar) determined various styles of temple architecture in India. The Nagara style of North India and Dravid style of South India are two prominent styles of Indian temple architecture. A blend of Nagara and Dravid is known as Vesara style.
4. Bhoomija style seen in temples of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh has very close resemblance to ‘Nagara’ style.

(f) Indo-Gothic Architecture:
Answer:

1. During the British period, a new architectural style arose in India which was a blend of Indian and Gothic known as Indo-Gothic style of architecture.
2. During the British period, buildings like churches, government offices, residences of top officials, railway stations were built in Indo-Gothic style of architecture.
3. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus in Mumbai is the finest example of Indo- Gothic style of architecture.

(g) Ttitab-e-Navras:
Answer:

1. Ibrahim Adilshah II, the ruler of Bijapur, wrote a book in Persian language entitled ‘Kitab- e-Navras’. This text is about Indian classical music.
2. It includes the verses suitable for singing. It is a composition of excellent poetry expressed through Dhrupad style giving the experience of ecstasy to the interested audience.
3. The Ncrvras mentioned in Sanskrit literature are explained in this text.

Question 10.
Explain the following sentences with reasons:
(a) Indian performing arts were enriched over time.
Answer:

• A constant stream of rulers like the Greeks, Arabs, Mughals and the British came to India.
• During their rule, Indian people came into contact with their styles of folk art.
• The culture which they brought along lasted and blended with existing streams of Indian performing arts.
• As a result, many styles of classical vocal music, instrumental music and dance came into existence.
• Therefore Indian performing arts enriched over time.

(b) The field of Applied Arts needs professionals.
Answer:

• An artistic creation is combined with utilitarian purpose to make it economically viable in applied arts.
• Many stages of production are reached before the concept of creation becomes a reality.
• Each field in applied arts requires detailed planning and meticulous management at each stage of production.
• Ornaments, earthen pots with colourful designs, objects made from Cane and Bamboo, beautiful glass objects.
• Attractive textiles and clothing all listed under applied arts essentially require trained and skilled individuals at every stage.
• Some of the production processes of artistic objects have a history of certain traditions. It is important to have knowledge of those traditions.

Hence, it is essential to have trained and skilled professionals at every stage.

Question 11.
Answer the following question in 25-30 words:
(a) Write about follk traditions of sculptural art.
Answer:

• The tradition of folk art dates back to the Stone Ages.
• The custom of making clay images for rituals has been prevalent in India since Harappcin times.
• It has continued even today in many regions of Bengal, Bihar, Gujarat and Rajasthan.
• During the festivals, Ganesh idols are made along with the masks of Goddess Gauri.
• Bull figurines are made for the festival of Bailpola.
• Wooden memorials, Veergals (memorial stones), the decorated clay storage bins, etc.
• Are examples of folk tradition of sculptural art.
• The sculptures made for religious and festival reasons became masterpieces of artists’ creation.

(b) Write about Gandhara School of Art.
Answer:

• The regions around Afghanistan showed great influence of Greeks and Persians from 2nd century B.C.E.
• Gandhara style of art was a fusion of Greek- Roman and Indian style.
• Gandhara school was heavily influenced by Greek methodologies.
• The materials used to make sculptures were Grey sandstone. Mud, Lime and Stucco.
• Grey sandstone is more prominently used in Gandhara School of Art.
• The Gandhara school images are known for their anatomical accuracy, spatial depth and foreshortening.
• The sculptures in Gandhara style are found in Taxila, Peshawar and on the North West Frontier.

(c) Write about development of Indian Iconography.
Answer:

• The Kushana period from the 1st – 3rd century C.E. saw the rise of Mathura School of Art.
• The Mathura School of Art laid the foundation of Indian iconography style.
• The Kushana Kings made use of images of various deities on their coins.
• During the Gupta period, the ieonographic rules were formulated and standards for sculptural- art were set.
• The art of making bronze images was developed under the patronage of Chola Kings during 9th-13tji century.
• Bronze idols of gods and goddesses like Siva-Parvati, Natraj, Lakshmi, Vishnu, etc. were made.

(d) Give information about the rock-cut caves in India.
Answer:

• The tradition of rock-cut caves originated in India in the 3rd century B.C.E.
• The entire composition of a rock-cut cave represents a union of architecture and sculptural art.
• The entrances of such rock-cut caves, interiors with its carved columns and images are excellent specimens of sculptural art.
• The paintings on the walls and ceilings have survived till today.
• The rock-cut caves at Ajanta and Verul in Maharashtra were declared as World Heritage Sites in 1983.

(e) Elaborate on the development of temple architecture.
Answer:

• The temple architecture began to develop in India during the Gupta period in 4th century C.E.
• The temples built at the beginning of the Gupta period had only the sanctum sanctorum (Garbhagriha) and a veranda with four columns.
• The magnificent structure of the Kailas temple of Verul gives testimony that temple architecture had reached its peak by the 8th century C.E.
• Different styles of temple architecture were developed by the medieval period. Some of them are Nagara, Dravid, Vesara and Bhoomija.

(f) What efforts were taken in India to make dance and classical music easily accessible to common people?
Answer:
The following efforts were taken to make dance and music easily accessible to people:

• Dance programmes and musical festivals were organised at various places.
• Many people attend these festivals including Indians and foreigners.
• The Savai Gandharva festival of Pune is very famous.

(g) Write about the work of Pandit Uday Shankar.
Answer:

• Pandit Uday .Shankar created a fusion of Indian classical dance and European operti.
• New styles of dancing were developed.
• He also included various folk dances in his style of fusion.

Thus, the scope of Indian performing arts seems to be constantly expanding.

(h) Which fields are related to applied arts ?
Answer:

1. An artistic creation with a utilitarian purpose is called applied arts. Industry and advertisement. Interior Design and production of ornamental objects, Art Design of stage backdrops, Art Direction for films and television are the fields of applied arts.
2. Layout of books, magazines, production of greeting cards, invitation cards, gift objects, calligraphy are also related to applied arts.
3. Still and animated graphics, created with the help of computers are used for various purposes. This field needs experts with technical knowledge.
4. In short, whichever art is known and is applied to create something new becomes applied art.

Question 12.
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
(a) In which states of India are the sites of rock paintings found?
Answer:
The sites of rock paintings are found in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Uttarakhand, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

(b) How old is the tradition of rock paintings?
Answer:
The tradition of rock painting dates back to the Stone Age.

(c) What are the features of rock paintings?
Answer:

• Rock paintings depict humans, animals, geometric figures, flora and fauna in various figures and also in colour.
• Natural colours in black and fed are used in them which are extracted from natural substances.
• The style of rock paintings seems to be changing according to the cultural changes from Stone Age to the beginning of agriculture.
• We get to know about ancient people, their natural surroundings and also the way they exploited available natural resources.

Question 13.
Answer the following questions in detail:

(a) Give information on Indian classical sculptural art.
Answer:
The development of folk styles of sculptural art led to the formation of rules for classical sculptural art and it evolved.

1. The folk style of sculpture-making began during the Harappan period. Seals, stones and bronze statues that were made, gives a testimony that the art of sculpture was known to the Indians.
2. It is about 5000 years old or even older tradition.
3. The tradition of the erected stupa started in the times of Ashoka. The stupa at Borobudur in Indonesia is the largest stupa in the world.
4. Gandhara style of sculptural art came to being in the 2nd century B.C.E. and has Greek and Persian influences.
5. During the Kushana reign, Mathura School of art evolved which was a blend of Gandhara School of Art and indigenous art.
6. The rules of Indian iconography was laid during the rule of the Gupta empire. Thus, Indian sculptural tradition has developed into a rich classical sculptural art.

(b) Differentiate between Classical and Folk: art.:
Answer:
Some differences are noted between Classical and Folk art. They are as follows: Classical Art Folk Art

Classical Art	Folk Art
1. Classical art does not have such a long tradition.	1. The tradition of folk art has continued from the prehistoric times.
2. Classical art is not connected to everyday life.	2. Folk art is an integral part of everyday life.
3. It takes a very long time period to master classical art.	3. The creation of folk art has taken place naturally because of people’s involvement.
4. Classical art developed within the established frame of rules.	4. Folk art developed as an integral part of the religious festivals and social life.
5. As classical art follows set rules, different types of styles, methods and schools are developed.	5. Folk art is not bound by any rules.

Brain Teaser

Across:

• Temples built in Maharashtra in 12-13th centuries in this style
• The text written by the ruler of Bijapur, Ibrahim Adilshah II
• Artist who created a fusion of Indian classical dance and European opera
• His drawings are preserved in the Yale Centre of British Art of Yale University

Down:

• The temple of Kailas at Verul
• An art school was established under his leadership in the times of Savai Madhavrao Peshwe
• The art of painting is mentioned as … in ancient Indian text
• Murals of Maratha style of painting can be seen at this place

10th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Historiography Development in the West Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Historiography Indian Tradition Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Applied History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• History of Indian Arts Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Mass Media and History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Entertainment and History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Sports and History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Tourism and History Class 10 History Questions And Answers
• Heritage Management Class 10 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Geography Chapter 5 Question Answer Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 10 Chapter 5 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
On the basis of the information given in the chapter, figures and maps, complete the table below:

S.No	Type of forest	Characteristics	Regions in India	Regions in Brazil
1	Tropical Forests	Broad-leaved evergreen trees.
2	Semi arid thorny vegetation	1. 2.
3	Savannah	Scanty bushes and shrub like trees and rain resistant grass.
4	Tropical semi-deciduous	Mixed type vegetation.
5	Grasslands	Grassland region like the Pampas of Argentina.

Answer:

S. No.	Type of forest	Characteristics	Regions in India	Regions in Brazil
(1)	Tropical Forests	Broad-leaved evergreen trees.	Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Western Ghats. Some parts of North East India.	Amazon Basin, Guyana Highlands.
(2)	Semi arid thorny vegetation	(a)     Thorny and shrub type vegetation. (b)   Leaves are small in size. Leaves are modified into thorns to minimise evaporation.	Gujarat, Rajasthan, Parts of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.	North-Eastern part of Brazil.
(3)	Savannah	Scanty bushes and shrub like trees and rain resistant grass.		Brazilian Highland.
(4)	Tropical semi-deciduous	Mixed type vegetation.	Central India and South India.	Parana Basin and South Eastern part of Brazil.
(5)	Grasslands	Grassland region like the Pampas of Argentina.	Foothills of Shiwalik hills and Assam.	Southern Brazil.

2. Identify the odd man out:

Question a.
Forest type of Brazil ______.
(a) Thorny bush type vegetation
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) The Himalayan Forests
(d) Deciduous forests
Answer:
(c) The Himalayan Forests

Question b.
With reference to India
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Mediterranean forests
(c) Thorny bush-type vegetation
(d) Equatorial forests
Answer:
(b) Mediterranean forests

Question c.
With reference to Fauna of Brazil.
(a) Anaconda
(b) Tamairin
(c) Red Panda
(d) Lion
Answer:
(c) Red Panda

Question d.
With reference to flora in India.
(a Deodar
(b) Anjan
(c) Orchid
(d) Banyan
Answer:
(c) Orchid

3. Match the Column:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
Evergreen Forests	(a) Sundari trees
Deciduous forests	(b) Pine
Coastal forests	(c) Pau Brasil
Himalayan forests	(d) Khejari
Thorny and bush type vegetation	(e) Teak
	(f) Orchid

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – a
4 – b
5 – d

4. Answer in short:

Question a.
Differentiate between the forest types of Brazil and India.
Answer:

Forest type of Brazil	Forest type of India
1. The northern part of Brazil lies in the equatorial region. It receives ample sunshine and heavy rainfall. So dense evergreen forests are seen here.	1. The location of India is far away from the Equator. Heavy rainfall occurs only in the Western Ghats and North Eastern hilly areas. So evergreen forests are seen in these regions.
2. The Highland region of Brazil receives low rainfall. So tropical grasslands are seen in this region.	2. The Peninsula region of India receives rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm, so they are covered by deciduous forests.
3. As there are no tall and long extending mountains in Brazil, Himalayan type forests are not found here.	3. Owing to presence of Himalayas, Himalayan type forests are found in North and North-East of India that are classified on the basis of altitude.
4. Thorny shrubs are found to the North Eastern part of Brazilian Highlands which is also considered to be a Drought Quadrilateral.	4. Thorny shrubs are found in India receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall. It is majorly found in Gujarat, Rajasthan and rain shadow regions of the Western Ghats.

Question b.
Correlate wildlife and natural vegetation in India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Depending upon favourable geographical conditions, we find a variety of natural vegetation in India and Brazil. Also depending upon the vegetation we find a variety of wildlife in different regions.

(ii) Grasslands of Brazil like the Savannah and the deciduous forest of India have a large number of herbivores and carnivores.

(iii) The dense evergreen forests of India in the west, north east India and the Amazon Basin of Brazil are a home to a large variety of birds, insects, reptiles along with the herbivores and the carnivores.

(iv) Coastal forests and swampy areas of Pantanal and Sunderbans have mangroves, a variety of birds, fishes and reptiles like crocodiles, alligators and the anacondas in Brazil.

(v) Vegetation provides food and shelter to wildlife but if vegetation is limited like in the Thar desert or the Caatinga it will also limit the variety of animals species.

Question c.
What environmental issues are faced by Brazil and India?
Answer:

• Degradation of environment is happening in Brazil due to illegal smuggling of wild animals, slash and burn agriculture (roca), deforestation, pollution, etc.
• Due to these problems, many endemic species are on the verge of extinction.
• India too faces environmental issues such as poaching, pollution and the fast spreading deforestation.
• Many species of wildlife are on the verge of extinction in India.

Question d.
What are the major causes of degradation of forest in Brazil and India?
Answer:
(i) Forests are being cut down as more area is required to expand the cities. Hence rapid urbanisation is one of the reasons for degradation of forest.

(ii) To ensure continuous food supply to meet the needs of the ever increasing population, more and more area needs to be brought under agriculture. For the expansion of agricultural land, forest areas are being cut down.

(iii) In both India and Brazil, forests are being cut down for firewood and for other domestic needs.

(iv) Slash and Burn agriculture which is also known as Roca in Brazil and Jhum in India is responsible for deforestation.

(v) Apart from all the above reasons, forest fire, pollution, overgrazing, etc. are also responsible for the degradation of forests.

Question e.
Why does the deciduous type vegetation occupy most of India?
Answer:

• Vegetation in a region is affected by the climate and rainfall of the region.
• In dia lies in the tropical zone and it has a monsoon type climate throughout the year.
• Also, a major portion of India receives seasonal rainfall between 1000-2000 mm.
• Deciduous forests thrive well in this condition and these forests shed their leaves during the hot and dry summer so that water is not lost due to evaporation.
• Teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal, etc. are the trees found in deciduous forest of India.

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The northern part of Brazil is covered with dense forests.
Answer:

• The northern part of Brazil lies in the equatorial region.
• It receives ample sunlight and about 2000 mm of rainfall throughout the year.
• In this region, the growth of vegetation is very rapid.
• So, the northern part of Brazil is covered with dense and evergreen forests.

Question b.
Vegetation is scarce in the high altitude of the Himalayas.
Answer:

• As the altitude increases, the temperature decreases.
• The climate is very cold in the high altitudes. In Jammu and Kashmir and parts of Himalayas temperature drops to -40fiC.
• Also this region is snow-covered for most part of the year.
• Very few species of plants can survive in such extreme conditions. Only seasonally flowering trees are found at higher altitudes.
• Hence, vegetation is scarce in the high altitude of the Himalayas.

Question c.
A wide variety of insect species is found in Brazil.
Answer:

• Insects are mostly found in forests, grasslands and swampy lands.
• Many insects eat leaves, grass and nectar from the plant.
• The evergreen rainforests are seen in the northern parts of Brazil. The grasslands are found in the central parts and Paraguay-Parana river basin. Similarly, swampy lands are found in Pantanal region in Brazil. .
• Therefore, a wide variety of insect’s species is found in Brazil.

Question d.
Wild life in India is decreasing day by day.
Answer:
(i) Wildlife in India is decreasing day by day because of rapidly occurring deforestation, poaching, pollution.

(ii) Expansion of cities to accommodate the growing population is leading to cutting down of the valuable forest which leads to the loss of the habitat of wildlife.

(iii) Also the problem of pollution has become severe due to urbanisation. Various types of pollution have threatened the lives of many of the species.

(iv) Poaching of wildlife species have also led to the loss of wildlife in India.

(v) Agricultural practices like shifting cultivation has also reduced the forest cover leading to loss of wildlife habitat.

Question e.
Like India, there is a need for conservation of forests in Brazil too.
Answer:
(i) Like India, Brazil is facing the problem of degradation of environment due to deforestation, pollution, slash and burn agriculture, illegal smuggling of wild animals, etc.

(ii) Trees are being cut down to obtain wood, leading to large scale deforestation in both countries.

(iii) Also the problem of pollution has become severe due to urbanisation. Various types of pollution have threatened the lives of many of the species.

(iv) Agricultural practices like slash and burn agriculture (roca) has reduced the forest cover in Brazil.

(v) Like India, the problem of illegal smuggling of animals has affected Brazil too.

(vi) Hence there is a need for conservation of forests in both Brazil and India.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the images given below and discuss on the basis of the following points and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Can you tell the names of the plants/trees shown in the image?
Answer:
Coffee, cactus, rubber.

Question 2.
Where have you seen these plants before?
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 3.
Name the fauna shown in the image.
Answer:
Rufous bellied thrush, leopard, green anaconda.

Question 4.
Where have you seen them before?
Answer:
On the internet and in movies.

Question 5.
In which country do you find a greater diversity of vegetation? What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
Brazil has a greater diversity of vegetation because of the variation in climatic conditions.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
In which country do equatorial forests occupy a greater area? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
Equatorial forests occupy a greater area in Brazil. This is because the Equator passes through northern part of Brazil. Hence, the climate is generally hot throughout the year. Moreover, this region receives heavy rainfall throughout the year.

Question 2.
Which type of forests found in India are not found in Brazil?
Answer:
Himalayan forests are found in India and not in Brazil.

Question 3.
Which type of forests found in Brazil are found in India too?
Answer:
Evergreen forests, deciduous forests, and thorny shrub type vegetation are found in both Brazil and India.

Question 4.
In which country a greater diversity of vegetation is found? What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
Brazil has a greater diversity of vegetation because of the equatorial climate, ample sunlight, heavy rainfall, and vast forest expanse.

Question 5.
Considering the climate and vegetation types, in which country will forest-based occupations flourish?
Answer:
Forest-based occupations will flourish more in Brazil.

Activity

Question 1.
Correlate geographical conditions and the flora and fauna there? (India)
Answer:
Depending upon favourable geographical conditions, we find a variety of flora and fauna in India.

(i) In the snow-capped regions of Himalayas where precipitation occurs in the form of snow, we find alpine vegetation. Animals like snow leopards and yaks are found who can sustain the extreme cold of the Himalayas.

(ii) The evergreen forest in the Western Ghats have hot and humid conditions with a temperature of 28°C and annual rainfall more than 2000mm. In such are as animals like lions, tigers, elephants, and a variety of birds are seen.

(iii) The coastal forest are home to many turtles, crocodiles, and gavials, etc. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in the swampy, marshy lands of Assam. Mangrove vegetation is found in the saline waters.

(iv) In areas where the climate is hot and dry and the rainfall is low, thorny scrub vegetation is found. Animals like wild ass and camels are common here.

(v) In the regions of medium rainfall. We find deciduous forest, wide variety of animals and birds.

Question 2.
Do you know some other animals too ?
Answer:
Four-horned antelope, black buck, Tibetan yak, giant squirrel (shekaru).

Use your Brain:

Question 1.
Find out in which parts of India agricultural practices like the ‘Roca’ is found? By what names are they called?
Answer:

Slash and Burn Farming in India
Name	Regions
Jhumming	Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
Pamlou	Manipur
Dipa	Bastar (Chhattisgarh) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Bewar or Dahiya	Madhya Pradesh
Podu or Penda	Andhra Pradesh
Pama Dabi or Koman or Bringa	Odisha
Kumara	Western Ghats
Valre or Waltre	South Eastern Rajasthan
Khi	Himalayan belt
Kuruwa	Jharkhand

Answer the following questions on the basis of map given:

Question 1.
How many mm of rainfall does Tropical forests have?
Answer:
Tropical forests receives rainfall of 1600 mm.

Question 2.
How much rainfall does equatorial forests receive?
Answer:
Equatorial forests receive 2000 mm of rainfall.

Question 3.
Name the types of forests shown in figure.
Answer:
Tropical forests, Equatorial forests, Deciduous forests and Temperate forests are shown in the above figure.

Question 4.
Where are tropical and equatorial forests found in Brazil?
Answer:Tropical and equatorial forests are found in Guyana Highlands and Amazon basin respectively.

Question 5.
Where are deciduous forests and temperate forests found in Brazil?
Answer:
Deciduous forests and Temperate forests are found in Parana Basin and Brazilian Highlands respectively.

Question 6.
What kind of wildlife is seen in Brazilian Highlands?
Answer:
Reptiles and grassland animals are seen in Brazilian Highlands.

Question 1.
Which forests are found in western snow¬capped regions?
Answer:
Himalayan Forests are found in western snow-capped regions.

Question 2.
On which coast do you mainly find the coastal vegetation?
Answer:
The coastal vegetation is mainly found along the Eastern Coast.

Question 3.
Which type of forests occupy maximum area in India ? Why?
Answer:
Deciduous forests are found in the regions receiving rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm Since most of India has rainfall in that range, deciduous forests dominate the Indian subcontinent.

Question 4.
Where do you find thorny and shrub vegetation in India and why?
Answer:
Semi arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Haryana are the places where thorny and shrub vegetation are found. The thorny forests are found in these regions as the rainfall is less than 500 mm.

Question 1.
Name the species shown on the map.
Answer:
Some of the major species shown on the map are condor, golden lion tamarin, anaconda, crocodile, sword fish, flamingoes, macaw, parrots, rufous bellied thrush.

Question 2.
In which regions are these animals found? Why are their habitats found in these forests?
Answer:

• The dense equatorial forest region is home to golden lion tamarin, condor, anaconda, etc. This is because these forest lie near the Amazon River and receive rainfall throughout the year.
• Swampy lands of Pantanal is home to anacondas and crocodiles because these conditions are favourable for their habitation.
• Sword fish thrives near the South Atlantic Coast due to the extensive continental shelf.

Question 3.
Classify the forest regions in Brazil with reference to their extent.
Answer:

• Equatorial forests are found in the northern part of Brazil and it covers an extensive area.
• Tropical Grasslands (Savanna) is the next major forest type occupying central part of Brazil.
• Hot deciduous forests occupy the southern Brazil whereas swampy lands of Pantanal occupy a small part of Brazil in the south west.
• Thorny shrubs occupy the north western part of Brazil owing to low rainfall whereas Temperate Grasslands (Pampas) occupy south Brazil.

Mark the following on the map of India with the given information:
Question 1.

1. Bengal Tiger
2. Lion
3. Great Indian Bustard
4. Gangetic Dolphin
5. Olive Ridley turtles
6. Swamp deers
7. One-horned rhinos
8. Nilgiri Tahr goat
9. Gharials

Answer:

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
In Brazil, _____ varies due to physiography.
(a) soil
(b) rainfall
(c) agriculture
(d) mineral availability
Answer:
(b) rainfall

Question 2.
In most parts of the _____ region, it rains throughout the year.
(a) temperate
(b) tropical
(c) grasslands
(d) equatorial
Answer:
(d) equatorial

Question 3.
As one moves away from the Equator, _______ decreases.
(a) altitude
(b) forest
(c) rainfall
(d) snowfall
Answer:
(c) rainfall

Question 4.
The _______ forests are found where there is rainfall throughout the year.
(a) tropical
(b) thorny
(c) evergreen
(d) temperate
Answer:
(c) evergreen

Question 5.
Brazil has the/a ______ number of vegetation species in the world.
(a) moderate
(b) largest
(c) low
(d) smallest
Answer:
(b) largest

Question 6.
The rainforests are rightly called the _______.
(a) lungs of the world’
(b) ’limbs of the world’
(c) ’heart of the world’
(d) ’veins of the world’
Answer:
(a) lungs of the world’

Question 7.
Highest biodiversity is found in _____ forests.
(a) thorny
(b) deciduous
(c) evergreen
(d) coastal
Answer:
(c) evergreen

Question 8.
In regions receiving rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm in India, ______ forests are found.
(a) thorny
(b) evergreen
(c) deciduous
(d) tropical
Answer:
(c) deciduous

Question 9.
In regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall that experience dry summers for a long time in India, ______ and shrub like vegetation are found.
(a) equatorial
(b) evergreen
(c) grasslands
(d) thorny
Answer:
(d) thorny

Question 10.
In _____ areas, coastal type of vegetation is found.
(a) peninsular
(b) mountainous
(c) rocky
(d) swampy
Answer:
(d) swampy

Question 11.
Coastal type of vegetation is called ____ in India.
(a) Bangar
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Pantanal
(d) Terai
Answer:
(b) Sunderbans

Question 12.
The wood found in Sunderbans is _____ light and durable.
(a) dry
(b) fragile
(c) oily
(d) soft
Answer:
(c) oily

Question 13.
In areas located in the ____ altitude of Himalayas, seasonly flowering trees are found.
(a) highest
(b) lowest
(c) plains
(d) medium
Answer:
(a) highest

Question 14.
In regions with medium altitude of Himalayas, ______ trees are found.
(a) rubber
(b) evergreen
(c) rose wood
(d) coniferous
Answer:
(d) coniferous

Question 15.
At foothills of the Himalayas _____ forests are found.
(a) mixed
(b) teak –
(c) coniferous
(d) pine
Answer:
(a) mixed

Question 16.
The proportion of ________ trees is higher at the foothills of the Himalayas.
(a) sal
(b) deodar
(c) rosewood
(d) pine
Answer:
(a) sal

Question 17.
Teak is mainly found in the _______ type of forest.
(a) Coastal
(b) Thorny and bush
(c) Coniferous
(d) Deciduous
Answer:
(d) Deciduous

Question 18.
A greater diversity of wildlife is found in ________ than any other country in the
world.
(a) India
(b) Russia
(c) Australia
(d) Brazil
Answer:
(d) Brazil

Question 19.
In the swampy areas of Pantanal, _______ are found.
(a) cobras
(b) vipers
(c) huge anacondas
(d) Indian pythons
Answer:
(c) huge anacondas

Question 20.
Among fish varieties, ______ is found in seas of Brazil
(a) mackerel
(b) king fish
(c) sword fish
(d) pink dolphins
Answer:
(c) sword fish

Question 21.
In Brazilian rivers, pink dolphins and ______ are found.
(a) gold fish
(b) piranhas
(c) king fish
(d) mackrels
Answer:
(b) piranhas

Question 22.
One of the major bird species found in Brazil includes _______.
(a) ostrich
(b) flamingoes
(c) kiwi
(d) duck
Answer:
(b) flamingoes

Question 23.
Slash and bum agriculture is also called ______ in Brazil.
(a) kumri
(b) roka (roca)
(c) dry farming
(d) bewar
Answer:
(b) roka (roca)

Question 24.
Hot and humid forests are a home for _______
(a) tiger
(b) elephants
(c) dogs
(d) leopard
Answer:
(b) elephants

Question 25.
One horned rhinoceroses are found in swampy and marshy lands of ______.
(a) Assam
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Telangana
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(a) Assam

Question 26.
Indian bisons, deers, monkeys are found in the _____ region.
(a) Himalayan
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Peninsular
(d) Deccan
Answer:
(c) Peninsular

Question 27.
The only country where both lions and tigers are found is ______.
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Australia
(d) America
Answer:
(b) India

Question 28.
______ which are huge in size fly high in the Brazilian sky.
(a) Macaws
(b) Kingfishers
(c) Condors
(d) Pheasants
Answer:
(c) Condors

Match the Column:

Question 1.

Column ’A’	Column ‘B’
1. Evergreen Forests	(a) Major portion of Madhya Pradesh
2. Deciduous forests	(b) Arunachal Pradesh
3. Thorny shrubs	(c) Sundarbans
4. Himalayan forests	(d) Western Ghats
5. Coastal forests	(e) Gujarat
	(f) Cold desert in Jammu and Kashmir
	(g) Hot desert in Rajasthan

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – e
4 – b
5 – c

Question 2.

Column ’A’	Column ‘B’
1. Equatorial forests	(a) Caatinga
2. Grasslands	(b) Pantanal
3. Swampy Lands	(c) Pampas
4. Hot deciduous forests	(d) Amazon river basin
5. Thorny shrubs	(e) Escarpment
	(f) Savanna
	(g) Parana basin

Answer:
1 – d
2 – c
3 – b
4 – e
5 – a

Identify the odd man out:

Question 1.
With reference to Fauna in India.
(a) Anaconda
(b) Elephants
(c) Lion
(d) Tiger
Answer:
(a) Anaconda

Question 2.
With reference to Flora of Brazil.
(a) Pau Brazil
(b) Rubber
(c) Mahogany
(d) Deodar
Answer:
(d) Deodar

Question 3.
With reference to Himalayan Forests.
(a) Seasonal flowering plants
(b) Orchids
(c) Pine
(d) Mixed Forests
Answer:
(b) Orchids

Question 4.
With reference to birds found in Brazil.
(a) Condors
(b) Flamingoes
(c) Macaws
(d) Peacocks
Answer:
(d) Peacocks

Question 5.
With reference to birds found in India.
(a) Peacock
(b) Kingfisher
(c) Duck
(d) Condors.
Answer:
(d) Condors.

Question 6.
With reference to protection of wildlife, Government of India has setup.
(a) Museums
(b) Biosphere reserves
(c) National Parks
(d) Wildlife sanctuaries
Answer:
(a) Museums

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Where does it rain throughout the year?
Answer:
It rains throughout the year, in most parts of the equatorial region.

Question 2.
As one moves away from the Equator, does the rainfall increase?
Answer:
No, the rainfall decreases as one moves away from the Equator.

Question 3.
Where are evergreen forests found?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are found in the area where it rains throughout the year.

Question 4.
What effect does rainfall have on vegetation?
Answer:
As the rainfall decreases, the density of the vegetation also decreases.

Question 5.
What kind of vegetation is found in places of less rainfall?
Answer:
Various types of grass, short shrubs and thorny vegetation is found in places of less rainfall.

Question 6.
Where are the largest number of vegetation species found in the world?
Answer:
Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.

Question 7.
What kind of trees are found in Brazil?
Answer:
Trees like Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and a variety of orchids are found in Brazil.

Question 8.
Why are the evergreen forests called the ‘lungs of the world’?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are called the lungs of the world because they release large amount of oxygen in the environment which helps to reduce the carbon dioxide levels.

Question 9.
Describe the leaves of trees found in evergreen forests.
Answer:
The leaves of trees found in evergreen forests are broad and green.

Question 10.
What quality of wood is found in evergreen forests?
Answer:
The wood found in evergreen forests is hard, heavy and durable.

Question 11.
In which regions are deciduous forests found?
Answer:
Deciduous forests are found in the regions receiving an average amount of rainfall ranging between 1000mm to 2000mm in India.

Question 12.
Which trees are found in deciduous forests?
Answer:
Trees like teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal, etc. are found in deciduous forest.

Question 13.
Which regions experience dry summers for a long time in India?
Answer:
Regions that receive less than 500 mm of rainfall experience dry summers for a long time in India.

Question 14.
Which kind of vegetation is found in regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall?
Answer:
Thorny or shrub like vegetation is found in regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall.

Question 15.
How are the leaves of trees in the region where there is less than 500 mm of rainfall?
Answer:
The leaves of trees are small in the region where there is less than 500 mm of rainfall.

Question 16.
Where is coastal vegetation found?
Answer:
Coastal vegetation is found in swampy areas, estuaries and lagoons near coastal areas.

Question 17.
What is coastal vegetation called in India?
Answer:
Coastal vegetation is called mangroves or Sunderbans in India.

Question 18.
How is the wood of trees found in coastal vegetation?
Answer:
The wood of trees found in coastal vegetation is oily, light and durable.

Question 19.
How many types of forests are there in the Himalayas?
Answer:
There are three types of forests in the Himalayas based on their altitude.

Question 20.
Which kind of trees are found in regions of high altitude in the Himalayas?
Answer:
Seasonally flowering trees are found in regions of high altitude.

Question 21.
Which type of trees are found in regions with medium altitude in the Himalayas?
Answer:
In regions with medium altitude, coniferous trees like pine, deodar and fir are found.

Question 22.
Where are mixed forests found in India?
Answer:
Mixed forest are found at the foothills of the Himalayas.

Question 23.
Where is greater diversity in wildlife found in the world?
Answer:
A greater diversity in wildlife is found in Brazil than any other country in the world.

Question 24.
Which animal is found in the swampy areas of the Pantanal?
Answer:
Huge anacondas are found in the swampy areas of Pantanal.

Question 25.
Which are the other animals found in Brazil?
Answer:
Animals like guinea pigs, crocodiles, alligators, monkeys, pumas, leopards, etc. are found in Brazil.

Question 26.
Which is the main variety of fish found in the Brazilian sea?
Answer:
Sword fish is mainly found in the Brazilian sea.

Question 27.
Which varieties of fish are found in the rivers of Brazil?
Answer:
Piranhas are found in the rivers of Brazil.

Question 28.
What kind of birds are seen in the Brazilian sky?
Answer:
Condors, parrots, macaws, and flamingoes are found in the Brazilian skies.

Question 29.
Why is degradation of environment happening in Brazil?
Answer:
Degradation of environment is happening in Brazil due to illegal smuggling of wild animals, slash and bum agriculture (roka), deforestation, and pollution.

Question 30.
Where are elephants found in India?
Answer:
Elephants are found in hot and humid forests of India.

Question 31.
Where are one homed rhinoceroses found?
Answer:
One homed rhinoceroses are found in the swampy and marshy lands of Assam.

Question 32.
Which animals are found in the arid lands of India?
Answer:
Wild ass and camels are found in the arid lands of India.

Question 33.
Which animal is found in the snow capped regions of Himalayas?
Answer:
Snow leopards are found in the snow capped regions of the Himalayas.

Question 34.
Which animals are found in the peninsular region of India?
Answer:
Indian Bisons, deer, antelopes, and monkeys are found in the Peninsular region of India.

Question 35.
Which is the only country where both lions and tigers are found?
Answer:
India is the only country where both lions and tigers are found.

Question 36.
Where are turtles, crocodiles and gharials found in India?
Answer:
Turtles, crocodiles and gharials are found in rivers, estuaries, and coastal areas of India.

Question 37.
Which birds are found in the forests and wetlands of India?
Answer:
Birds like peacocks, Indian bustard, kingfishers, peasants, ducks, parakeet, cranes, and pigeons are found in the forests and wetlands of India.

Question 38.
What measures are taken by the Government of India for the protection of wildlife and forests of India?
Answer:
The Government of India has set up a number of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, bird sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves for the protection of wildlife and forests in India.

Question 39.
Name some plants found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall in India.
Answer:
Catechu, acacia, khejri and a variety of cactus like aloevera and agave are found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall in India.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The region where it rains throughout the year.
Answer:
Equatorial region.

Question 2.
The forests which are found where it rains throughout the year.
Answer:
Evergreen forests.

Question 3.
Kind of vegetation found in places of less rainfall.
Answer:
Grass, short shrubs, thorny vegetation.

Question 4.
Country where the largest number of vegetation species in the world is located.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 5.
The types of trees found in Brazil.
Answer:
Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and variety of orchids.

Question 6.
Other name for rain forests.
Answer:
‘The lungs of the world.’

Question 7.
Trees found in deciduous forests.
Answer:
Teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal.

Question 8.
Type of vegetation found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall.
Answer:
Thorny and shrub-like.

Question 9.
Plants found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall.
Answer:
Catechu, acacia, khejri and varieties of cactus.

Question 10.
Kind of vegetation found in swampy areas.
Answer:
Coastal type.

Question 11.
Another name of coastal type of vegetation in India.
Answer:
Mangroves or sunderbans.

Question 12.
Kind of trees found in forests located on higher altitudes in the Himalayas.
Answer:
Seasonally flowering trees.

Question 13.
Kind of trees which have grown in forests located on medium altitudes in Himalayas. Coniferous trees like Pine, Deodar and Fir.
Answer:
Region where mixed forests are found in Himalayas.

Question 14.
Foothills of Himalayas.
Answer:
Animal found in the swampy areas of Pantanal.

Question 15.
Huge anacondas.
Answer:
Any two varieties of animals found in Brazil. Guinea pigs and crocodiles.

Question 16.
Kind of fishes found in seas of Brazil.
Answer:
Sword fish.

Question 17.
Fish varieties found in the rivers of Brazil.
Answer:
Pink dolphins and Piranhas.

Question 18.
Any two species of birds found in Brazil.
Answer:
Condors and macaws.

Question 19.
Causes for degradation of environment.
Answer:
Illegal smuggling of wild animals, roka, deforestation and pollution

Question 20.
Region where elephants are found in India.
Answer:
Hot and humid forests.

Question 21.
Animal which is found in the swampy and marshy lands of Assam.
Answer:
One horned rhinoceroses.

Question 22.
Animals which are found in arid lands of India.
Answer:
Wild ass and camels.

Question 23.
Animals which are found in the snowcapped mountain of Himalayas.
Answer:
Yaks and snow leopards.

Question 24.
Animals found in the Peninsular region of India.
Answer:
Indian bisons, deer, antelopes and monkeys.

Question 25.
Country where both lion and tigers are found.
Answer:
India.

Question 26.
Animals found in rivers, estuaries and coastal areas of India.
Answer:
Turtles, crocodiles and garials.

Question 27.
Measures taken by the Government of India to protect wildlife.
Answer:
Setting up of National parks, bird sanctuaries, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.

Question 28.
National animal of India.
Answer:
Tiger.

Mark the following on the map of India with the given information:

1. Evergreen forests
2. Deciduous forest
3. Thorny shrubs
4. Himalayan Forests
5. Coastal Forests

Answer:

Mark the following on the map of Brazil with the given information:

1. Equatorial forests
2. Tropical grasslands
3. Swampy lands
4. Hot deciduous forest
5. Caatinga
6. Temperate grasslands

Answer:

Equatorial Forests Tropical Grasslands:Savanna Swampy Lands Hot Deciduous Forest Thorny Shrubs/Caatinga Temperate Grasslands:Pampas

Question 1.
Show the habitats of tigers in India with their names on a map.
Answer:

Question 2.
Why is their habitat found in these regions?
Answer:
Tiger’s habitats are found in these regions because here there are various types of forest areas with different types of herbivorous animals.

Answer the Questions Briefly:

Question 1.
Thorny and shrub-like vegetation is found in regions where there is less or no rainfall.
Answer:

• The regions where there is less or no rainfall have a hot and dry climate.
• The soils in these regions are also rocky and dry.
• Water evaporation in leaves is more since the surface area of exposure is more than that of thorns
• Hence, thorny and shrub-like vegetation is found in regions where there is less or no rainfall to conserve water.

Question 2.
The evergreen rainforests in Brazil are rightly called the ‘Lungs of the world’.
Answer:

• The northern Part of Brazil has dense evergreen forests. .
• These forests release a large amount of oxygen in the environment.
• This helps to reduce carbon dioxide levels.
• Therefore, these rainforests are rightly called the Tungs of the world’.

Question 3.
The largest variety of flora is found in Brazil.
Answer:

• The flora of any region depends upon the amount of rainfall and its physiography.
• Brazil has equatorial forests in high rainfall areas, tropical grasslands and deciduous forests in moderate rainfall areas.
• Western part of Brazil has swampy lands, whereas low rainfall regions have thorny shrubs.
• Temperate grasslands are found in temperate regions.
• Thus, the largest variety of flora is found in Brazil.

Question 4.
Suggest measures for the conservation of wildlife and forest in India?
Answer:
Measures for the conservation of wildlife and forest in India are as follows:

• Restricting wildlife trading and hunting.
• Declaring more national parks and sanctuaries.
• Giving more importance to the protection of endangered animals.
• Controlling felling of trees.
• Implementing afforestation and social forestry programmes.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Brazilian Vegetation:
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rainfall varies due to physiography. In most parts of the Equatorial region, it rains throughout the year.
(ii) As one moves away from the equator, the number of rainy days as well as amount of rainfall reduces.
(iii) This affects the life cycle of the vegetation too.
(iv) Evergreen forests are found in the areas where it rains throughout the year.
(v) In regions which receive rainfall only during certain seasons, the density of the vegetation reduces.
(vi) Instead of forests, various types of grass, short shrubs,,thorny vegetation, etc. are found.
(vii) Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.
(viii) This includes evergreen vegetation, semi-evergreen, arid, etc.
(ix) One finds trees like Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and a variety of orchids.

Question 2.
wildlife of Brazil:
Answer:
(i) A greater diversity in wildlife is found in Brazil compared to any other country in the world.
(ii) In the swampy areas of the Pantanal, huge anacondas are found.
Animals, such as guinea pigs, crocodiles,
alligators, monkeys, pumas, leopards, etc. are found.
(iv) Among the fish varieties, mainly swordfish are found in the seas, while pink dolphins and piranhas are found in the rivers .
(v) Condors which are huge in size and fly high in the sky, various types of parrots, macaws, and flamingoes are the major birds found here.
(vi) Millions of insect varieties are also found here.

Question 3.
The wildlife of India:
Answer:
(i) India is also a mega-diverse country in terms of wildlife. There are many species of wildlife in Irdia.
(ii) Elephants are found in hot and humid forests. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in swampy and marshy lands of Assam.
(iii) Wild ass and camels are found in arid lands. Snow leopards and yaks are found in the snow-capped regions of the Himalayas.
(iv) Indian Bisons, deer, antelopes, and monkeys are found in the Peninsular region.
(v) India is the only country in the world where both tigers and lions are found.
(vi) Rivers, estuaries and coastal areas are homes to many turtles, crocodiles, and gavials (gharials).
(vii) The forests and wetlands are the shelters of variety of birds like peacocks, Indian bustard, kingfishers, pheasants, ducks, parakeets, cranes, and pigeons.

10th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Field Visit Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Location and Extent Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Physiography and Drainage Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Climate Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Population Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Economy and Occupations Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tourism, Transport and Communication Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Geography Chapter 7 Question Answer Human Settlements Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 10 Chapter 7 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Tick (✓) the correct options:

Question a.
The concentration of settlements is related to following major factors
(a) Proximity to the Sea
(b) Plain region
(c) Availability of water
(d) Climate
Answer:
(c) Availability of water

Question b.
In North-eastern part of Brazil, which types of settlements are found
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Star-shaped
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question c.
Where do you find dispersed settlements in India?
(i) Near the rivers
(ii) Near the transport routes
(iii) Hilly areas
(iv) Industrial regions
Answer:
(iii) Hilly areas

Question d.
Concentrated settlements are found in Narmada Valley
(i) Forested land
(ii) Cultivable land
(iii) Undulating topography
(iv) Industries
Answer:
(ii) Cultivable land

Question e.
Which state has the least urbanisation in Brazil?
(i) Para
(ii) Amapa
(iii) Espirito Santo
(iv) Parana
Answer:
(i) Para

2. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Availability of water is a major factor affecting settlements.
Answer:
(i) Water is a major factor affecting settlements because water is required for survival of living beings, for purposes like drinking, cooking, agriculture, industries, etc.
(ii) Due to availability of water, agriculture and industries flourish, generating employment opportunities and leading to development of settlements.
(iii) Shortage of water will hamper the growth of agriculture and industries which lead to less development of settlements.

Question b.
In Brazil, majority of population is found in the eastern coastal areas.
Answer:
(i) Although the coastal climate is hot and humid, and flat land is limited due to rugged topography, the eastern coast of Brazil has a good water supply and a large range of natural resources.
(ii) The region has rich fertile soil which is most suitable for coffee cultivation..
(iii) The region is rich in minerals like iron ore and has a steady power supply.
(iv) An excellent transportation facility is also available here.
(v) Due to these factors, agriculture, industries and trade flourish and settlements increase.
So, majority of Brazil’s population is found in the eastern coastal areas.

Question c.
Urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.
Answer:
(i) In India, there has been growing industrialisation, leading to availability of jobs in urban areas.
(ii) Urban areas have better facilities and amenities like water supply, electricity, health, education, etc.
(iii) There is increasing migration of people from rural areas to urban areas.
(iv) The urban population is increasing due to the expansion of urban centres and emergence of new towns.
So, urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.

Question d.
Settlements are sparse in north-eastern Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The north east of Brazil is a Highland.
(ii) As this region lies in a rain shadow region it suffers from droughts.
(iii) Due to scanty rainfall and unavailability of resources, agriculture and industries are not well developed.
(iv) Transport facilities are also very poor here. Therefore, settlements are sparse in north – eastern Brazil.

Question e.
Except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.
Answer:
(i) Delhi and Chandigarh are union territories lying in the flat Northern Plains of India.
(ii) Delhi is the capital of India and has an ancient history of urbanisation while Chandigarh is one of the most well-planned cities.
(iii) Both Delhi and Chandigarh have good water supply due to river Yamuna and the Bhakra Canal.
(iv) As compared to the other cities in North India, both the cities have well-developed infrastructure, good transport links and other amenities.
(v) Fast developing industries and commercial centres in these places, offer high employment opportunities leading to urbanisation.
Hence, except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.

3. Answer in short:

Question a.
Write a comparative note on urbanisation in Brazil and India.
Answer:
(i) Rate of urbanisation in higher in Brazil than in India.
(ii) Growth of urbanisation in India has been slow.
E.g. From 18% in 1961 to 31.2% in 2011.
(iii) Growth of urbanisation in Brazil has been rapid.
E.g. From 47.1% in 1960 to 84.6% in 2010.
(iv) Urbanisation has been more in the southern part than in the Northern part of India.
(v) Urbanisation in Brazil has been more in the coastal states of south and southeast than the states in the interior of the west and north.
(vi) India’s rate of urbanisation has increased continously in a fluctuating rate.
(vii) Brazil’s is rate of urbanisation has increased but in a diminishing rate.

Question b.
Differentiate between the human settlements in the Ganga river basin and the Amazon river basin.
Answer:

S.No	Human settlements in the Ganga river basin	Human settlements in the Amazon river basin
(i)	Nucleated settlements are found in Ganga river basin.	(i) Dispersed settlements are found in Amazon river basin.
(ii)	Flat land, availibality of water, fertile soil,favourable climate is suitable for human settlement.	(ii) Unfavourable        climate,      heavy      rainfall, inaccessibility makes the Amazon river basin unsuitable for human settlement.
(iii)	The above conditions along with a good transport network has helped to flourish agriculture and other industries.	(iii) Due to dense evergreen forests and poor transport facility there are restrictions on the use of natural resources, which have affected economic development.

Question c.
Why do human settlements grow in specific locations only?
Answer:
Human settlements depend on various factors like climate, availability of water, slope of the land, level of development.
In India, nucleated human settlements are found in the Ganga River Basin because of flat fertile plains, abundance of water, favourable climate and growth of agriculture and industries. Dispersed settlements are found in Himalayan slopes, eastern and southern Rajasthan because of uneven topography, unfavourable climate and lack of development.

In Brazil, nucleated settlements are found in Sao Paulo and southern coast of Brazil, due to nearness to the ocean, fertile soil, availability of natural minerals like iron ore, steady power supply and good transportation system. Dispersed settlements are found in Northern Brazil due to the inaccessible forests in Amazon river basin, unhealthy climate, limitations on use of natural resources drought region and poor transport connectivity.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Intext Questions and Answers

Geographical Explanation

Study the two types of settlement patterns in India given in figure (a) and (b) Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Identify the type of settlements?
Answer:
Fig a. Settlement Type is: Nucleated and in Fig. b. Settlement Type is: Linear and Dispersed settlement.

Question 2.
Which one is a nucleated settlement? Why?
Answer:
Fig. a. Shows the image of a Nucleated settlement, because it is a cultivated land and has a centrally located water body.

Question 3.
Which one is a dispersed settlement? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
In Fig. b. dispersed settlement is observed due to unsuitable topography.

Question 4.
Can you guess in which regions are these settlements located in India?
Answer:
Settlement in Fig. a. is located in the north Indian plain, it might be the river Ganga Basin and settlement in the Fig. b. is located in hilly terrain covered with forest and also a road passing through leads to a dispersed settlement.

Think About It

Question 1.
Tell whether settlements shown in images (a) and (b) are urban or rural.


Answer:
The image shown in (a) is urban and The image shown in (b) is rural

Lets Recall

Question 1.
Some amenities and facilities are given here. Tick (✓) in the relevant column and complete the table on the basis of their presence in urban and rural areas or both.
Answer:

S.No	Amentity	Available in Villages	Available in Cities
(1)	Petrol Pump	✓	✓
(2)	Theatre		✓
(3)	Weekly Market	✓
(4)	Primary Health Centre	✓
(5)	Police Outpost	✓	✓
(6)	Art Gallery		✓
(7)	Gram Panchayat	✓
(8)	Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC)	✓
(9)	Primary School	✓	✓
(10)	Senior School		✓
(11)	College		✓
(12)	Shop	✓	✓
(13)	Multi-speciality Hospital		✓
(14)	Metro station		✓
(15)	Bus station	✓	✓
(16)	University		✓

Try This.

Question 1.
In the figure (a) and (b), you can see images of two settlements in Brazil. One is from the Amazon river basin in Brazil while the other belongs to the coastal area. Observe the settlement patterns carefully and name the types of settlement patterns. Write a comment on their density and types.


Answer:
(1) Fig. (a)
Type settlement pattern: Dispersed settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Sparse.
(2) Fig. (b)
Type settlement pattern: Nucleated settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Dense.

Can You Tell

Read the graph below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What was the percentage of urbanisation in 1961?
Answer:
The percentage of urbanisation in 1961 was 18%.

Question 2.
In which decade was urbanisation the highest?
Answer:
Highest urbanisation took place in the decade 1971 -1981.

Question 3.
In which decade was the growth of urbanisation lowest?
Answer:
The growth of urbanisation was lowest in the decade 1961-1971.

Question 4.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971 was of 0.20%

Question 5.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011 was of 5.5%.

Question 6.
What inference can you draw regarding India’s urbanisation after reading the graph?
Answer:
After reading the graph, we can say that urbanisation in India is slowly but continuously rising.

Try This

Look at the table. It shows the growth and share of urban population in total population of Brazil. Draw a line graph from this table. Examine the graph carefully and answer the following questions:
Brazil Percentage of urban population (1960 to 2010)

Answer:

Question 1.
What is the interval of the data?
Answer:
The interval of the data is 10 years.

Question 2.
In which period did urbanisation occur rapidly?
Answer:
Urbanisation occured rapidly in the period 1960 – 1970.

Question 3.
Write five sentences analysing the graph.
Answer:
(i) The graph shows the percentage of urbanisation in Brazil from 1960 to 2010.
(ii) The interval of the data is 10 years.
(iii) Clearly there has been a rapid urbanisation in Brazil.
(iv) The highest urbanisation is seen between 1960 to 1970, when urbanisation grew from 47.1% to 56.8%, a growth of 9.7%.
(v) Urbanisation occurred slowly during the decade from 2000 to 2010, at a growth of 3.1%.

Give It a Try

Question 1.
Prepare a choropleth map showing urban population using the data given in the table below.

S.No.	Urban population percentage category	States /UTs falling in the category
(1)	0-20	Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, Assam and Odisha
(2)	21-40	Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tripura, Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland, Manipur, Uttarakhand, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, A and N Islands, Punjab, Karnataka and M. P.
(3)	41-60	Gujarat, Maharashtra, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram
(4)	61-80	Goa, Puducherry, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep
(5)	81 -100	Chandigarh, NCT of Delhi

Answer:

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Compare the line graph shown in figure and the one drawn by you for Brazil. Write five lines on the changes that have occurred in urbanisation in both the countries, with time.

Answer:
(i) After comparing the graphs of India and Brazil, it is clear that urbanisation in Brazil has been much more rapid as compared to India.

(ii) Urbanisation in Brazil grew from 47.1% in 1960¬70 to 84.6% in 2000-2010. Whereas urbanisation in India grew from 18% in 1961-70 to 31.2% in 2001-2011.

(iii) But Brazil’s rate of urbanisation is showing signs of decline, whereas India’s rate of urbanisation is showing a slow and consistent growth.

(iv) For e.g. the rate of urbanisation in Brazil has decreased from 9.7% in 1960-1970 to 3.1% in 2000¬2010. Whereas the rate of urbanisation in India has increased from 0.2% in 1961-1971 to 3.4% in 2001-2011.

(v) Both Brazil and India are developing countries, but Brazil shows very high urbanisation as compared to India.

Question 2.
Make a short note on the comparison between the settlement patterns in India and Brazil on the basis of the following points:
(i) Location
(ii) Pattern
(iii) Types
(iv) Density
Answer:
India settlement pattern

• Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlements
• Types: Urban
•  Density : High population density

• Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Types: Rural
• Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern

• Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlement
• Types: Urban
• Density : High population density.

• Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Type : Rural
• Density: Low population density

Give It a Try

Question 1.
“Observe the two satellite images given below. Describe the settlements with respect to physiography, Considering the physiography, where could these settllements be located? Find out their settlement pattern and limitations with respect to their future growth.
Answer:
(i) Location : Both satellite images show human settlements in a mountainous region. One settlement is along mountain slope, while the other is on top of a mountain.
(ii) Pattern : Dispersed settlements.
(iii) Future growth : Further growth for human settlements seems difficult. This is mainly because of the hilly terrain and forested land along the mountain slope.

Study the choropleth map of Brazil showing the Statewise urban population of Brazil and answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which state (region) in Brazil is the most urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Sao Paulo, Rio de Janeiro, Goias, Espirito Santo in the southeastern part of Brazil and the port Manaus in the north are the most urbanised.

Question 2.
Which state (region) in the least urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Para, Maranhao and Piaui in northern part of Brazil are the least urbanised states.

Use Your Brain Power

Question 1.
Which factors have affected urbanisation in Brazil?
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rapid urbanisation has taken place in South and South East Coastal regions.
(ii) Being in proximity to the Atlantic Ocean have benefitted these regions immensely in the form of mild climatic conditions.
(iii) Availability of water, fertile soil, natural minerals such as iron ore, good transport system and steady electric supply have positively impacted urbanisation in these parts.
(iv) To the north of the Brazilian Highlands is the rain shadow region of ‘Drought Quadrilateral’ with sparse settlements.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the settlement pattern, urban and rural settlement and urbanisation in India and Brazil.
Answer:

India settlement pattern

• Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlements
• Types: Urban
•  Density : High population density

• Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Types: Rural
• Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern

• Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlement
• Types: Urban
• Density : High population density.

• Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Type : Rural
• Density: Low population density

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
_______ settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India.
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Circular
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by settlers from _______ mainly in coastal areas.
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Europe

Question 3.
Sao paulo has _________ settlements.
(a) isolated
(b) nucleated
(c) scattered
(d) dispersed
Answer:
(b) nucleated

Question 4.
Rural areas of Brazil such as the north east highlands suffer from _____ which make it difficult for practising agriculture.
(a) high rainfall
(b) extreme cold
(c) extreme droughts
(d) extreme heat
Answer:
(c) extreme droughts

Question 5.
Settlements become _____ as we go to the central part of Brazil.
(a) sparse
(b) dense
(c) nucleated
(d) triangular
Answer:
(a) sparse

Question 6.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been ________.
(a) quick
(b) moderate
(c) slow
(d) rapid
Answer:
(c) slow

Question 7.
In India, urbanisation has been more in the _______ part.
(a) Western
(b) Eastern
(c) Northern
(d) Southern
Answer:
(d) Southern

Question 8.
Goa is the most urbanised state in India with _______ urban population.
(a) 92%
(b) 52%
(c) 62%
(d) 82%
Answer:
(c) 62%

Question 9.
_____ is more than 80% urban.
(a) Goa
(b) Gujarat
(c) Delhi
(d) Puducherry
Answer:
(c) Delhi

Question 10.
Today, about ______ of Brazil’s population lives in urban area.
(a) 96%
(b) 66%
(c) 86%
(d) 76%
Answer:
(c) 86%

Question 11.
Looking at the growth in a few parts of the country, the government is promoting “Go _______ ” policy which reduces pressure on other densely populated areas.
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) West
Answer:
(d) West

Question 12.
Urbanisation has occurred more in the _______ states, in Brazil.
(a) inland
(b) coastal
(c) central
(d) north-western
(b) coastal

Question 13.
_________ is a port on the confluence of the Negro and the Amazon rivers, where urbanisation has occurred.
(a) Alagoas
(b) Parana
(c) Manaus
(d) Ceara
(c) Manaus

Find out the correct group :

Question 1.
States of Brazil in having 91% to 100% urban population.
(a) Sao Paulo, Goias, Espirito Santo and Tocantins.
(b) Espirito Santo, Rio De Janeiro, Para and Goias.
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo, Rio De Janeiro.
(d) Sao Paulo, Amapa, Santa Catarina, and Rondonia.
Answer:
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo and Rio De Janeiro.

Question 2.
States of India having less than 20% of Urbanization.
(a) Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan. .
(b) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Puducherry and Nagaland.
(c) Tamil Nadu, Mizoram, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar and Himachal Pradesh.
Answer:
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar, Himachal Pradesh.

Question 3.
Nucleated settlements in India.
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Rajasthan, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Punjab.
(c) Himalayan slopes, East Rajasthan, Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh and Nagaland.
(d) Vindhyan plateau, Paddy lands in Uttar Pradesh, Land with dissected topography and Bihar.
Answer:
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 4.
Dispersed settlements in India.
(a) West coast, West Rajasthan, Paddy lands of Punjab and Mizoram.
(b) Land with dissected topography, South Rajasthan, Vindhya plateau and Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.
(d) Himalayan slopes, Narmada Valley, West Rajasthan and South India.
Answer:
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.

Question 5.
States of India having urbanization between 41% to 60%.
(a) Chandigarh, Daman and Diu, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat and Mizoram.
(c) Jharkhand, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Goa.
(d) Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Uttarakhand, Assam.
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat, Mizoram.

Question 1.
Match the columns:

Column ‘A’		Column ‘B’
(1)	Most urbanised state in India	(a)	Sao Paulo
(2)	Most urbanised state in Brazil	(b)	Goa
(3)	Least urbanised state in India	(c)	Mato Grosso
(4)	Least urbanised	(d)	Himachal Pradesh
	state in Brazil	(e)	Delhi
		(f)	Para

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – f

Are the sentences right or wrong?

Question 1.
India does not have a great tradition of urbanisation.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by the settlers from America.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 3.
North-East Highlands of Brazil suffer from extreme drought.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been very fast, reaching 86% in 2011.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 5.
In underdeveloped countries, the rate of urbanisation is low.
Answer:
Right.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.
Answer:
(i) Sao Paulo is situated in South East coast of Brazil.
(ii) The region has a good water supply.
(iii) It an extensive area under rich fertile soil which is ideal for growing coffee.
(iv) It has a large supply of natural minerals, such as iron ore.
(v) It also has a steady energy supply.
(vi) This region has a good transport system too.
So, Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.

Question 2.
The Brazilian government is promoting ‘Go West’ policy.
Answer:
(i) Brazil is one of the few developing countries which is highly urbanised.
(ii) But urbanisation in Brazil is confined to South and South East.
(iii) For e.g. States like Sao Paulo, Goias, Minas Gerais, Rio De Janeiro have very high urban population.
(iv) Western Brazil continues to remain least urbanised, which is creating regional imbalance.
(v) In order to reduce regional imbalance, the Brazil Government is promoting ‘Go-West Policy’.

10th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Field Visit Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Location and Extent Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Physiography and Drainage Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Climate Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Population Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Economy and Occupations Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tourism, Transport and Communication Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Geography Chapter 9 Question Answer Tourism, Transport and Communication Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Geography Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 10 Chapter 9 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. State whether right or wrong with reasons.

Question a.
The future of tourism is bright in India due to its natural diversity.
Answer:
Right.

Question b.
Tourism is an invisible trade.
Answer:
Right.

Question c.
The indicator of development in a country is the development of transport in that country.
Answer:
Right

Question d.
Brazil’s time is ahead of India’s time.
Answer:
Wrong

Question 5.
The development of tourism in India has begun recently.
Answer:
Right.

2. Answer in short:

Question a.
Which factors attract more tourists in Brazil?
Answer:
The factors which attract more tourists in Brazil are:

• Clean, white sand beaches
• Attractive seacoasts
• Beautiful islands
• Beautiful orchards
• Deep dense forests of Amazon
• Various birds and animals
• Cities like the new capital city of Brasilia, Rio-de- Janeiro and Sao Paulo.
• Eco-tourism

Question b.
What are the difficulties in the development of the railway system in Brazil’s internal areas?
Answer:

• The densely forested lands of Amazon River Basin and the swampy lands have limited the development of railways in Brazil.
• Large pockets of Brazil are unpopulated. Roadways are the most common mode of transportation in the Eastern part of Brazil and waterways have developed on a commercial basis in the Amazon River.
• The trains are used for long distance transportation of passengers only in a few cities and by tourists. These are the difficulties in the development of the railway system in Brazil’s internal areas.

Question 3.
A plane leaves Brasilia at 11 a.m. on 31st December. The plane crosses 0° Meridian and reaches Vladivostok via New Delhi. Tell the local time, date and day at New Delhi and Vladivostok when the plane leaves Brasilia.

Answer:

Time difference between Brasilia and GMT = 3 hours
Time at GMT = 11 a.m.+3 hours
= 2.00p.m.

Time difference between GMT and New Delhi = 5 hours 30 min.
Time at New Delhi = 2 a.m. + 5 hours 30 min.
= 7 hours 30 min.
= 31st December,
Sunday, 7.30 p.m.

Time difference between
New Delhi and Vladivostok = 4 hours 30 min.
Time at Vladivostok = 7.30 p.m. + 4 hours 30 min.
= 12.00 am

The local time, date and day at Delhi are 7 : 30p.m. , 31st December, Sunday
local time, date and day at Vladivostok are 12 am. , 1st January, Monday.

4. Match the following:

Column A’	Column ’B’
(1)  Trans-Amazonian (2) Road Transport (3)  Rio de Janeiro (4) Manmad	(a)       Tourist  Place Highway (b)      Railway Station in India (c)       Golden Quadrilateral (d)      Major Highway (e)       40° W Meridian

Answer:
1 – d
2 – c
3 – a
4 – b

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Eco-tourism is being developed more in Brazil.
Answer:

• Eco-tourism means responsible travel to natural areas without causing damage to the environment.
• Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world including Amazon, the largest rainforest of the world and a great diversity of wild life.
• It has clean white sand beaches, attractive seacoasts, beautiful islands and orchards. Looking at the sensitivity of the natural resources in Brazil, ecotourism is being developed here.

Question b.
The internal waterways are not developed in Brazil.
Answer:

• Most of the rivers in Brazil flow with high speed.
• The amount of discharge of many rivers is very huge.
• In Brazil, rigid topography is found at many places near river basins. Many of the areas near rivers are inaccessible.
• Therefore, internal waterways are not developed in Brazil.

Question c.
A dense network of railways has developed in the North Indian Plains.
Answer:

• The North Indian Plains are flat plain lands with a dense population.
• Due to agricultural development, many agro- based industries have developed here.
• Thus there is a high demand for transportation especially railways for movement of freight and passenger transport.

Question d.
Development of transport is important for the country’s progress.
Answer:

• Transport modes help is the movement of humans, animals and goods from one location to another.
• Transport enables social, economic and cultural development of the country.
• Road transport facilitates door-to-door service.
• Rail transport is suitable for long distance and bulky goods.
• Water transport plays an important role in international trade and suitable for bulky goods.
• Air transport provides the fastest means of transportation.

Question e.
We rely on the sea routes for international trade.
Answer:

• Waterways is the cheapest modes of transportation for bulky and perishable goods over long distances.
• International trade includes import and export of goods.
• India is surrounded by Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and India Ocean, therefore we have a long coastline.
• So we rely on the sea routes for international trade.

6. Differentiate between:

Question a.
Water transport in the Amazon and the Ganga river.
Answer:

Water transport in the Amazon River	Water Transport in the Ganga River
(i) River Amazon is navigable throughout its course due to its gentle slope. (ii) Boats ply from Equitos in Peru to its mouth i.e., approximately 3700 km. (iii) River Amazon is used for navigation between Brazil and neighbouring countries.	(i) River Ganga is navigable only in its middle and lower course which is gentler as compared to its upper course. (ii) Boats ply from Allahabad to Haldia. i.e. approximately 1620 km. (iii) River Ganga is used for inland transportation.

Question b.
Communication in Brazil and India
Answer:

Communication in Brazil	Communication in India
(i) Telecommunication services in Brazil are well developed and efficient. (ii) Brazil is developing technology to send domestically-made satellites into space with its own rockets.	(i) With the explosion of electronic media, telecommunication industry has become one of the fast growing sectors. (ii) With development of our own satellites, India has come a long way in this field.

Question c.
IST and BRT
Answer:

IST	BRT
(i) 1ST is the Indian Standard Time.	(i) BRT is the Brasilia Time/Brazil Time. (Standard Time)
(ii) India has only one standard time zone.	(ii) Brazil has four time zones.
(iii) The official 1ST is based on 82.5° E longitude	(iii) The official BRT is GMT – 03 which passes
which passes through Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh.	through Brasilia.
(iv) 1ST is 5hrs 30mins ahead of Greenwich Meridian	(iv) BRT is 2,3,4, or 5 hrs behind Greenwich Meridian
(v) Time as India is in the eastern hemisphere.	(v) Time as Brazil is in the western hemisphere.

7. Write short notes on:

Question a.
Modem means of communication:
Answer:
(i) Modern means of communication includes landlines as well as mobile services, television broadcasting and computer/internet access.
(ii) In this era of information and communication technology, digitally enhanced communication devices like mobile phones, smart phones, internet and satellites are being used.

Question b.
Air transport in India:
Answer:
(i) Air transport is more developed in India as compared to Brazil.
(ii) The use of international and internal airways is increasing.
(iii) Important airports from where domestic and foreign travel take place are Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru, etc.

Question c.
Correlation between physiography and internal waterways:
Answer:
(i) Internal (Inland) waterways comprises of rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks, etc. which are the cheap means of transportation.
(ii) Deep waters, gentle slopes, absence of rapids and waterfalls and the long course of rivers are favourable factors for development of internal waterways.
(iii) The longest waterways in the world is developed in the Amazon river in Brazil which is navigable for around 3700 kms.
(iv) Perennial river like Ganga in India is navigable in its lower course but the peninsular rivers are not used due to shallow waters, shorter course, seasonal nature, etc.

Question d.
Importance of Standard Time:
Answer:
(i) Standard Time is the official time and is commonly accepted all over the country or region.
(ii) The importance of Standard Time is the most, if the country has a vast longitudinal extent, since there will be a great difference between the time of its places located in the eastern and the western parts.
(iii) It helps in making proper schedules of travel, business meeting, co-ordinating the functioning of various organisations, etc.
(iv) Thus Standard Time helps in avoiding confusion regarding day, date and time.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication Intext Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions on the basis of the map given.

Observe the map carefully and answer the following questions:


Question 1.
Name the terminal points of the North-South Corridor of Golden quadrilateral Highway.
Answer:
North – Srinagar, South – Kanyakumari.

Question 2.
Name the terminal points of East-West corridor Golden Quadrilateral highway.
Answer:
East – Silchar ; West – Porbandar.

Question 3.
Name the three major ports on the western coast.
Answer:
Porbandar, Mumbai and Cochin are the three major ports on the western coast.

Question 4.
Name the three major ports on the eastern coast.
Answer:

1. Chennai
2. Vishakhapatnam and
3. Haldia

Question 5.
(Kolkata) are the three major ports on the eastern coast. Which parts of India have a spare network of road transport route? Give reason.
Answer:
The northernmost part of India in the state of Jammu and Kashmir does not have any national highway or other roadways, because it is a mountainous region.

Observe the given map carefully and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What does the map indicate ?
Answer:
The map indicates the important railway routes and airports of India.

Question 2.
Which part of India has many airports compared to the others?
Answer:
The Southern part of India (i.e.) Peninsular India has many airports compared to the other parts of India.

Question 3.
Which part of India has a dense network of rail routes?
Answer:
North Indian plains region has a dense network of rail routes.

Question 4.
Name the northernmost important railway station.
Answer:
Baramulla is the northernmost important railway station.

Question 5.
Name the easternmost important railway station.
Answer:
Tinsukia is the easternmost important railway station.

Question 6.
Name the two westernmost important railway stations.
Answer:
Okha and Naliya are the two westernmost important railway stations.

Try this

Look at the graph and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which country attracted more international tourists in the year 1995?
Answer:
India attracted more international tourists in the year 1995.

Question 2.
In which country did more international tourists arrive in the year 2000?
Answer:
More international tourists arrived in Brazil in the year 2000.

Question 3.
In which year can an increase be seen in the number of international tourists in India?
Answer:
An increase in the number of international tourists in India can be seen from the year 2010.

Question 4.
What was the number of international tourists in the year 2015 in both the countries? What was the difference between them?
Answer:
The number of international tourists in India in 2015 was approximately 130 lakhs. The number of international tourists in Brazil in 2015 was 60 lakhs. The difference between India and Brazil in the numbers of international tourists in 2015 was 70 lakh people. (130 lakhs – 60 lakhs).

Question 5.
What could be the reason of increase in tourists in India after the year 2010?
Answer:
There is an increase in tourists coming to India after 2010 because :

• Different types of tourism like eco-tourism, health tourism, business tourism, etc. have been promoted by the Indian Government.
• The quality of travel and stay in India has also improved.

Question 6.
Name the kind of graph shown above.
Answer:
Polyline graph.

Can you tell ?

Look at the graph and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What type of graph is shown here?
Answer:
The type of graph shown here is a Joint Bar Graph.

Question 2.
What does the graph show?
Answer:
The graph shows:

• The percentage of population engaged in tourism in Brazil and India in 2016.
• The contribution of tourism in GDP by both the countries in 2016.

Question 3.
Which country’s tourism has a larger share in the contribution towards GDP?
Answer:
Brazil’s tourism has a larger share in the contribution towards GDP.

Question 4.
Which country has a larger population engaged in tourism sector but contributes lesser in GDP?
Answer:
India has a larger population engaged in tourism sector but contributes lesser in GDP terms.

Question 5.
How much percentage of India’s population is engaged in tourism?
Answer:
Nearly 9.5 percentage of Indian population is engaged in tourism.

Question 6.
How much is the contribution of tourism in India’s GDP in 2016? .
Answer:
The contribution of tourism in India’s GDP in 2016 is nearly 8.5 per cent.

Make friends with maps

Study the transport map of Brazil and answer the following.

Question 1.
Which means of transport are seen on the map?
Answer:
All the means of transport like roadways, railways, airways, and waterways are seen on the map.

Question 2.
Which means of transport has a denser network?
Answer:
The roadways have a denser network.

Question 3.
Which highway can be seen prominently? Which places does it join?
Answer:
The Trans Amazonian Highway can be seen prominently. It connects Cruzeiro do sul, Porto Velho, Manaus and Brasilia.

Question 4.
What could be the reason for the development of railways in the South-East?
Answer:
(i) South-east Brazil is the richest and the most populated region of the country.
(ii) Agriculture, mining, and tourism are well developed in this part of Brazil.

Question 5.
In which part of Brazil do you see a lesser development of transport network? What could be the reason?
Answer:
(i) Amazon in the north and Pantanal in the west have lesser development of transport network.
(ii) Amazon in the north due to dense forest cover whereas Pantanal is a swampy land.

Think about it.

Question 1.
Considering the development of transport in a place, which factors do you think are responsible for the development of transport in Brazil? Also, think which means of transport could be used in Brazil given its topography and drainage?
Answer:
Considering the development of transport in a place, the factors that are responsible for the development of transport in Brazil are:

• The physiography, accessibility, population, climatic conditions, availability of power/fuel, funds, etc.
• Roads and ports need to be upgraded.
• Railways are few and competitive. They can be increased in the central part.
• With its topography and drainage Brazil should develop more waterways.

Activity

Look at the transport maps of India and the make friends with maps.

Question 1.
Which means of transport are visible on the map?
Answer:
The means of transport used are roadways and waterways.
The means of transport used are railways and airways.

Question 2.
In which part of India is the density of railways more?
Answer:
The density of railways is more in the Northern Plains region.

Question 3.
Name five important ports and airports of India.
Answer:
Ports: Mumbai ,Vishakhapatanam, Haldia, Chennai and Kandla.
Airports: Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Chennai, and Kolkata.

Question 4.
Which parts of India have a sparse network of transport? What could be the reason?
Answer:
(i) The north and the north-east parts of India have a sparse network of transport.
(ii) Due to mountainous and snow covered areas in the north and the dense inaccesible forest areas of the north-east, the transportation network is sparse here.
(iii) Also these regions have low population and lack of economic opportunities.

Give it a try.

Question 1.
Arun called his mother from Digboi at 7 am. At what local time will his mother pick up his call at Jaisalmer?
Answer:
Arun’s mother will pick his call at 5.00 am. local time at Jaisalmer.

Question 2.
Calculate the difference in time between the two points in minutes.

Westernmost point: Nascente do Rio Moa (07° 32’33″S, 70° 59’W) Easternmost point: Ponta do Seixas, Paraiba (07° 09′ 28″S, 34° 47’W),
Answer:
The difference in time between the Easternmost and the Westernmost part of Brazil is 168 minutes.

Activity

Read the map and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How many divisions can you see in the map?
Answer:
We can see 4 divisions in the map.

Question 2.
What do these divisions signify?
Answer:
These divisions signify the time zones in Brazil.

Question 3.
What does the term ’behind the GMT’ mean?
Answer:
The Greenwich Meridian Time is a time set with reference to 0° longitude that passes through Greenwich. The countries lying to the west of 0° longitude are ’behind the GMT’.

Question 4.
Which part of Brazil is ahead of other?
Answer:
The easternmost part of Brazil is ahead of the other parts.

Question 5.
By how many minutes is this part ahead of others?
Answer:
60 to 180 minutes.

Question 6.
What does the red line in the map show?
Answer:
The red line in the map is the official BRT which is in the GMT-03 time zone. It is 3 hours behind GMT.

Make friends with maps

Study the map given in figure and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Calculate the difference between the two longitudinal extremes of mainland India. Is it more than Brazil?
Answer:
The difference between the two longitudinal extremes of east and west mainland India is about 29°.

Question 2.
Which longitude in India is called the Indian Standard Time (IST)?
Answer:
The 82° 30′ E longitude is called Indian Standard Time (IST)

Question 3.
What is the difference between IST and the GMT?
Answer:
The IST time is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of the GMT.

Question 4.
How many local times are there in India?
Answer:
There are 29 local times.

Question 5.
How much is the time difference between the western most and the eastern most points of India?
Answer:
Two hours, 120 minutes.

Think about it.

Question 1.
It is 12 noon at Delhi. What would be the local time in Brasilia?
Answer:
If it is 12 noon at Delhi, the local time in Brasilia would be 3.30 a.m. This is because Brasilia is 3 hours behind GMT and Delhi is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of GMT. Therefore

Time difference between Brasilia and Delhi is of 8 hours 30 mins (3 hours + 5 hours 30 mins) Time at Delhi = 12 noon
Time at Brasilia = 12 noon – 8 hours 30 mins
= 3.30 a.m.

Use your brain power

Question 1.
Saurabh and Ashwini work for a MNC. Two of their regional head offices are located in Brazil in Rio De Janeiro and Manaus, respectively. Both of them have to contact either of the head offices constantly.
As they have to adjust timings according to their head offices, find out their corresponding timings in India, if they work according to office timings in Brazil, i.e 10 a.m. to 5 p.m.
Answer:
(i) Let us assume Saurabh is coordinating with Rio De Janeiro’s head office and Ashwini is coordinating with the head office of Manaus.
(ii) Brazil has four time zones. It is behind the GMT by 2, 3, 4 or 5 hours.
(iii) Rio De Janeiro is in the 2nd time zone which is 3 hours behind GMT (GMT-03) and Manaus is the 3rd time zone which is 4 hours behind GMT (GMT-04).
(iv) Now, the time difference between GMT and 1ST is of 5 hours 30 mins.
They have to make following adjustments :

Saurabh
Rio De Janeiro	GMT	IST
10 a.m.	1 p.m.	6.30 p.m.
5 p.m.	8 p.m.	1.30 a.m.

Ashwini
Manaus	GMT	IST
10 a.m.	2 p.m.	7.30 p.m.
5 p.m.	9 p.m.	2.30 a.m.

Rio De Janeiro is in the 2nd time zone which is 3 hours behind GMT (GMT-03) and Manaus is the 3rd time zone which is 4 hours behind GMT (G
Corresponding timings in India Saurabh: 6.30 p.m. to 1.30 a.m. Ashwini: 7.30 p.m. to 2.30 a.m.

Give it a try

Question 1.
On what basis will you decide how many standard times should be there in a country?
Answer:
The longitudinal extent of a country will help one decide how many standard times should be there in a country.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 9 Tourism, Transport and Communication Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The new capital city of Brazil is ______.
(a) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Sao Paulo
(c) Manaus
(d) Brasilia
Answer:
(d) Brasilia

Question 2.
A city that attracts a lot of tourists is _______.
(a) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Brasilia
(c) Manaus
(d) Ponta de Seixas
Answer:
(a) Rio de Janeiro

Question 3.
The proportion of the Indian population engaged in tourism is proportionately _____ Brazil.
(a) lower than
(b) higher than
(c) equal to
(d) extremely lesser than
Answer:
(b) higher than

Question 4.
The football stadium at ______ is quite well known
(a) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Manaus
(c) Sao Paulo
(d) Boa Vista
Answer:
(b) Manaus

Question 5.
The most common method of transportation in Brazil is ____.
(a) railways
(b) waterways
(c) roadways
(d) airways
Answer:
(c) roadways

Question 6.
The density of road network in Brazil is concentrated in the ____ part of the country.
(a) southern
(b) northern
(c) western
(d) eastern
Answer:
(d) eastern

Question 7.
The forested lands of the Amazon River basin and the ______ lands have limited the development of roadways in this part of Brazil.
(a) drought-prone
(b) fertile
(c) swampy
(d) semi-arid
Answer:
(c) swampy

Question 8.
Waterways have been developed on a commercial basis in the _____ river.
(a) Amazon
(b) Uruguay
(c) Purus
(d) Aragua
Answer:
(a) Amazon

Question 9.
Boats ply from _____ in Peru to the mouth of the river Amazon.
(a) Lima
(b) Cusco
(c) Equitos
(d) Nazca
Answer:
(c) Equitos

Question 10.
Apart from R. Amazon, another important river for waterways is the ____ Parana river.
(a) south-flowing
(b) north-flowing
(c) east-flowing
(d) west-flowing
Answer:
(a) south-flowing

Question 11.
The contribution of ______ is less in the transportation system of Brazil.
(a) railways
(b) roadways
(c) waterways
(d) airways
Answer:
(d) airways

Question 12.
Railway network is dense in the ______ of India.
(a) hilly states
(b) north-eastern states
(c) central parts of India
(d) north indian plains
Answer:
(b) north-eastern states

Question 13.
Approximately, 95% of foreign trade moves through ______ routes, in India.
(a) road
(b) rail
(c) air
(d) ocean
Answer:
(d) ocean

Question 14.
The westernmost extreme point on mainland Brazil is ______.
(a) Rio Grande
(b) Rio de Janeiro
(c) Nascente do Rio Moa
(d) Ponta do Seixas
Answer:
(c) Nascente do Rio Moa

Question 15.
The easternmost extreme point on mainland Brazil is ______
(a) Rio Grande
(b) Sao Paulo
(c) Ponta do Seixas
(d) Nascente do Rio Moa
Answer:
(c) Ponta do Seixas

Question 16.
Brazil has ______ time zones.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(b) 4

Question 17.
(BRT) Brazil time is _____ hours behind GMT.
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
(d) six
Answer:
(a) three

Question 18.
Today, more than 45% of the Brazilian population has access to the ______.
(a) mobile services
(b) television broadcasting
(c) radio broadcasting
(d) internet
Answer:
(d) internet

Question 19.
The telecommunication infrastructure is fairly modern, particularly in ____ Brazil.
(a) north
(b) north-west
(c) north-east
(d) central-south
Answer:
(d) central-south

Question 20.
______ services in Brazil are well-developed and efficient.
(a) Air
(b) Railway
(c) Helicopter
(d) Telecommunication
Answer:
(d) Telecommunication

Question 21.
With regard to telecommunication infrastructure, the north and ______ are drastically less developed.
(a) south
(b) south-west
(c) north-west
(d) central-south
Answer:
(c) north-west

Question 22.
Over recent years, _______ have led to the rapid expansion of telecommunication services in Brazil.
(a) landline phones
(b) radio broadcasting
(c) television broadcasting
(d) mobile telephones
Answer:
(d) mobile telephones

Question 23.
India has ______ standard time zone/s.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(a) one

Question 24.
The difference between the two extreme most points in India is about _____.
(a) 120 minutes
(b) 210 minutes
(c) 168 minutes
(d) 186 minutes
Answer:
(a) 120 minutes

Question 25.
The difference between the two extreme most points of Brazil is _______.
(a) 186 minutes
(b) 168 minutes
(c) 120 minutes
(d) 200 minutes
Answer:
(b) 168 minutes

Question 26.
The 82°30’E longitude is the Indian Standard Time longitude which passes though ________.
(a) Allahabad
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Muzzaffarabad
Answer:
(a) Allahabad

Question 27.
India is one of the largest users of _______ and internet.
(a) landlines phones
(b) television
(c) radio
(d) smartphones
Answer:
(d) smartphones

Question 28.
About 85% of passenger and 70% of freight traffic are carried by every year in India.
(a) roadways
(b) railways
(c) waterways
(d) airways
Answer:
(a) roadways

Question 29.
______is the official time of Brazil.
(a) GMT-01
(b) GMT-04
(c) GMT-03
(d) GMT-02
Answer:
(c) GMT-03

Question 30.
The prominent highway of Brazil is ________.
(a) Trans Belem Highway
(b) Trans Rio Grande Highway
(c) Trans Amazonian Highway
(d) Trans Brasilia Highway
Answer:
(c) Trans Amazonian Highway

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ’A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The new capital city	(a) Rio de Janeiro
(2) The city attracting a lot of tourist	(b) Manaus
(3) Football stadium	(c) Peru
(4) Beach	(d) Brasilia
(5) Equitos	(e) Sao Paulo
	(f) Boa Vista

Answer:
1 – d
2 – e
3 – b
4 – a
5 – c

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
State the factors that attract foreign tourists towards India.
Answer:
Foreign tourists visit India to see and understand its rich heritage and culture, for adventure, to avail the health services and for business purposes.

Question 2.
What is the kind of service provided by roadways in India?
Answer:
About 85% of passenger traffic and 70% of freight traffic are carried by roadways every year in India.

Question 3.
How important are the inland waterways in India’s transportation?
Answer:
Inland waterways comprising rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks, etc., which contribute about only 1% to India’s transportation.

Question 4.
In what way are the ocean routes useful for India?
Answer:
Approximately 95% of India’s foreign trade moves through ocean routes.

Question 5.
What kind of advanced space technology is Brazil developing?
Answer:
Brazil is developing technology to send domestically-made satellites into space with its own rockets.

Question 6.
Write a short note about the telecommunication infrastructure in different parts of Brazil.
Answer:
The telecommunication infrastructure is fairly modern, particularly in central-south Brazil, but the north and north-west are drastically less developed.

Question 7.
Why have roadways not developed in the north and north-western part?
Answer:
The forested lands of the Amazon River basin and the swampy lands have limited the development of roadways in the north and north-western region.

Question 8.
Which time zone is considered to be the official Brazilian time?
Answer:
GMT-03 Time Zone is considered to be the official Brazilian time.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
The use of railways in Brazil and India.
Answer:

The use of railway in Brazil	The use of railway in India
(i) Railways have not developed very well in Brazil.	(i) Compared to Brazil, India has a denser network of railways.
(ii) The use of trains for long distance transportation is restricted to a few urban tourist routes though it is cheaper.	(ii) Freight and passenger transport have been facilitated due to the development of the railways, which are considered very important for the growth of Indian economy.
(iii) Dense network of railways have developed in south and south-east Brazil as compared to other parts of Brazil.	(iii) Dense network of railways have developed in the North-Indian Plains as compared to other parts of India.

Question 2.
The longitudinal extent of India and Brazil
Answer:

The longitudinal extent of Brazil	The longitudinal extent of India
(i) Extreme westernmost point: Nascente do Rio Moa. (70°59’W)	(i) Extreme westernmost point : Ghuar Mota. (70°E)
(ii) Extreme easternmost point: Ponta do Seixas.(34047′ w)	(ii) Extreme easternmost point: Kibithu. (97°E)
(iii) Time difference is 168 minutes approximately 2 hrs 48 minutes.	(iii) Time difference is 120 minutes on mainland i.e., approximately 2 hrs.
(iv) There is a vast time difference between the extreme most points of Brazil due to vast longitudinal extent.	(iv) There is comparatively less time difference between the extreme points of India.

Question 3.
The density of roadways in Brazil and India.
Answer:

The density of roadways in Brazil	The density of roadways in India
(i) Roadways account for more than half of the transportation system in the country.	(i)    As compared to Brazil, India has a denser network of transport. About 85% of passenger and 70% of freight traffic are carried by road every year.
(ii) Density of road network is high in the eastern	(ii) Density of road network is high in the North
part of the country.	Indian Plains in the northern part of India.

Question 1.
Mark the following on an outline map of Brazil. Name the following:

1. The new capital city of Brazil.
2. Two cities that attract a lot of tourist.
3. A south-flowing river important for waterways.
4. The easternmost extreme point of mainland Brazil.
5. The westernmost extreme point part of mainland Brazil.

Answer:

Question 2.
Show the following on a given outline map of Brazil.
Given index:

(A) Ports:

• Vitoria
• Manaus

(B) Airports:

• Brasilia
• Campo Grande

(C) Railway Junctions:

• Sao Paulo
• Rio de Janeiro

Answer:

Question 3.
Show the following on a given outline map of India. Give index:
Given index:
(A) Ports:

• Chennai
• Porbandar
• Kochin
• Kandla
• Kolkata

(B) Airports :

• Bengaluru
• Delhi
• Pune
• Thiruvananthapuram

(C) Railway Junctions :

• Mumbai
• Itarsi
• Kota
• Nagpur

Answer:

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
India’s contribution of tourism to its GDP appears lesser than Brazil and population engaged seems higher.
Answer:
(i) The number of international tourists visiting India in 2015 was more than that of Brazil.
(ii) Even though this is true, the share of tourism sector in the GDP is less than that of Brazil.
(iii) Apart from this, the proportion of Indian population engaged in tourism is higher than that of Brazil.
(iv) This is primarily dependent on the size of the population of those countries and the size of the GDP.
(v) According to the data available, the population of India is more than Brazil and so is its GDP.
(vi) As the GDP of India is higher than Brazil’s GDP to GDP appears lesser than Brazil’s and population engaged seems higher.

Question 2.
Railways are important for the growth of the Indian economy.
Answer:
(i) Railways are very important for a vast country like India where the distance between places is long.
(ii) Freight and passenger transport have been facilitated due to the development of the railways.
(iii) The more the facilities available for passenger transport and freight transport, the more growth in the economy.
Thus, the railways are very important for the Indian economy’s growth.

Question 3.
Brazil’s time is not ahead of India’s time.
Answer:
(i) The GMT i.e, Greenwich Mean Time, divides the globe into eastern and western hemisphere.
(ii) India lies to the east of GMT and Brazil lies to the West of GMT.
(iii) Places lying to the east of GMT, are ahead of time and places lying to the west of GMT (like Brazil) are behind time.

Question 4.
The future of tourism is bright in India.
Answer:
(i) India is rich in natural beauty that includes mountains, forests, plateaus, plains, islands, coastal areas, beaches, etc.
(ii) India also has a rich heritage and a huge variety of cultural and historical attractions.
(iii) In recent years new forms of tourism have been developed in India like Eco tourism, Agro tourism, Medical tourism, Film tourism, etc.
(iv) Also infrastructural facilities, branding and marketing initiatives have helped to promote Indian tourism.
So the future of tourism is bright in India.

Question 5.
Tourism is an invisible trade.
Answer:
(i) Tourism belongs to the service sector as various services are provided to the tourists.
(ii) For e.g., hotels, lodges, transport, food, entertainment, etc.
(iii) Tourism increase the GDP of economy without exchange of goods.
Thus, tourism is an invisible trade.

Question 6.
he indicator of development in a country is the development of transport in that country.
Answer:
(i) Transportation facilitates trade and creates employment opportunities.
(ii) With the development of transport there is socio-economic and cultural development of the country.
Hence it is an indicator of development in a country.

10th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Field Visit Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Location and Extent Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Physiography and Drainage Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Climate Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Population Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Economy and Occupations Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tourism, Transport and Communication Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 10 Geography Chapter 2 Question Answer Location and Extent Maharashtra Board

Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Location and Extent Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 10 Chapter 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Are the sentences right or wrong. ? Rewrite the wrong ones

Question a.
Brazil is mainly located in the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer:
Right

Question b.
Tropic of Capricorn passes through the middle of India.
Answer:
Wrong. Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of India.

Question c.
The longitudinal extent of Brazil is less than India.
Answer:
Wrong. The longitudinal extent of Brazil is more than India.

Question d.
Equator passes through the northern part of Brazil.
Answer:
Right

Question e.
Brazil has a coastline along the Pacific Ocean.
Answer:
Wrong. Brazil has a coastline along the Atlantic. Ocean.

Question f.
Pakistan is a neighbouring country to the south east of India.
Answer:
Wrong. Pakistan is neighbouring a country to the north west of India.

Question g.
The southern part of India is called Peninsula.
Answer:
Right.

2. Answer in brief:

Question a.
What problems did Brazil and India face after independence?
Answer:
(i) India was under the British rule for almost one- and-a-half centuries and it got its independence in the year 1947.
(ii) It faced several problems like three wars, famine situations in various parts and similar issues after independence.
(iii) Brazil gained its independence in 1822 after more than three centuries of Portuguese rule.
(iv) From 1930 to 1985, for more than a half century, it was under a populist military government and it faced global financial difficulties in the late 20th century.
Thus, both India and Brazil faced many problems post-independence.

Question b.
How are Brazil and India different from each other in terms of location?
Answer:
(i) India is located in the northern hemisphere of the earth whereas some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere and most of it lies in the southern hemisphere.
(ii) India entirely lies in the eastern hemisphere whereas, Brazil lies in the western hemisphere.
(iii) India lies in the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the continent of South America.
(iv) India lies in the southern part of the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the northern part of South American continent.

Question c.
Describe the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The extent of the mainland India is 8°4’N to 37°6’N latitudes and between 68°7’E to 97°25’E longitudes.
(ii) Indira Point is the southernmost tip of India.
(iii) It is located on 6°45’N parallel.
(iv) The extent of the mainland Brazil is 5°15’N to 33°45′ S latitudes and between to 34°47’W to 73°48’W longitude.

Select the correct option

Question a.
India’s southernmost point is known as __________.
(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira Point
(d) Port Blair
Answer:
(c) Indira Point

Question b.
These two countries in South America do not share their border with Brazil?
(a) Chile – Ecuador
(b) Argentina – Bolivia
(c) Columbia – French Guiana
(d) Surinam – Uruguay
Answer:
(a) Chile – Ecuador

Question c.
Both the countries have _________ type of government.
Military
(b) Republic
Communist
(d) Presidential
Answer:
(b) Republic

Question d.
Which of the following shapes show the coastal part of Brazil correctly?

Answer:

Question e.
Which of the following shapes show the coastal part of India Correctly?

Answer:

Question f.
Considering hemisphere, which shape correctly represents the hemisphere in which India lies?

Answer:

Question g.
Considering the hemisphere, which correctly represents the hemisphere in which Brazil mainly lies?

Answer:

Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Location and Extent Intext Questions and Answers

Colours of both
Answer the following questions with respect to the countries that you have studied.

Question 1.
Out of the countries that you have coloured, which country is larger in size?
Answer:
Brazil is larger in size.

Question 2.
Which country has a larger latitudinal extent?
Answer:
Brazil has a larger latitudinal extent.

Question 3.
How do the locations of Brazil and India differ in terms of their positions in their respective continents?
Answer:
Brazil lies in the northern part of the continent of South America, whereas India lies in the southern part of the continent of Asia.

Question 4.
How many states does each of the two countries have?
Answer:
Brazil has 26 states and one federal district. India has 28 states and 8 union territories.

Question 5.
Obtain information regarding the emblems of both the countries, i.e. India and Brazil.
Answer:
India:
The national emblem of India is an adaptation of the Lion capital of Ashoka at Sarnath. The emblem has three lions visible, the fourth being hidden from the view. The four lions symbolise power, courage, confidence and pride. At the bottom is a horse and a bull, and its centre is a wheel (Dharma Chakra). Forming an integral part of the emblem is the motto inscribed in Devanagari Script: Satyameva Jayate (Truth Alone Triumphs)

Brazil:
The national emblem of Brazil is coat of arms shows the Southern cross in a blue circle. The ring of 27 stars around it represents Brazil’s 26 states and the Federal District. The whole is placed on a star and surrounded by coffee (at the left) and tobacco (at the right), which are the important crops in Brazil. The blue ribbon contains the official name of Brazil (Republica Federativa Do Brazil – Federative Republic of Brazil) in the first line. In the second, the date of the federative republic’s establishment (November 15, 1889) is written.

Give it a try.

Question 1.
The imperial power which ruled Brazil also ruled a part of India. Find out when that part of India achieved independence?
Answer:
Answer: In India, Goa, Diu and Daman, Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under Portuguese rule. These regions got independence on 19th December 1961.

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1)      Dance form of Brazil (2)      Capital of India (3)      Capital of Brazil (4)      Coffee pot of world	(a)     Brazil (b)     Samba (c)     New Delhi (d)     Brasilia (e)     Bangladesh (f)     Myanmar

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Country to the south of Brazil	(a) China
(2) Sea to the west of India	(b) Uruguay
(3) Second largest populated country	(c) Arabian sea
(4) Coffee pot of the world Imperial power ruled Brazil	(d) India
	(e) Portuguese
	(f) Japan

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which is the second largest populated country in the world?
Answer:
India is the second-largest populated country in the world.

Question 2.
Which country is called the ‘coffee pot’ of the world’?
Answer:
Brazil is called the coffee pot of the world.

Question 3.
Which dance form is famous in Brazil?
Answer:
Samba is the famous dance form of Brazil.

Question 4.
Name the capital of India?
Answer:
The capital of India is New Delhi.

Question 5.
When did India gain Independence?
Answer:
India got independence on 15th August 1947.

Question 6.
When did Brazil gain independence?
Answer:
Brazil gained its independence on 7th September 1822.

Question 7.
Which countries are located to the north of Brazil?
Answer:
Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname and French Guiana are situated to the north of Brazil

Question 8.
Which countries are located to the west of Brazil?
Answer:
Colombia, Peru, Bolivia, Paraguay and Argentina are situated to the west of Brazil.

Question 9.
Which country is situated to the south of Brazil?
Answer:
Uruguay is situated to the south of Brazil.

Question 10.
Which ocean lies to the east of Brazil?
Answer:
The North and South Atlantic Ocean lies to the east of Brazil.

Question 11.
Which countries are situated to the east of India?
Answer:
Myanmar and Bangladesh are situated to the east of India.

Question 12.
Which countries are situated to the north of India?
Answer:
China, Bhutan and Nepal are situated to the north of India.

Question 13.
Which sea lies to the west of India?
Answer:
Arabian sea lies to the west of India.

Question 14.
Which countries lie to the south of India?
Answer:
Srilanka, Maldives and Indonesia lie to the south of India.

Question 15.
What is the location of the southernmost tip of India?
Answer:
The location of the southernmost tip of India (Indira Point) is 6°45′ N parallel.

Question 16.
According to the equator, in which hemisphere is Brazil located?
Answer:
Some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere, while most of it lies in the southern hemisphere.

Question 17.
In which hemispheres is India located?
Answer:
India is located in the northern and eastern hemispheres.

Question 18.
What type of government does Brazil have today?
Answer:
Today, Brazil has Federal Presidential Republic type of government.

Question 19.
What type of government does India have today?
Answer:
Today, India has Federal Parliamentary Republic type of government.

Question 20.
Where does the name Brazil come from?
Answer:
The name Brazil comes from ‘Pau Brasil’, a local wooded tree.

Question 21.
Who established the early settlement in Brazil?
Answer:
The Portuguese settlers established the early settlement in Brazil.

Question 22.
Distinguish between: Location of India and Brazil
Answer:

India	Brazil
(i) India is located at 8°4’N to 37°6’N latitude and between 68°7’E to 97°25’E longitudes.	(i) Brazil is located at 5°15’N to 33°45’S latitudes and between 34°47’W to 73°48’W.
(ii) It is located in the northern and eastern hemispheres.	(ii) Some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere, while most of it lies in the southern hemisphere. Brazil also lies in the western hemisphere.
(iii) India is located in the southern part of the Asian continent.	(iii) Brazil is located in the northern part of South American continent.

Question 23.
Find the difference between the post-independence characteristics of India and Brazil.
Answer:

Brazil	India
(i) Brazil gained its independence in 1822. From 1930 to 1985, for more than half a century, it was under a populist military government. Presently, Brazil has Federal Presidential Republic type of government	(i) India got its independence in the year 1947. It has Federal Parliamentary Republic type of government.
(ii) The proportion of older people that is non – working population is high.	(ii) The proportion of youth, i.e. working population is high.
(iii )It has overcome global financial difficulties in the late 20th century	(iii) It has faced several problems like three wars, famine situations in various parts and similar issues after independence.
(iv) Sex ratio and literacy rate is high in Brazil.	(iv) Sex ratio and literacy rate is low in India.

Observe the map and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Identify the countries and water bodies around India and complete the following table.


To the North
To the East
To the South
To the West
Answer:

No.	Directions	Neighbouring Countries/ Oceans
(1)	North	China, Bhutan, Nepal
(2)	South	Indian Ocean, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Indonesia
(3)	East	Myanmar, Bangladesh, Bay of Bengal
(4)	West	Arabian Sea, Pakistan, Afghanistan

Question 2.
Identify Brazil’s neighbouring countries and oceans. Complete the following table.


(a) To the North
(b) To the South
(c) To the East
(d) To the West
Answer:

No.	Directions	Neighbouring Countries	Oceans
(1)	North	Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname, French Guiana	North Atlantic Ocean
(2)	South	Uruguay	South Atlantic Ocean
(3)	East		South Atlantic Ocean
(4)	West	Peru, Bolivia, Paraguay, Colombia, Argentina

Question 3.
Show the following on an outline of the world map.
(a) Name all the continents and oceans of the world.
(b) Colour Brazil and India using different colours and name them.
(c) Draw equator on the map and write its value in degrees.
(d) Show the symbol for direction.
Answer:

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Brazil is called the ‘coffee pot of the world’.
Answer:
(i) Brazil ranks first in the world in the terms of production of coffee.
(ii) It produces nearly 40% of the total coffee production in the world.
(iii) It is the largest exporter of coffee.
Therefore, Brazil is called the ‘coffee pot of the world’.

Question 2.
Brazil is known as the country having third longest land border.
Answer:
(i) Brazil has the world’s third longest land border, after China and Russia.
(ii) It shares its boundaries with all South American countries, except Chile and Ecuador, totalling 16,885 Kilometers.
(iii) Brazil has borders with 10 different countries, which are Argentina, Bolivia, Colombia, French Guiana, Guyana, Paraguay, Peru, Suriname, Uruguay and Venezuela.
(iv) Hence, Brazil is called the country having third longest land borders.

Question 3.
India is looked upon as a young country.
Answer:
(i) The proportion of youth in India’s population is high.
(ii) This forms a major part of the working population.
(iii) According to 2011 census the percentage of working population is more than 50 %.
(iv) Hence, India is looked upon as a young country.

Question 4.
India’s economic development has paced up. OR India is considered as a major global market.
Answer:
(i) Despite facing several problems after independence, today India is a major developing country of the world.
(ii) It is because of various reforms from time to time, that India’s economic development has paced up.
(iii) So, it is considered to be a global market.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What problems did Brazil and India face after independence?
Answer:
(i) India was under the British rule for almost one-and-a-half centuries and it got its independence in the year 1947.
(ii) It faced several problems like three wars, famine situations in various parts and similar issues after independence.
(iii) Brazil gained its independence in 1822 after more than three centuries of Portuguese rule.
(iv) From 1930 to 1985, for more than a half century, it was under a populist military government and it faced global financial difficulties in the late 20th century.
Thus, both India and Brazil faced many problems post-independence.

Question 2.
How are Brazil and India different from each other in terms of location?
Answer:
(i) India is located in the northern hemisphere of the earth whereas some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere and most of it lies in the southern hemisphere.
(ii) India entirely lies in the eastern hemisphere whereas, Brazil lies in the western hemisphere.
(iii) India lies in the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the continent of South America.
(iv) India lies in the southern part of the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the northern part of South American continent.

Question 3.
Describe the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The extent of the mainland India is 8°4’N to 37°6’N latitudes and between 68°7’E to 97°25’E longitudes.
(ii) Indira Point is the southernmost tip of India.
(iii) It is located on 6°45’N parallel.
(iv) The extent of the mainland Brazil is 5°15’N to 33°45′ S latitudes and between to 34°47’W to 73°48’W longitude.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Location and Extent Additional Important Questions and Answers

Name the following:
Question 1.
The second-largest populated country in the world.
Answer:
India

Question 2.
The country is famous for its spices in the world.
Answer:
India

Question 3.
The country is known as the ‘coffee pot’ of the world.
Answer:
Brazil

Question 4.
The famous dance form of Brazil.
Answer:
Samba

Question 5.
Hemispheres in which India is located.
Answer:
Northern and eastern hemispheres.

Question 6.
A continent in which India is located.
Answer:
Asia

Question 7.
The latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
8°4’N to 37°6’N

Question 8.
The longitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
68°7’E to 97°25’E

Question 8.
Foreign power which ruled Brazil for more than three centuries.
Answer:
Portuguese.

Question 9.
Independence day of Brazil.
Answer:
7th September 1822.

Question 10.
Type of Government in Brazil from 1930 to 1985.
Answer:
Populist Military Government.

Question 11.
The latitudinal extent of Brazil.
Answer:
5°15’N to 33°45’S.

Question 12.
The longitudinal extent of Brazil.
Answer:
34°47’W to 73°48’W

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The second largest populated country in the world is _________.
(a) China
(b) Brazil
(c) India
(d) Russia
Answer:
(c) India

Question 2.
Brazil is famous for ________ type of dance form.
(a) Salsa
(b) Samba
(c) Ballet
(d) Tango
Answer:
(b) Samba

Question 3.
The country known as the ‘coffee pot’ of the world is _______.
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(a) Brazil

Question 4.
India is located in the ________ part of the Asian continent.
(a) southern
(b) northern
(c) northeastern
(d) western
Answer:
(a) southern

Question 5.
Brazil gained independence in _______.
(a) 1890
(b) 1980
(c) 1822
(d) 1820
Answer:
(c) 1822

Question 6.
Capital of Brazil is _______.
(a) Kabul
(b) Kaula Lumpur
(c) Brasilia
(d) Monaco
Answer:
(c) Brasilia

Question 7.
Capital of India is _____.
(a) Patna
(b) New Delhi
(c) Dispur
(d) Chandigarh
Answer:
(b) New Delhi

Question 8.
India was under ___ rule for almost one and a half-century.
(a) Portuguese
(b) African
(c) Russian
(d) British
Answer:
(d) British

Question 9.
For more than a half-century, Brazil was under a _____ government.
(a) Populist military
(b) Monarchy
(c) Constitutional government
(d) Dictatorial
(a) Populist military

Question 10.
Most part of the of mainland Brazil lies in the ______ hemisphere.
(a) northern
(b) southern
(c) eastern
(d) northwestern
Answer:
(b) southern

Question 11.
Brazil was ruled by ______ imperial power which also ruled a part of India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) British
(c) Indonesia
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(a) Portuguese

10th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

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• Physiography and Drainage Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Climate Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Class 10 Geography Questions And Answers
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