Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Human Occupations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Human Occupations

Class 6 Geography Chapter 10 Human Occupations Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Select the correct option:

Question 1.
Serving as a ______ is a tertiary type of occupation.(bus conductor, veterinary doctor, brick kiln worker)
Answer:
bus conductor

Question 2.
In the tropical areas, we mainly see ________ occupations. (primary; secondary, tertiary)
Answer:
primary

Question 3.
Amol’s Granny sells papads and pickles. This is a _______ occupation. (primary, secondary, tertiary)
Answer:
secondary

B. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The type of occupation determines a person’s
income.
Answer:
(i) Occupation is a job, a person’s role in society wherein a regular activity is carried out for income.

(ii) Certain occupations bring greater economic benefits to the society and the nation at large while certain occupations bring relatively less economic benefits.

(iii) Similarly some occupations require higher level of knowledge and skill while some can be carried out with little or no skill or expertise. Person’s income is proportionate to the economic benefit his occupation brings with it and the land of his knowledge and skill. So the type of occupation determines a person’s income.

Question 2.
Primary occupations are associated with developing countries while tertiary, with developed countries.
Answer:
(i) Countries which are developing have low income as they are in a state of development and their main source of income comes from production carried out in primary sector.

(ii) Developed countries are rich with high income and so they practice tertiary occupation. They have enough money to invest in business which creates tertiary occupations which requires huge investment.

Question 3.
Quaternary occupations are not commonly seen.
Answer:
Quaternary occupations are occupations which require special knowledge, skills and expertise. This sectorevolves in well-developed countries and requires skilled workforce apart from sufficient money to invest in fields like IT, research and development, quality testing, etc.

Activity:

• Visit a secondary occupation in your area.
• Gather information related to that occupation
• using the following points and note it down.
• Name of the occupation
• Raw material used
• Source of raw material
• Finished product
• Market for finished product
• Tertiary occupations required in it.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 10 Human Occupations InText Questions and Answers

Look at the figure and answer the following questions:




Question 1.
What are the cows and buffaloes in picture A doing?
Answer:
The animals, cows and buffaloes are grazing in the pasture, i.e. land covered with grass and other low plants.

Question 2.
What is being obtained in picture B?
Answer:
Milk is being obtained in picture B.

Question 3.
What is happening at the Milk Collection Centre in picture C?
Answer:
Milk is being filled for storage and sold at the milk collection centre.

Question 4.
In picture D, what is being transported? Where could the tanker be going?
Answer:
Milk is being transported to the milk processing centre. The tanker is on the truck

Question 5.
Which products are seen in picture E? From what have these products been made?
Answer:
Curd, ghee, butter, cheese and shrikhand are the products seen in picture E and these products have been made from milk.

Question 6.
What else is happening in picture E?
Answer:
In picture E, person is testing the quality of the prepared milk products.

Question 7.
Out of the products shown in picture F, which products do you use?
Answer:
I use all the products shown in picture F as milk products are high on nutrients and good for health.

Question 8.
What would be main difference between milk and milk products?
Answer:
Milk is a beverage obtained from nature, directly from different animals. While milk products are obtained by processing milk into different products.

Question 9.
Do these products perish quickly like milk?
Answer:
No, they have a longer life unlike milk.

Look at the figure and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which of these activities is undertaken to obtain a product from nature?
Answer:
Obtaining milk from the cow is the activity undertaken to obtain a product from nature.

Question 2.
How long does this product last?
Answer:
If refrigerated it will last for about five days to one week.

Question 3.
In which picture is the product obtained from nature being collected?
Answer:
In picture C, the product obtained from nature is being collected.

Question 4.
Which service did the milk producer get through this activity?
Answer:
Transport and unloading of milk, a tertiary service is the service which the milk producer received.

Question 5.
Where is milk being taken? What happens to the milk thereafter?
Answer:
The milk is being taken to the milk processing centre for processing milk to make milk products.

Question 6.
What milk products are seen in the picture?
Answer:
Ghee, butter, cheese, shrikhand are the products seen in the picture.

Question 7.
Who inspects these products?
Answer:
A food inspector, a person with special skill and expertise inspects these products.

Question 8.
What does the shopkeeper do with these products?
Answer:
The shopkeeper sells these products to the consumer.

Question 9.
Which of these products are perishable and which are non- perishable?
Answer:
All are the products, even after proper storage will deteriorate and perish over a period of time.

Question 10
Will the price and weight of these products be same as that of the milk?
Answer:
The price and weight of these products will be higher after processing. These products will be more durable and its quality too will be enhanced and so their price will be also higher.

Use your brainpower!

Question 1.
Milk is available at ₹ 40 per litre while dahi at ₹ 60 per kg and paneer at ₹ 200 per kg. If both are obtained from milk, why is there so much difference in their prices?
Answer:
Milk is being processed, obtained from nature and made it into different products. These products are more durable. Their quality its enhanced and therefore their price is higher.

Answer the following questions based on the pie charts:

Question 1.
Which country has more manpower engaged in primary occupation?
Answer:
Bangladesh.

Question 2.
Which country has more manpower engaged in secondary occupation?
Answer:
Turkey.

Question 3.
Which country has more manpower engaged in tertiary occupations?
Answer:
United Arab Emirates.

Question 4.
Which country has almost equal manpower engaged in all the occupations?
Answer:
Turkey.

Think a little!

Who am I?

Question 1.
Who examines us when we fall ill?
Answer:
Doctor

Question 2.
Who checks our examination papers?
Answer:
Teacher

Question 3.
Who prepares the designs of buildings?
Answer:
Architect

Question 4.
Who produces machines and looks after their maintenance and repairs?
Answer:
Engineer

Observe figure and answer the questions related to sugar production:



Question 1.
Classify the occupations from primary to quaternary
Answer:

Primary	Secondary	Tertiary	Quaternary
Harvesting of sugarcane	Sugarcane being collected at factory	Transport of sugarcane	Quality check
	Processing of sugarcane juice	Sacks of sugar being canned	Inspection and maintenance of machinery in the factory
	Sugar production	Sale of goods

Question 2.
Which raw material is used in the secondary occupation?
Answer:
Sugarcane is the raw material used in the secondary occupation.

Question 3.
Which is the finished product obtained in the secondary occupation?
Answer:
Sugar is the finished product obtained in the secondary occupation.

Question 4.
What are the services in tertiary occupations?
Answer:
Transport of sugarcane, sacks of sugar being carried and sales of goods are the services in tertiary occupations.

Question 5.
Which picture is related to a quaternary occupation? Can you name the occupation?
Answer:
Picture G is related to a quaternary occupation. The occupation is quality testing.

Think and discuss:

What effect does nature have on our occupations? Think a little. Give a thought to the following issues. Discuss them in the class. Write two paragraphs about it.

• There have been no rain at all (drought).
• A storm strikes
• There was an earthquake.
• Untimely rains
• Good rains
• Excessive rains and floods
• All of a sudden, a volcano erupts
• A tsunami hits.

Answer:
Primary occupations like agriculture can be totally disrupted if there are no rains or excessive rains while good rains will usher with good agricultural output. When we receive good agricultural yield it will have a positive input on all secondary occupations which rely on agriculture. It will bring about all-round growth in both agricultural and industrial sector.

Natural calamities like storms, earthquake, volcanoes and tsunami can have adverse impact on various occupations. It can bring all the primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary occupations to a standstill. Occupations related to production, storage, distribution, etc. will be greatly affected as rescue and rehabilitation of the people and reconstruction of the damaged caused, becomes a priority.

Do it yourself!

Question 1.
Which occupations are found in your area?
Answer:
I live in Maharashtra and occupations like textile manufacture, manufacture of sugar, pharmaceutical, petrochemicals, electronics, automobiles, engineering services, food processing, etc. are practised here.

Question 2.
Which occupation is practised on a large scale?
Answer:
Sugar manufacturing is an occupation which is practised on a large scale.

Question 3.
Find the reason behind it.
Answer:
Advantageous location of Maharashtra, progressive government policies, availability of raw material, i.e. sugarcane, good infrastructure and above all the ownership given to farmers in sugar factories are the reasons why this occupation is practised on a large scale.

Question 4.
Both human and natural factors affect occupations. Can you find those factors?
Answer:
Development of industries, availability of technical know-how and skilled manpower, existing labour laws and government policies pertaining to occupations development of infrastructure are the human factors that affect occupations.
Climate, terrain of a region, fertility of soil, susceptibility to natural calamities, availability of raw materials, etc. are the natural factors which affect occupations.

Question 5.
Obtain information about the damage caused to the environment through different occupations.
Answer:
Pollution of the environment in all its form – air, water, soil and land, deforestation, soil erosion, depletion of the ozone layer, etc. are some of the damages caused due to different occupations practised.

While practising occupations we should be careful not be cause of hazardous air emissions, land contamination leading to soil pollution, marine and coastal pollution caused due to untreated waste water, etc. Sustainable development, let us remember should be the need of the hour.

Visit a secondary occupation in your area gather information related to that occupation using the following points and note it down:
Answer:

Name of the occupation	Pharmaceutical manufacturing.
Raw material used	Animal extracts, herbal extracts, additives like glaze, talc, etc. and chemical substances.
Sources of raw material	From different parts of India, some raw materials are imported from other countries.
Finished products	Medicine and other pharma products.
Market of finished products	National and international markets including US, UK, Australia, Russia, Germany, etc.
Tertiary occupations	Transport of goods, loading and unloading of goods and sale of goods.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 10 Human Occupations Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following statements by choosing the correct options:

Question 1.
Occupations which are dependent on nature are called _______ occupations. (secondary, primary, tertiary)
Answer:
primary

Question 2.
Processed products are ________.(non-perishable, more durable, less durable)
Answer:
more durable

Question 3.
Occupations dependent on primary occupations are called ______ occupations. (primary, secondary, quaternary)
Answer:
secondary

Question 4.
The occupations which provide complimentary services to the other two occupations are called _________ occupations. (tertiary, secondary, primary)
Answer:
tertiary

Question 5.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in _______ activities are considered to be developed countries. (primary , secondary, tertiary)
Answer:
tertiary

Question 6.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in primary activities are considered to be _____ countries. (developed, developing, under developed)
Answer:
developing

Question 7.
transactions decide the country’s ______.(production, occupation, manpower)
Answer:
primary

Arrange the following in proper order:

• Selling milk products in the market.
• Obtaining milk and selling milk.
• Processing milk at milk processing centres.
• Rearing of domestic animals.
• Making ghee, butter, cheese, shrikhand, paneer, milk powder, etc.

Answer:

• Rearing of domestic animals.
• Obtaining milk and selling milk.
• Processing milk at milk processing centre.
• Making ghee, butter, cheese, shrikhand, paneer, milk powder, etc.
• Selling milk products in the market.

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Animal husbandry and fishing	(a) secondary occupation
(2) Processing of milk	(b) tertiary occupation
(3) Transport of goods	(c) quaternary occupation
(4) Quality testing of product	(d) primary occupation
(5) Transaction of the country	(e) economic transactions
	(f) production

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – b
4 – c
5 – f

Name the following:

Question 1.
Any two products obtained after processing milk at milk processing centre:
Answer:

1. Butter
2. Cheese

Question 2.
Any two animals domesticated by man:
Answer:

1. Cow
2. Buffalo

Question 3.
Occupation which is directly dependent on nature:
Answer:
Primary occupations.

Question 4.
Occupations dependent on primary occupations:
Answer:
Secondary occupations.

Question 5.
Occupations which provide complementary services to primary and secondary occupations:
Answer:
Tertiary occupations.

Question 6.
Occupations like sale of goods
Answer:
Tertiary occupations or service occupations

Question 7.
Occupations which requires special expertise:
Answer:
Quaternary occupations.

Question 8.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in tertiary activities:
Answer:
Developed countries.

Question 9.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in primary activities:
Answer:
Developing countries.

Complete the table:

Occupations	Definition	Examples
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary

Answer:

Occupations	Definition	Examples
Primary	Occupation which directly depend on nature are called primary occupations.	Farming, animal husbandry, mining, foresting, fishing.
Secondary	Occupations dependent on primary occupations are called secondary occupations.	Food processing, manufacturing, construction.
Tertiary	Occupations which provide complementary services to primary and secondary occupations are called tertiary occupations.	Transport of goods, commercial services, loading and unloading goods, sale of goods.
Quaternary	The occupations which requires special expertise and special skills are called quaternary occupations.	Quality testing of food products, inspection and maintenance., IT.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Why does man undertake various activities?
Answer:
Man undertakes various activities to satisfy his need.

Question 2.
How are activities undertaken by man classified?
Answer:
Activities undertaken by man are classified on the basis of their nature and the products they yield.

Question 3.
Where are raw materials supplied to the industries often obtained from?
Answer:
Raw materials supplied to the industries are often obtained from nature.

Question 4.
Which occupations require special skills and expertise?
Answer:
Quaternary occupations requires special skills and expertise.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Why are the prices of processed milk products higher?
Answer:

• Milk obtained from nature is processed and made into different products which involves high cost.
• These products are more durable.
• Their quality too is enhanced.
• Therefore their price is also higher.

Question 2.
Explain the term “Service occupation”.
Answer:

• The occupations which provide complementary services to the other two occupations, i.e., primary and secondary occupations are tertiary occupations.
• These occupations are complementary i.e., supportive to all other occupations.
• These occupations are called as service occupation e.g., transport of goods, loading and unloading of goods and sale of goods, etc.

Question 3.
A person testing the quality of a product is practising a quaternary occupation. Elaborate.
Answer:

• To test the quality of a product, a person must have some special skills.
• This service is not an ordinary one but the one which requires special expertise.
• Such services which requires special skills and expertise are called quaternary occupations.

Question 4.
How can we decide the extent of the country’s development?
Answer:

• Different occupations are practised in different countries of the world.
• Through these occupations, economic transactions occur within a country and between various countries.
• These transactions decide the country’s production of various goods and their national income.
• This, in turn, is used to decide the extent of a country’s development.

Question 5.
What decides the country’s annual income?
Answer:
Different occupations are practised in different countries of the world through which economic transactions occur within country and various countries which decide the country’s production of various goods and their annual income.

I can do this!

Question 1.
Answer:

Name different occupations

Primary occupation Secondary occupation Tertiary occupation Quaternary occupation

Differences

Primary occupations are those occupations which are dependent on nature, e.g. Agriculture. Occupations dependent on primary occupations are called secondary occupations, e.g. Food processing. Those occupations which provide complementary services to primary and secondary occupation are called tertiary occupations, e.g. Sale of goods. While occupation which requires special skills and expertise are called quaternary occupation, e.g. Quality assurance.

Question 2.
Classify the occupations from primary to quaternary.
Answer:

Primary occupations	Secondary occupations	Tertiary occupations	Quaternary occupations
Farming, mining, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing	Manufacturing, construction, food processing	Commercial services, transport of goods, loading and unloading of goods, sale of goods	Research and development, IT, quality assurance, inspection and maintenance

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Temperature Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Temperature

Class 6 Geography Chapter 5 Temperature Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Where am I?

Question 1.
The isotherm 0°C runs in my surroundings:
Answer:
Northern Asia/Northem Canada.

Question 2.
The mean annual temperature is 25°C around me:
Answer:
Central Africa.

Question 3.
The mean annual temperature around me is 10°C:
Answer:
Northern Europe/Central Asia/USA.

B. Who am I?

Question 1.
I connect places of equal temperature.
Answer:
Isotherm.

Question 2.
I am useful for measuring the correct temperature.
Answer:
Simple thermometer.

Question 3.
I get heated due to the land or water near me.
Answer:
Air.

Question 4.
Land and water gets heated due to me.
Answer:
Sunrays.

C. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain with a diagram, the effect of the spherical shape of the earth on the temperature at different latitudes.
Answer:

• Due to the spherical shape of the earth and the resultant curvature of the surface, sunrays occupy a larger or a lesser area.
• Equatorial regions which receive straight rays of the sun occupy less space and heat received is more.
• Polar regions receive slant rays of the sun occupy larger space but the heat received is less.

Question 2.
What is the relation between the latitudinal extent and temperature of a region?
Answer:

• 0° and 23° 30′ North and South perpendicular rays. Temperatures are higher throughout the year.
• 23° 30′ and 66° 30′ North and South receive extreme slant rays. Temperatures are moderate.
• 66° 30′ and 90° North and South receive extreme slant rays. Temperatures are very low.

Question 3.
What makes the isotherms run zigzag over continental areas?
Answer:
Isotherms run zigzag over continental areas because the temperature is influenced by its physical set up and height above the mean sea level on the continent.

Activity:

• Use the thermometer in your school and note the daily temperature on a display board.
• For two weeks, take down in your notebook, the information regarding weather given in the daily newspapers. Discuss your notes in the classroom.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 5 Temperature InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Find the range of temperature at Mumbai, Nagpur and Srinagar. Draw bar graphs for the same.
Answer:
Annual Range of temperature in °C

Region	Min. temperature	Max. temperature
Mumbai	20.5	32
Nagpur	22	44
Srinagar	2.5	24

Answer the following questions with the help of figure:

Question 1.
What is the tube of the thermometer fixed on ?
Answer:
The tube of the thermometer is fixed on a mount.

Question 2.
What substance is used in the thermometer tube?
Answer:
Mercury or alcohol is used in the thermometer tube.

Question 3.
What do the figures on the scale indicate?
Answer:
The figures on the scale indicate temperature scale.

Question 4.
In which different units is the temperature measured?
Answer:
The temperature shows Celsius and Fahrenheit.

Question 5.
What season does the temperature in the figure indicate?
Answer:
The figure indicates summer season.

How will the rays fall between:

Question 1.
0° and 23° 30′ North and South?
Answer:
Perpendicular rays.

Question 2.
23° 30′ and 66° 30′ North and South?
Answer:
Slant rays.

Question 3.
66° 30′ and 90° North and South?
Answer:
Extreme slant rays.

What will you do?

You stay at ‘Man’ in Satara district. Your Grandma stays at Vengurla in Sindhudurg district. During Diwali, you often visit Vengurla. You like the sea coast there. The warm air of that region attracts you because you are freed from the dry air and scratching cold of your place. This time Grandma is suffering from asthma. Doctors have advised her to stay at a place which has a drier climate. What should you do?
Answer:

• Humid air is heavier than dry air, thus a person suffering from asthma finds it difficult to breathe in humid air.
• So, I will take my grandma to my place at Man’ in Satara district, as the air is dry in this region.

Think a little!

Question 1.
Will it be alright if water or oil is used in the thermometer?
Answer:
Water or oil cannot be used in a thermometer because they have a very high freezing part due to the lower temperature upto 30°C cannot be shown.

Question 2.
Where is the temperature of your district headquarters recorded?
Answer:
The temperature of the district headquarters is recorded in the district meteorological department.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Which season would be the best for visiting the following places and why? Goa, Chikhaldara, Chennai, Darjeeling, Ellora, Agra.
Answer:
Goa, Chennai, Ellora and Agra in the winter season. Chikhaldara and Darjeeling in the summer season.

Question 2.
Tell if the following statement is right or wrong. Give reasons.
In order to understand the climate of a region, the latitudinal extent is more useful than the longitudinal extent.
Answer:
The above statement is right.
In order to understand the climate of a region, the latitudinal extent is more useful because the earth is divided into three temperature zones depending on the amount of heat received from the equator to the North and South Poles.

Observe the map. Name the coastal areas that will experience changes in temperature. Give the reason for this.

Answer:
(i) West coast of North America : The California current moving from the Northern frigid zone to the torrid zone will reduce the temperature at this coast.

(ii) East coast of North America : The Gulf stream current flowing towards the northern frigid zone will increase the temperature at this coast.

(iii) West coast of Europe : The North Atlantic current flowing towards the Northern frigid zone will increase the temperature at this coast

Class 6 Geography Chapter 5 Temperature Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks wish the right alternative given in the bracket:

Question 1.
The main factor which influences the distribution of temperature is ______. (ocean current, longitude, latitude)
Answer:
latitude

Question 2.
______gas can hold heat within itself in the atmosphere. (Carbon dioxide, Oxygen, Hydrogen)
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

Question 3.
Isotherms are fairly parallel to the latitudinal line in the _____ hemisphere. (Northern, Western, Southern)
Answer:
Southern

Question 4.
Nagpur receives _______ climate. (extreme, equable, moderate)
Answer:
extreme

Question 5.
When an ocean current flows from the frigid to the torrid zone, it _____ the temperature of the coast in the torrid zone. (increase, reduces, equal)
Answer:
reduces

Question 6.
Isotherms are lines that connect places with the ______ temperature after avoiding the effect of the height, (different, same, moderate)
Answer:
same

Question 7.
Substance used in a thermometer tube is _____ (water, mercury, oil)
Answer:
mercury

Question 8.
The freezing point of mercury is _______°C. (-39, -49, -59)
Answer:
-39

Question 9.
The freezing point of alcohol is _____ °C. (-110, -120, -130)
Answer:
-130

Question 10.
Air temperature is measured in _______ (Celsius, Fahrenheit, Grams)
Answer:
Celsius

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Factor	Isoline
(1) Height	(a) Isotherm
(2) Temperature	(b) Isohyet
(3) Pressure	(c) Contour
(4) Rainfall	(d) Isobar
(5) Planktons	(e) Food for fishes
	(f) Ocean current

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – d
4 – b
5 – e

Give one word for the following sentences:

Question 1.
The sunrays which occupy less area.
Answer:
Perpendicular.

Question 2.
The sunrays which occupy larger area.
Answer:
Slant.

Question 3.
The climate in coastal areas.
Answer:
Equable.

Question 4.
The climate in continental areas.
Answer:
Extreme.

Question 5.
Food for fishes.
Answer:
Plankton.

Question 6.
Main factor responsible for influenceing the distribution of temperature.
Answer:
Latitude.

Question 7.
Measuring daily temperature.
Answer:
Thermometer.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Temperature zones on the earth:
Answer:
Torrid zone, temperate zone and frigid zone.

Question 2.
Lines drawn on a map by joining all the points having the same value:
Answer:
Isolines.

Question 3.
Two cold currents:
Answer:
Canaries and Peruvian current.

Question 4.
Two warm currents.:
Answer:
Equatorial and Brazil current.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What is diurnal range of temperature?
Answer:
The difference in maximum and minimum temperature of a day is called diurnal range of temperature.

Question 2.
What factors leads to horizontal currents in the ocean?
Answer:
Horizontal currents develop in the ocean due

difference in temperature
density of water and
winds.

Question 3.
What is the advantage of the convergence of warm and cold current?
Answer:
The convergence of warm and cold current favours the growth of plankton.

Question 4.
What are isolines?
Answer:
Lines drawn on a map by joining all the points having the same value are called isolines.

Question 5.
Where is the distance between the isotherms parallel?
Answer:
The distance between the isotherms are parallel from South Pole to the Tropic of Capricorn.

Question 6.
Which factors lead to diversity in the climate of different regions?
Answer:
The factors which lead to diversity in the climate of different regions are nearness to the sea, continentality, height above the mean sea level and physical level.

Question 7.
What is an annual range of temperature?
Answer:
The difference in the mean temperatures of summer and winter is called an annual range of temperature.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
There is unequal distribution of heat received from the Sun.
Answer:
The unequal distribution of heat received from the Sun is because:

• The earth is spherical in shape.
• The rays which fall on the equator are straight, occupy less area and give more heat.
• The rays which fall on the curvature i.e., on the polar regions are slant rays which occupy large area and give less heat.

Question 2.
The temperature near the sea level is higher and it decreases in the mountainous region.
Answer:

• Firstly, the sea water gets heated by the rays of the sun.
• The absorbed heat is later radiated into the atmosphere.
• So, the layer of air close to the surface gets heated.
• This heat gets transferred vertically to the adjacent upper layers of air.
• Therefore, the temperature near the sea level is higher and it decreases at the mountainous region.

Question 3.
In the coastal areas, as compared to continental areas, the temperature of air is lower during the day but warmer at night.
Answer:

• There is difference in the heating and cooling of land and water.
• The air over the land gets heated faster and also cools rapidly.
• The air over the water gets heated slowly and also loses the heat in a slower manner.
• The temperature of air is lower during the day but warmer at night, in the coastal areas when compared to continental areas.

Question 4.
Greenhouse gases lead to increasing temperature of the earth.
Answer:

• Some gases in the atmosphere like carbon dioxide and water vapour can hold the heat within themselves for a long period of time.
• Due to the gases, the temperature of air in the atmosphere increases.
• Thus, greenhouse gases lead to increasing temperature of the earth.

Question 5.
Regions, where warm and cold currents converge, are favourable for the growth of fisheries.
Answer:

• Regions, where warm and cold currents converge, are favourable for the growth of planktons.
• Planktons are the food for fishes.
• Fishes travel here in large numbers.
• They breed in warm waters and increase the number of fishes.
• Therefore, regions where warm and cold currents converge favour the growth of fisheries.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Explain the movement of ocean currents from equator to the polar region.
Answer:
Due to temperature differences, both upward and horizontal currents develop in the ocean. Besides temperature differences, factors like winds and differences in the density of water also give rise to horizontal currents. These ocean currents flow from the equator to the polar region and from the polar region to the equator.

Question 2.
Explain the effect of the ocean current flows from the frigid to the torrid zone.
Answer:
When an ocean current flows from the frigid to the torrid zone, it reduces the temperature of the coasts in the torrid zone. When a current flows from the torrid to the frigid zone, it increases the temperature of the coasts in the frigid zone.

I can do this!

Question 1.
Identify the temperature zones.
Answer:
There are three temperature zones namely torrid, temperate and frigid zones.

Question 2.
Tell the factors influencing temperature.
Answer:
Factors influencing temperature are latitude, winds, nearness to the sea, continentality, vegetation cover, cloud cover, physical set up, height above sea level and industrialisation.

Question 3.
Describe the global distribution of temperature with its characteristics.
Answer:
The isotherms in the southern hemisphere are fairly parallel to the latitudinal lines. From South Pole to the Tropic of Capricorn the distance between these lines is almost equal. As the proportion of land in the southern hemisphere is limited, temperatures in these parts are largely influenced by latitude.

In the northern hemisphere, the distance between these lines varies. In this hemisphere, the proportion of land is comparatively greater. This affects the distribution of temperature. These effects are seen in the form of variations in the distance between the isotherms and curved nature of these lines.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of a thermometer.
Answer:
A vacuum glass tube is filled with mercury or alcohol is mounted on a wooden board. There are two temperature scales showing Celsius and Fahrenheit.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Textbook Questions and Answers

1. List the restrictions on the powers of the Government.

Answer:
Restrictions upon the powers of the Government are listed below:

• State should not discriminate between and among citizens on the basis of caste, religion, race, language or gender.
• State shall not deny anybody equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.
• No person shall be deprived of his life.
• State shall not impose any religious taxes.

2. Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

Question 1.
The jobs advertised in the newspaper are for men and women both.
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
Men and women doing the same work in a factory get different wages.
Answer:
No

Question 3.
Government implements various schemes for the improvement of public health.
Answer:
Yes

Question 4.
State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:
Yes

3. Tell why:

Question 1.
The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:

• It is one of important Directive Principles of State policy.
• Monuments are a part of India’s rich cultural heritage. A rich source to learn history, it is our collective responsibility to protect them.

Question 2.
A pension scheme is implemented for old people.
Answer:

• The pension scheme is the State’s way of offering public assistance to citizens who have retired from work.
• This ensures that the retired person can lead a comfortable life.
• Hence a pension scheme is implemented for old people.

Question 3.
Free and compulsory education has been made available to children in the age group 6 to 14.
Answer:

• No child should be deprived of education. So it is made available.
• Right to Liberty now also includes Right to Education and all children are entitled to get education as a Fundamental right.

4. Say right or wrong. Correct and write the wrong ones:

Question 1.
Not to let the National Flag fall down on the ground.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to respect the National Flag.

Question 2.
To stand in attention while the National Anthem is playing.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to respect our National Anthem.

Question 3.
To carve or paint our names on the walls of a historic place like a fort.
Answer:
Wrong: It is our Fundamental Duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Question 4.
To give lesser wages to women than to men for the same work.
Answer:
Wrong: Fundamental Rights put restrictions on the power of the government and one of the restriction states that the state should not discriminate between and among citizens on the basis of gender amongst other things.

Question 5.
To keep public places clean.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to safeguard public property.

5. Write about the following:

Question 1.
The Directive Principles of the Constitution enumerated in the textbook.
Answer:
(i) The State should secure adequate means of livelihood to all citizens without any gender discrimination.

(ii) The State should secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

(iii) The State should secure the improvement of public health.

(iv) The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.

(v) The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.

(vi) The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Tribes.

(vii) The State shall offer public assistance to citizens in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, etc.

(viii) The State shall secure a uniform civil code applicable to the entire country.

Question 2.
The provision of a Uniform Civil Code for citizens in the Directive Principles of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
(i) The provision of a Uniform Civil Code for citizens in mentioned in the Constitution.

(ii) It aims to replace personal laws based on the customs and scriptures of the different religious communities living in India with a common set of laws, which is uniform to all the citizens of India.

Question 3.
Why is it said that the Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights are two sides of the same coin?
Answer:

(i) Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights are two sides of the same coin.

(ii) Due to Fundamental Rights, citizens get the most needed liberty, while Directive Principles of State Policy creates an atmosphere conducive to the growth of democracy.

6. What are the ways in which citizens can conserve the environment ? Write with examples.
Answer:
There are various ways in which citizens can conserve the environment:

(i) Citizens can support the endeavour of the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.

(ii) Citizens should collectively take responsible actions to protect and improve the natural environment we are a part of.

(iii) Citizens should put to an end cruelty towards animals and have compassion for living creatures.

Activities

• Education is our right. Form groups and discuss our duties in this respect.
• The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance. This is one of the Directive Principles. Find out the efforts made by the State about the conservation and protection of forts and make a chart.
• Gather information about the schemes implemented by the Government for children’s health.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
Due to citizens get the most needed liberty. (Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Fundamental Duties)
Answer:
Fundamental Rights

Question 2.
In order that the Indian citizens become conscious of their responsibilities ______ were included in the Constitution.
(Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, Directive Principles of State Policy)
Answer:
Fundamental Duties

Question 3.
We should perform all the tasks that we have undertaken honestly always striving for ______. (excellence, progress, prosperity)
Answer:
excellence

Question 4.
Fundamental Rights restricts the power of the government to impose any ________. (laws, restrictions, religious taxes)
Answer:
religious taxes

Question 5.
Every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian should provide opportunities of education to his or her child or ward between the age of six and _______years. (eighteen, fourteen, seventeen)
Answer:
fourteen

Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’:

Question 1.
The state should secure the improvement of public health.
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
Public assistance is provided to citizens in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness etc.
Answer:
Yes

Name the following:

Question 1.
Put restriction on the power of the government.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights

Question 2.
Direction or guidelines in the Constitution about how to achieve the goals expressed in the Preamble of the Constitution.
Answer:
Directive Principles of the State Policy

Question 3.
Any two challenges faced by India after independence.
Answer:
Establishing order, carrying out smooth administration.

Question 4.
Any one directive which ensures that there is no gender discrimination.
Answer:
State should secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

Question 5.
It is our Fundamental Duty to respect these two national symbols.
Answer:
National Flag, National Anthem.

Question 6.
Any one practice we are expected to renounce according to the Fundamental Duties listed in our Constitution.
Answer:
Practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Question 7.
It is our Fundamental Duty to develop these values.
Answer:
Scientific temper, Humanism, Spirit of inquiry and reform.

Say right or wrong with reason. Correct the write down the corrections:

Question 1.
To sacrifice our life for the sake of our motherland.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty .to defend the country, and to render national service when called upon to do so.

Question 2.
The State protects all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:
Right: It is one of the important Directive Principles of the State Policy.

Answer in one or two sentence:

Question 1.
Which restrictions on the power of the government by the Fundamental Rights ensure that no discrimination is practised by the State?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights restrains the State from discriminating between and among citizens on the basis of caste, religion, race, language or gender.

Question 2.
When India got independence, why was it necessary to draw up new policies?
Answer:
When India got independence the task of nation building had to be undertaken and for this new policies had to be drawn up.

Question 3.
What is included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy with respect to environment?
Answer:
It is included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forest and wild-life of the country.

Question 4.
What is stated in the Directive Principles of State Policy with respect to weaker sections of the Society?
Answer:
It is stated in the Directive Principles of the State Policy that State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interest of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Tribes.

Question 5.
What is the State expected to secure as per the Directive Principles of State Policy which is applicable to the entire country?
Answer:
The State is expected to secure a Uniform Civil Code applicable to the entire country according to the Directive Principles of State policy.

Question 6.
What can we do if a Directive is not implemented by the Government.
Answer:
If a Directive is not implemented by the Government, we can put pressure on the Government in various ways to make a policy in order to meet the goals.

Question 7.
When will the benefits of the various schemes of the Government not reach all the people?
Answer:
The benefits of the various schemes of the government cannot reach all the people if they do not fulfil their Fundamental Duties.

Question 8.
Why were the Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution?
Answer:
Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution so that the Indian citizens become conscious of their responsibilities.

Question 9.
Why is it mentioned in our Fundamental Duties that we should strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity?
Answer:
It is mentioned in our Fundamental Duties that we should strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation can constantly rise to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
What are the ways in which citizens can conserve the environment?
Answer:
There are various ways in which citizens can conserve the environment:

• Citizens can support the endeavour of the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.
• Citizens should collectively take responsible actions to protect and improve the natural environment we are a part of.
• Citizens should put to an end cruelty towards animals and have compassion for living creatures.

Question 2.
State any five Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens.
Answer:
Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens are as follows:

• To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
• To defend the country, and to render national service when called upon to do so.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood transcending diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Give reason:

Question 1.
The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:

• It is one of important Directive Principles of State policy.
• Monuments are a part of India’s rich cultural heritage. A rich source to learn history, it is our collective responsibility to protect them.

Question 2.
A pension scheme is implemented for old people.
Answer:

• The pension scheme is the State’s way of offering public assistance to citizens who have retired from work.
• This ensures that the retired person can lead a comfortable life.
  Hence a pension scheme is implemented for old people.

Question 3.
Free and compulsory education has been made available to children in the age group 6 to 14.
Answer:

• No child should be deprived of education. So it is made available.
• Right to Liberty now also includes Right to Education and all children are entitled to get education as a Fundamental right.

Give your own response:

Question 1.
What else do you think the Government should do for students? Make a list of your demands. How would you convince others that your demands are just?
Answer:
The list of our demands are:

• Emphasis on skill training in school.
• Choice of a wide variety of subjects based on one’s interest.
• Compulsory training in a particular Sport.
• Making a foreign language compulsory in the curriculum.
• Better facilities in schools.
• Programme of mid-day meals should be implemented in all the schools in the rural areas.
• Inspection of schools from time to time to check the quality of education imparted.
• I will convince others through dialogues and discussion and go by the will of the majority.

Question 2.
Which improvements will be possible with the following facilities offered by the Government?
Answer:

• Public toilets: Maintenance from time to time and continuous water supply.
• Clean water supply: Ensuring that water treatment to remove contaminants is done before it reaches homes and other places for consumption.
• Vaccination of children:
• Create awareness among parents about different vaccinations through different media of communication.
• Organise vaccination drives from time to time.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
There is a directive to ensure ‘equal pay for equal work’.
Which principles and ideals of the Constitution will be realised with this directive? Why does it happen that inspite of doing the same work, women are paid less than men?
Answer:
(i) Right to Equality and the assurance that State shall not discriminate among citizens will be realised with this objective.

(ii) Due to lack of awareness of rights and no strict implementation of law, we witness gender discrimination at work.

Observe the Picture and answer the questions given below:

Which of the Fundamental Duties are not being followed in the situations above?

Question 1.
A boy scribbling on a historical structure.
Answer:
The duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Question 2.
Hanging lemon, chillies
Answer:
The duty to develop the scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform.

Question 3.
Damaging a public bus
Answer:
The duty to safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

Question 4.
A woman emptying a garbage can on the street.
Answer:
The duty to protect and improve the natural environment.

What do you think?

Question 1.
Girls and boys between the ages 6 and 14 have got the Right to Education. All the girls and boys in this age group should be in school. Yet many girls and boys are not able to go to school because of many reasons. They have to work to help their parents earn a living for the family. Do you think that it is unfair to such children to insist that they go to school?
Answer:
No I don’t think it is unfair to such children to insist that they go to school.

(i) Practising child labour is a form of exploitation and we have the Right against Exploitation which extends constitutional protection to children.

(ii) Similarly it is the Fundamental Duty of every citizen who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities of education to his or her child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

Question 2.
Which improvements will be possible with the following facilities offered by the Government?
Answer:
(i) Public toilets :

• Public toilets will eradicate open defecation and will improve the overall public health
• As the availability of toilets at close proximity to highway will ensure that people do not face inconvenience while traveling.

(ii) Clean water supply:

• Water is our basic need hence providing clean water is very important
• It will prevent the spread of water borne diseases like cholera, jaundice, etc.

(iii) Vaccination of children:

• Vaccination will improve the health of infants
• Vaccination will reduce the occurrence of diseases like polio in infants

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits

Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What characteristics of two and three dimensional devices did you note?
Answer:
Two-dimensional objects have length and width and its product is area. Three-dimensional objects have length, width and height and its product is volume.

Question 2.
What features can be shown on a very small globe?
Answer:
On a very small globe the entire earth can be represented.

Question 3.
Which device will be suitable for understanding the concept of day and night on the earth?
Answer:
The globe is suitable for understanding the concept of day and night on the earth.

Question 4.
Which device will be useful to show your village/city?
Answer:
A map can be useful to show a village/city.

Question 5.
Which device can be easily carried from one place to another?
Answer:
A map can be easily carried from one place to another.

Activity:

Make two groups. Each group should ask the other group to find the locations of different places on the globe. You may also do this with a map.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Textbook Questions and Answers

Study the world map, a map of India and the globe and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which device is flat?
Answer:
The world map and map of India are flat.

Question 2.
Which device is spherical?
Answer:
The globe is spherical.

Question 3.
Which of these devices allows you to see the entire area of the earth at the same time?
Answer:
The globe allows us to see the entire area of the earth at the same time.

Question 4.
Which device allows you to see only one side of the earth at a time?
Answer:
The map allows us to see only one side of the earth at a time.

Question 5.
Which device can be used for studying a particular region in detail?
Answer:
A map can be used for studying a particular region in detail.

Question 6.
Which device can be called a model of the earth?
Answer:
The globe can be called a model of the earth.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Textbook Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks with the correct option from the brackets:

Question 1.
Map is ______ dimensional whereas a globe is ______ dimensional. (one, tvo, three, four)
Answer:
two, three

Question 2.
______ is a representative model of theentire earth. (map, sphere, globe)
Answer:
Globe

Question 3.
A field visit is an important method of studying ________.(political science, geography, history)
Answer:
geography

Question 4. _______ is the largest operational globe in the world. (EARTHA, Earth, Earthia)
Answer:
EARTHA

Name the following:

Question 1.
Two objects which are two-dimensional.
Answer:
Map, land

Question 2.
Two objects which are three-dimensional.
Answer:
Globe, duster

Question 3.
Two places for students to be taken for field visit.
Answer:
Post office, mall

Question 4.
Place where EARTHA is housed.
Answer:
Yarmouth in the State of Maine in the United States of America.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
How is a field visit an important method of studying geography?
Answer:

• A field visit helps us to understand the geographical and social conditions of a place.
• It provides an opportunity to directly interact with the local people and understand their problems.

Question 2.
Write a note on – EARTHA.
Answer:

• EARTHA is the largest operational globe in the world.
• It is housed at Yarmouth in the State of Maine in the United State of America.
• The rotation and revolution speed of this globe is maintained as per that of the earth.

Question 3.
How is a map drawn?
Answer:
Various steps to draw a map:

• A wire globe is prepared.
• A source of light is placed inside the globe.
• Thereafter projection of the wire graticule is obtained on a paper
• This projection is used to drawmaps.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Let us Use the Graticule Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Let us Use the Graticule

Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Let us Use the Graticule Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Put a tick mark against the correct option in the space given:

Question 1.
66° 30′ North parallel means:
(i) Arctic Circle
(ii) Equator
(iii) Antarctic Circle
Answer:
Arctic Circle

Question 2.
Which parallel bisects the earth?
(i) Tropic of Cancer
(ii) Tropic of Capricorn
(iii) Equator
Answer:
Equator

Question 3.
What is the angular distance of the Arctic Circle from North Pole?
(i) 66° 30′
(ii) 90°
(iii) 23° 30
Answer:
23° 30′

Question 4.
Where do the Prime Meridian and the equator • intersect each other?
(i) Southern Ocean
(ii) Atlantic Ocean
(iii) African Continent
Answer:
African Continent

Question 5.
Up to which parallels from the equator can the j sun’s rays be perpendicular?
(i) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn
(ii) Arctic and Antarctic Circles
(iii) North and South Poles
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn

Question 6.
What would be the latitude of a place on the South pole?
(i) 9o°S
(ii) 90°N
(iii) 0°D
Answer:
90° S

B. Read the following statements and correct the wrong ones:

Question 1.
While describing the location of a place mentioning the meridian is sufficient.
Answer:
While describing the location of a place, we need to consider one parallel and one meridian.

Question 2.
For describing the extent of a region, it is necessary to assume the latitude and longitude of the centre of the adjoining region.
Answer:
For describing the extent of a region, we need to consider two parallels and two meridians at the extreme ends of the same regions.

Question 3.
Location of a road can be described only with a map.
Answer:
Location of a road can be described with latitude and longitude of a point.

Question 4.
0° East meridian and 180° East meridian.
Answer:
0° meridian and 180° meridian.

Question 5.
The extent of a road or a river course is described with the help of the latitude of a point in the source and the longitude of a point at the end.
Answer:
The extent of a road or a river course is described with the help of the latitude and the longitude of a point in the source and also at the end.

Question 6.
8° 4′ N parallel to 37° 66° N parallel is the correct description of a location
Answer:
8° 4’ N parallel to 37° 66’ N parallel is the correct description of a location.

C. Find the locations of following cities from a world map, a map of India or a Globe and write down the latitude and longitude of each of them:

1. Mumbai
2. Guwahati
3. Srinagar
4. Bhopal
5. Chennai
6. Ottawa
7. Tokyo
8. Johannesburg
9. New York
10. London

Answer:

Place	Latitude	Longitude
Mumbai	19° 00′ N	72 48’ E
Guwahati	26° 12′ N	91 48’ E
Srinagar	34° 05′ N	74 50’ E
Bhopal	23° 18′ N	77 24’ E
Chennai	13° 06′ N	80 18’ E
ottawa	45° 27′ N	75 42’ W
Tokyo	35° 45′ N	139 45’ E
Johannesburg	26° 10′ S	28 03’ E
New York	43° 00′ N	75 00’ W
London	51° 31′ N	0 7’ W

D. Find and write down the extent of the following. (Check them on the internet/ mobile):

Question 1.
Maharashtra (State)
Answer:
Question 1. 20° 00′ N / 76° 00’E

Question 2.
Chile (A country)
Answer:
35° 00′ S / 72° 00’W

Question 3.
Australia (A continent)
Answer:
10° 30′ S to 43° 39′ S – 113° E to 153° E

Question 4.
Sri Lanka (An island)
Answer:
7° 30′ N / 80° 50′ E

Question 5.
Trans Siberian Railway of Russia (Starting point – St. Petersburg, Terminal Point-Vladivostok)
Answer:
59° 55′ N / 30° 20′ E – 43° 10′ N / 131° 53’ E

E. Draw important parallels and meridians in the figure given below and label them with appropriate angular measures. (Use the protractor.)

Answer:

F. Write the important parallels and meridians in the following table:

Answer:

Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Let us Use the Graticule InText Questions and Answers

Make friends with the globe!

Observe the globe and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What are the horizontal lines on the globe called?
Answer:
The horizontal lines on the globe are called latitudes.

Question 2.
List the continents and oceans through which the equator passes.
Answer:
Continents – Africa, South America, Asia Oceans – Pacific, Atlantic and Indian

Question 3.
Encircle the intersection of 0° meridian and 0° parallel on the globe.
Answer:
Students may attempt this question of their own.

Question 4.
Which ocean is spread in all the four hemispheres?
Answer:
Pacific Ocean

Question 5.
Which continent is spread in all the four hemispheres?
Answer:
The continent of Africa

Question 6.
At which two parallels do all the meridians converge?
Answer:
90°N and 90°S parallels.

State the Importance of the following:

Question 1.
Prime Meridian
Answer:
The main purpose is to fix the global standard time and co-ordinate the standard times of different countries.

Question 2.
180° Meridian
Answer:
The International Date Line is marked with reference to this meridian.

Question 3.
Great Circles
Answer:
Great Circles are used for finding the minimum distance between any two places on the surface of the earth.

Let us use the graticule:

Answer the following questions about the location and extent with the help of figure page 11 of your textbook.

Question 1.
Which latitude and longitude define the location of the capital of Brazil- Brasilia?
Answer:
13°S latitude and 48°W longitude.

Question 2.
What would be the longitudinal extent of Brazil that spreads from 5° 15′ N to 33° 45′ S latitude?
Answer:
Longitudinal extent would be 34° 47’W to 73° 59’W.

Question 3.
In which hemispheres does Brazil extend in the north-south direction?
Answer:
Brazil extends in the both northern and southern hemispheres.

Question 4.
In which hemisphere does Brazil extend in the east-west direction?
Answer:
Brazil extends in the Western Hemisphere.

Question 5.
Which parallels and meridians should be used to describe the extend of River Sao Francisco?
Answer:
River Sao Francisco has its source at 40° 04′ W/ 20° 02’S and terminal point at 37°W/10°S.

Question 6.
Describe the location of Marajo Island using the graticule.
Answer:
Using the Graticules, the location of Marajo island is 0.4°N and 51°W.

Think a little!
Question 1.
Find on the globe, the meridians opposite to the ones mentioned below:
90°E, 170°W, 30°E, 20°W
Answer:

• 90°E – 90°W
• 170°W – 10°E
• 30°E – 150°W
• 20°W – 160°E

Think a little!

Question 1.
Which important parallel passes through India?
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer (23° 30′ N)

Question 2.
Which areas do not get perpendicular rays?
Answer:
Areas to the North of Tropic of Cancer (till Jammu and Kashmir).

Question 3.
Which region receives perpendicular ray on two days in a year?
Answer:
The region to the south of Tropic of Cancer (till Kaniyakumari).

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
In what direction should an aeroplane fly in order to cover the shortest distance between Kolkata and Chicago?
Answer:
To cover the shortest distance between Kolkata and Chicago, the aeroplane should move north west via Delhi.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Let us Use the Graticule Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
______ is known as the smallest country in the world.
Answer:
Vatican City

Question 2.
The International Date line is marked with reference to _____ meridian.
Answer:
180°

Question 3.
The Prime Meridian is known as ________.
Answer:
Greenwich Meridian

Question 4.
Global Standard Time is known as ______.
Answer:
Greenwich Mean Time

Question 5.
Variation in the intensity of sunlight leads to regional diversity in ____ and ______.
Answer:
plant, animal life

Question 6.
Different temperature zones give rise to ______ belts.
Answer:
pressure

Question 7.
The 180° meridian lies opposite to the _______.
Answer:
Prime Meridian

Question 8.
The equator as well as all pairs of opposite meridians form ______.
Answer:
Great Circles

Question 9.
Due to the ______ and _______ of sunlight, different temperature zones are formed on the earth.
Answer:
duration, intensity

Question 10.
All places between 23° 30′ north and south of equator receives _______ rays on two days in a year.
Answer:
perpendicular

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

A (Latitudes)	B (Names)
(1)23°30’N	(a) Antarctic Circle
(2) 23°30′ S	(b) Tropic of Capricorn
(3)66°30’N	(c) Tropic of Cancer
(4) 66°30′ S	(d) Arctic Circle
	(e) Great Circle
	(f) Prime Meridian

Answer:
1 – c
2 – b
3 – d
4 – a

Complete the following sentence:

Question 1.
While describing the location of a place, we need to consider _______.
Answer:
only one parallel and one meridian

Question 2.
For describing the extent of a region, we need to consider _________.
Answer:
two parallels and two meridians at the extreme ends of the region

Question 3.
For describing the extent of linear features like a river or road we need to consider ______.
Answer:
the latitudes and longitude of their terminal points

Question 4.
All places between 23°30′ N and S of the ! equator receive perpendicular rays _____.
Answer:
on two days in a year

Question 5.
Depending on the seasons, daytime can be greater than 24 hours in areas between ________.
Answer:
the polar circles and the poles

Question 6.
All places between 23° 30′ N and South of equator ______ rays on two days in a year.
Answer:
receive perpendicular

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What are Great Circles used for?
Answer:
Great Circles are used for finding the minimum distance between any two places on the surface of the earth.

Question 2.
Where is Vatican City located?
Answer:
Vatican City is the smallest country in the world located within Italy on the Italian peninsula.

Question 3.
Why is the Prime Meridian considered an important meridian?
Answer:
The prime meridian is an important meridian because its main purpose is to fix the global standard time and co-ordinate the standard times of different countries.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Human Body and Organ System Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Human Body and Organ System

Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Human Body and Organ System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Find out my partner.

Question a.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Heartbeats	a. 350 ml
2. RBC	b. 7.4
3. WBC	c. 37° C
4. Blood donation	d. 72 per min
5. Normal body temperature	e. 50 – 60 lakh/mm3
6. pH of oxygenated blood	f. 5000 – 6000 per mm3

Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Heartbeats	d. 72 per min
2. RBC	e. 50 – 60 lakh/mm3
3. WBC	f. 5000 – 6000 per mm3
4. Blood donation	a. 350 ml
5. Normal body temperature	c. 37° C
6. pH of oxygenated blood	b. 7.4

2. Complete the following table.

Question a.

Answer:

3. Draw neat and labeled diagrams. 

Question a.
Respiratory system.
Answer:

Question b.
Internal structure of heart.
Answer:

4. Explain with reasons.

Question a.
Human blood is red coloured.
Answer:
The red colour of human blood is due to hemoglobin which is a red coloured conjugated protein with iron that is present on the red blood cells. Therefore, it looks red.

Question b.
Upward and downward movement of diaphragm occurs consecutively.
Answer:
The breathing movements are possible due to contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm. The rib muscles also help in these movements. When the ribs rise and diaphragm is lowered at the same time, then there is a decrease in pressure on lungs.

This causes movement of air into the lungs at the time of inhalation. On the other hand, when ribs come back to their normal position and diaphragm is risen, then pressure on the lungs increases. This causes movement of the air out of the body through the nose in the form of exhalation. These movements are possible only due to consecutive upward and downward movement of the diaphragm.

b

Question c.
Blood donation is considered to be superior of all donations.
Answer:
Blood cannot be manufactured by any artificial chemical process. The only way to obtain blood is by donations of blood from a live donor. Blood is needed at times of emergency. The life of person can be saved if timely blood transfusion is given to the needy victim or a patient. Since such donation can save a valuable human life, it is called superior of all donations.

Question d.
Person with ‘O’ blood group is considered as ‘universal donor’.
Answer:
Person with ‘O’ blood group does not have any antigen on his/her RBCs. The ‘O’ type blood thus cannot cause clotting reactions in the body of the recipients. Such persons with ‘O’ blood group can donate blood to any person having any blood group therefore they are considered as ‘universal donor’.

Question e.
Food must have limited amount of salts.
Answer:
More salt in diet means more sodium ions. These extra sodium salts cause rise in blood pressure. Such condition is called hypertension. This condition can be dangerous and fatal in some cases. Therefore, one must keep control over sodium content of the food.

5. Answer the following questions in your own words.

Question a.
Explain the functional correlation of circulatory system with respiratory, digestive and excretory system.
Answer:
1. Three systems viz. respiratory, digestive and circulatory always work in coordination.
2. Digestive system helps in breaking down complex food molecules into simple soluble nutrients at the end of the digestion process.
3. The soluble nutrients are absorbed in the circulating blood in the villi of the intestine.
4. The blood carries these nutrients to each cell during its circulation.
5. The respiratory system helps the oxygen from the air to be absorbed in the blood.
6. This process takes place in alveolus present in lungs. The oxygen is absorbed in the blood and through haemoglobin it is taken to every cell of the body. At the same time the unwanted carbon dioxide produced in each cell is given out in a process of gaseous exchange.
7. The soluble nutrients, and chiefly glucose is metabolized with the help of oxygen-producing energy. Thus, all the three systems bring about coordinated functions to keep the body alive.

Question b.
Explain the structure and function of human blood.
Answer:
I. Structure, i.e. components of the human blood: Human blood is a fluid connective tissue consisting of blood plasma and blood corpuscles suspended in it.

1. Plasma: Plasma is the fluid part of the blood which is pale yellow in colour. It is slightly alkaline in nature. It has 90-92% water, 6-8 % proteins and 1-2 % inorganic salts.
It contains proteins such as albumin, globulin, fibrinogen, etc. There are inorganic ions such as Ca, Na and K.

2. Blood cells:
a. Blood cells are mainly of three types, viz. RBCs, WBCs and blood platelets. They are produced in the red bone marrow.
b. RBCs are small, circular and enucleated cells. They are full of haemoglobin which is essential in transporting oxygen. RBCs are red blood cells which are 50 to 60 lakh per cubic millimetre. Their life span is 100 to 127 days.
c. WBCs are large, nucleated and colourless. They are of five subtypes, viz. neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, monocytes and lymphocytes. They are 5 to 10 thousands per millimetre of blood.
d. Platelets are very small disc-shaped blood cells which are 2.5 to 4 lakh per cubic millimetre of blood.

II. Function of human blood:

1. Transport functions:

• Gases: Oxygen is carried via blood from lungs to cells in various parts of body and carbon dioxide from tissues to lungs.
• Nutrients: Simple nutrients like glucose, amino acids, fatty acids are taken up by blood from wall of alimentary canal and transported up to each cell in the body.
• Waste materials: Nitrogenous wastes like ammonia, urea, creatinine are released by tissues into blood which carries those to kidney for excretion.
• Enzymes and hormones: Blood transports the enzymes and hormones from the site of their production to the site of their action.

2. Protection: Antibodies are produced in the blood and they protect the body from microbes and other harmful particles.
3. Thermoregulation: Body temperature is maintained constant at 37 °C by vasodilation and vasoconstriction.
4. Maintaining the balance of minerals like Na, K in the body.
5. If bleeding occurs at the injury, platelets and a protein called fibrinogen of the blood form a clot and seal the injury.
6. Functions of blood cells:

• RBCs: With haemoglobin it carries out transport of respiratory gases.
• WBCs: Soldiers of the body. Produce antibodies and give immunity to body.
• Platelets: Help in blood clotting.

Question c.
Explain the importance and need of blood donation.
Answer:
Blood can never be synthesized artificially. There is no substitute for natural blood. Every healthy person possesses about 5 litres of blood in his or her body. In case of haemorrhage i.e. blood loss, the blood volume may reduce which can result into threat to life. Moreover, the loss of blood should be immediately taken care of, otherwise it may cost the life.

Therefore blood transfusion is very crucial in case of victims of accidents, patients of surgeries or mothers who suffer from blood loss during childbirth (parturition). Some diseases such as thalassemia, blood cancer, etc. also need regular transfusions. Therefore, blood is always needed in many such conditions. Blood donation is only option for such transfusions.

6. Explain the differences.

Question a.
Arteries and veins.
Answer:

Arteries	Veins
1. Arteries carry blood away from the heart to the tissues of the body.	1. Veins carry blood from the tissues of the body back to the heart.
2. Arteries are located deeper within the body.	2. Veins are usually located superficially beneath the surface of the skin.
3. Arteries are thick walled	Veins are thin walled.
4. Arteries do not have valves.	4. Veins have valves.
5. Arteries would generally remain open if blood flow stopped, due to their thick muscular layer.	5. Veins would collapse if blood flow stops.
6. Except pulmonary artery, all arteries carry oxygenated blood.	6. Except pulmonary vein, all veins carry deoxygenated blood.
7. Arteries are more muscular than veins, which helps in transporting blood that is full of oxygen efficiently to the tissues.	7. Veins are less muscular than arteries, but contain valves to help keep blood flowing in the right direction, usually toward the heart.
8. There is maximum blood pressure in the arteries.	8. There is minimum blood pressure in the veins.

Question b.
External and internal respiration.
Answer:

External respiration	Internal respiration
1. Intake of air from the outside into the body and release of air from the body to outside is called external respiration.	1. Exchange of gases between cells and tissue fluid is called internal respiration.
2. External respiration occurs between cells and the external environment.	2. Internal respiration occurs only in the cells of the body.
3. It involves processes of inspiration and expiration.	3. It involves movement of O2 from blood into tissue fluid and movement of CO2 from tissue.
4. External respiration involves breathing and gaseous exchange.	4. Internal respiration involves neither breathing nor gaseous exchange.
5. Oxygen combines with haemoglobin in external respiration.	5. Chemical reactions occur in the cells to form energy.

7. Which health parameters of blood donor should be checked? 

Question a.
Which health parameters of blood donor should be checked?
Answer:
Blood donor should be healthy. He or she should have good haemoglobin’s content. The RBC and WBC count should also be normal. They should not carry any parasites in their blood such as malarial parasite or dengue virus. The donor should not be HIV positive or should not have any infectious diseases. He should not have any addictions such s drug-abuse or alcohol consumption.

8. Fill in the blanks using appropriate words given in the bracket.
(hemoglobin, alkaline, diaphragm, red bone marrow, acidic, voluntary, involuntary,)

Question a.
RBCs of the blood contain ……….., an iron compound.
Answer:
RBCs of the blood contain haemoglobin, an iron compound.

Question b.
……………….. is present between thoracic and abdominal cavity.
Answer:
Diaphragm is present between thoracic and abdominal cavity.

Question c.
Cardiac muscles are …………… .
Answer:
Cardiac muscles are involuntary.

Question d.
pH of oxygenated blood is …………… .
Answer:
pH of oxygenated blood is alkaline.

Question e.
Production of RBCs occurs in ……………… .
Answer:
Production of RBCs occurs in red bone marrow.

8. Find odd one out.

Question a.
A, O, K, AB, B.
Answer:
K (All others are blood groups.)

Question b.
Blood plasma, platelets, blood transfusion, blood corpuscles.
Answer:
Blood transfusion (All others are components of blood.)

Question c.
Trachea, alveoli, diaphragm, capillaries.
Answer:
Capillaries (All others are parts of respiratory system. Capillaries exist throughout the body.)

Question d.
Neutrophils, globulins, albumins, prothrombin.
Answer:
Neutrophils (All others are proteins present in the plasma.)

10. Read the following paragraph and identify the disease.

Today, her child became one and half year old. However, that child does not seem to be healthy and happy. It was continuously crying and gradually becoming weak. It has shortness of breath. Its nails have become blue.
Answer:
The heart of the child is not functioning properly. Bluish nails show lack of oxygen, thus the baby may be suffering also from respiratory problems.

11. Your neighboring uncle has been diagnosed with hypertension. What should he do to keep his blood pressure within normal range?

Question a.
Your neighboring uncle has been diagnosed with hypertension. What should he do to keep his blood pressure within normal range?
Answer:
Hypertension has many causes. Try to find out what is the exact cause. Is it lack of exercise, obesity, lots of fast and junk food consumption, over-intake of salt, mental tension, etc. He should visit a proper physician and take prescribed blood pressure control medicines. He should never miss a single tablet. He should avoid salty and preserved food. He should practice yoga and meditation. He should also undertake some stress- management techniques.

Project:

Question a.
Collect information about various modern treatments on heart diseases.

Class 8 Science Chapter 11 Human Body and Organ System Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements after correcting them:

Question 1.
Cells need supply of insoluble nutrients and oxygen for the energy production.
Answer:
Cells need the supply of soluble nutrients and oxygen for the energy production.

Question 2.
Respiratory system and respiration begins with mouth.
Answer:
Respiratory system and respiration begins with nose.

Question 3.
A lung is present on either sides of heart in abdominal cavity.
Answer:
A lung is present on either sides of heart in thoracic cavity.

Question 4.
Continuous upward and downward movement of diaphragm is necessary to bring about the beating of heart.
Answer:
Continuous upward and downward movement of diaphragm is necessary to bring about the breathing.

Question 5.
Blood vessels which carry the blood away from heart are called veins.
Answer:
Blood vessels which carry the blood away from heart are called arteries.

Question 6.
William Harvey described the blood groups in man.
Answer:
William Harvey described the mechanism of circulation in the body.

Question 7.
Capillaries unite together to form the arteries.
Answer:
Capillaries unite together to form the veins.

Match the columns/Find out my partner:

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. William Harvey	a. Blood group AB.
2. Carl Landsteiner	b. A, B, O blood group system.
3. Decastello and Sturli	c. Mechanism of circulation of blood.

Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. William Harvey	c. Mechanism of circulation of blood.
2. Carl Landsteiner	b. A, B, O blood group system.
3. Decastello and Sturli	a. Blood group AB.

Complete the following table:

Question 1.

Answer:

Type	Systolic pressure	Diastolic pressure
Normal blood pressure	90 – 119 mmHg	60 – 79 mmHg
Primary hypertension	120 – 139 mmHg	80 – 89 mmHg
Hypertension stage – I	140 – 159 mmHg	90 – 99 mmHg
Hypertension stage – II	> 160 mmHg	> 100 mm

Define the following terms:

1. Inhalation: Inhalation is taking in air through the nose from the surrounding
2. Exhalation: Exhalation is giving out the air back to the outer environment.
3. External respiration: The processes of inhalation and exhalation both together are called external respiration.
4. Internal respiration: Exchange of gases between cells and tissue fluid is called internal respiration.
5. Cellular respiration: Production of energy in the form of ATP from oxidation of glucose and other soluble nutrients is called cellular respiration.
6. Thermoregulation: Maintenance of the body temperature to a constant level by performing vasoconstriction or vasodilation is called thermoregulation.
7. Blood pressure: Pressure exerted by the flowing blood on the blood vessel wall is called blood pressure.
8. Systolic pressure: The maximum blood pressure exerted by the flowing blood when the heart is contracting is called systolic pressure.
9. Diastolic pressure: The minimum blood pressure exerted by the flowing blood when the heart is not contracting but receiving (i.e. relaxing) the blood is called diastolic pressure.
10. Hypertension or High Blood Pressure: The blood pressure value of 140 – 159 mm Hg which is more than the normal blood pressure is called hypertension or high blood pressure.
11. Sphygmomanometer: The instru¬ment used for measuring blood pressure is called sphygmomanometer.
12. Hematology: The branch of medical science in which the blood, haemapoietic organs (organs that produce blood cells) and blood disorders are studied is called haematology.

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each:

Question 1.
What are the heart sounds and why are they produced?
Answer:
There are two types of heart sounds, one is ‘lubb’ and other is ‘dub’. These are produced due to closure of the heart valves.

Question 2.
What is blood circulation?
Answer:
The process of pumping the blood to all the parts of the body and bringing it back again to the heart is called the blood circulation.

Question 3.
Name any four proteins present in the blood plasma.
Answer:
The proteins present in the blood plasma are albumin, globulins, fibrinogen and prothrombin.

Question 4.
Which inorganic ions control the function of muscles and nerves?
Answer:
Calcium, sodium and potassium control the functions of muscles and nerves.

Question 5.
What is the basis on which blood group is determined?
Answer:
The antigen present on the RBCs: and the antibodies present in the plasma of I the blood determine the type of blood group. The genes of parents are responsible for the type of blood group that the child inherits.

Question 6.
Under which conditions, blood is required for donation?
Answer:
Whenever there is hemorrhage, the patient requires blood. Such patients are accident victims, those who excessively bleed, women during childbirth (parturition) and for patients undergoing surgeries.

Question 7.
How much blood is collected from a person during donation?
Answer:
About 350 ml of blood is collected from a person during donation.

Question 8.
When is National Voluntary Blood Donation Day observed?
Answer:
National Voluntary Blood Donation Day is observed on 1st October every year.

Explain the differences:

Question 1.
Atria and ventricles:
Answer:

Atria	Ventricles
1. Atria are the upper chambers of the heart.	1. Ventricles are the lower chambers of the heart.
2. Atria are the smaller receiving chambers.	2. Ventricles are the larger distributing chambers.
3. Atria are thin walled chambers having lesser blood pressure.	3. Ventricles are thick walled chambers with greater blood pressure.
4. Atria do not have inlet valves.	4. Ventricles have inlet valves.
5. Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from whole body through the inferior vena cava (lower body), superior vena cava (from upper body). It pumps blood into right ventricle.	5. Right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood received from right atrium to lungs for oxygenation which is known as pulmonary circulation.
6. Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from lungs through pulmonary veins. It pumps blood into left ventricle.	6. Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood received from left atrium to whole body. This is called systemic circulation.

Question 2.
RBCs and WBCs:
Answer:

RBCs	WBCs
1. RBCs are red in colour due to haemoglobin present in them.	1. WBCs are colourless as there is no pigment in them.
2. RBCs are produced in red bone marrow.	2. WBCs are produced mostly in bone marrow. But they are also produced in lymph nodes, spleen, etc.
3. RBCs are smaller in size and rounded in .shape.	3. WBCs are larger in size and are of different shapes.
4. RBCs have an average lifespan of 120 days.	4. Life span of WBCs vary according to their role. They have a life span from a few days to 3 weeks.
5. Normal RBC count is 50 – 60 lakh RBCs per cubic mm. of blood.	5. Normal WBC count is 5 thousands to 10 thousands per cubic mm. of blood.
6. Their function is to transport the respiratory gases (Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide).	6. Their main function is to produce antibodies and fight against the infections. Thus they are called soldiers of the body.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
A very large number of alveoli is present in lungs, which are covered over by capillary network.
Answer:
Due to very large number of alveoli the surface area of the lungs is increased many a times for the gaseous exchange. The alveoli are covered over by capillary network for rapid gaseous exchange. The oxygen is taken in the body and at the same time carbon dioxide is given out of the body only by the gaseous exchange occurring at the alveolar surface.

Question 2.
Heart is covered by double layered pericardial membrane.
Answer:
Pericardium is the protective double membrane that covers the heart. In between the two layers of this membrane there is protective fluid. The pericardium and the fluid together protect the heart from friction and mechanical shock. Since heart is a vital organ, it is well protected by such pericardial membrane.

Question 3.
Veins are provided with valves.
Answer:
Valves prevent the backflow of the blood. Blood in the veins is not under great pressure so it is likely that it may flow back. But valves prevent such movements. Therefore they are provided with valves.

Write short notes on the following:

Question 1.
Cellular respiration:
Answer:

1. During respiration, the glucose molecules along with some other soluble nutrients are slowly oxidized with the help of oxygen in each cell.
2. In this process the energy is released in the form of ATP, CO₂ and water vapours are produced.
3. These products are not needed for the body and hence given out of the body in exhalation.
4. This process of cellular respiration is shown by the following reaction:
   C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ = 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Energy (38ATP)

Question 2.
Lung:
Answer:

1. Pair of lungs is the main respiratory organ in the human body. They are located in thoracic cavity.
2. They are present on either sides of heart.
3. Each lung has double layered pleural membranes.
4. Trachea bifurcates into two bronchi. Each bronchus enters lung on its side and S divide and re-divide into fine bronchioles.
5. At the end of each bronchiole there is alveolus. Alveolus is surrounded by capillary network.
6. Each alveolus is extremely thin walled and hence gaseous exchange can occur through diffusion here. Due to thousands of alveoli, the lung surface is increased many a times.
7. Deoxygenated blood coming from heart by pulmonary arteries is purified here in the lungs.
8. It is mixed with oxygen due to gaseous exchange and returned back to the heart by pulmonary veins. Lungs thus continuously help in oxygenation of blood with the help of all of the alveoli.

Question 3.
Diaphragm:
Answer:

1. Diaphragm is a muscular partition that divides the thoracic and abdominal cavity.
2. Located at the base of thoracic cage, it is very important in breathing movements.
3. Diaphragm can undergo consecutive upward and downward movements.
4. These movements along with movements of thoracic cage cause rise and fall of the pressure in the thoracic cavity.
5. Rising up of ribs and lowering of diaphragm causes the decrease in air pressure which makes the air to move into the lungs through nose. This is inhalation.
6. When the pressure rises in the thoracic cavity again, the air is given out. This is exhalation.
7. This is caused due to ribs returning to their original position and rising diaphragm. This simultaneously increases the pressure in thoracic cavity.

Question 4.
Structure of human heart:
Answer:

1. Human heart is four chambered muscular organ.
2. The size of the heart is about one’s own fist and its weight is about 360 gm.
3. For protection, it is covered over by double-layered pericardium.
4. The wall of the heart is made up of cardiac muscles which are involuntary in nature. They have the capacity of rhythmic beating.
5. The upper two chambers are called right and left atrium and lower two chambers are called right and left ventricle.
6. Between right atrium and right ventricle there is tricuspid valve which guards the opening. Similarly between left atrium and left ventricle there is bicuspid valve.
7. On entire right side of the heart there is deoxygenated blood.
8. On entire left side of the heart there is oxygenated blood.
9. Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood by superior and inferior vena cava. These two major veins bring deoxygenated blood from entire body to the heart.
10. Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from lungs by pulmonary vein.
11. Right ventricle sends the deoxygenated blood to lungs for oxygenation, through pulmonary artery.
12. Left ventricle supplies oxygenated blood to entire body through systemic aorta.

Question 5.
Human Blood Groups:
Answer:

1. The A, B, O blood group system is the most popular and medically important blood group system of human beings.
2. The blood group is determined due to antigenic protein present on the RBCs and the antibody present in the plasma.
3. The four main groups of human blood are A, B, AB and O.
4. According to the presence or absence of Rh antigen the blood groups are further said to be Rh-positive or Rh-negative.
5. This makes total eight blood groups which are taken into consideration at the time of blood transfusions.
6. Blood groups are dependent on genes and are thus hereditary in nature.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
How do the organisms like amoeba, earthworm, cockroach, plants, various aquatic animals, bird, respire? Prepare a chart.
Answer:

Diagram – based questions:

Question 1.
Sketch and label structure of alveolus showing gaseous exchange.
Answer:

Question 2.
Sketch and label artery and vein showing structural difference between the two.
Answer:

Question 3.
Draw a diagram to show formation of capillaries. Also show how capillaries form a vein.
Answer:

MCQs based on experiments:

I. Human respiratory system:

Question 1.
From which organ does respiratory system of man begin?
(a) Trachea
(b) Lungs
(c) Alveolus
(d) Nose
Answer:
(d) Nose

Question 2.
Which of the statement given below is correct?
(a) Wind pipe is present in front of food pipe.
(b) Food pipe is present in front of wind pipe.
(c) Wind pipe and food pipe are not near each other.
(d) Wind pipe is same as oesophagus and food pipe is called trachea.
Answer:
(a) Wind pipe is present in front of food pipe.

Question 3.
Which type of respiration includes inhalation and exhalation?
(a) Internal respiration
(b) External respiration
(c) Cellular respiration
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) External respiration

Question 4.
How many molecules of ATP are produced from one molecule of glucose ?
(a) 26
(b) 36
(c) 38
(d) 40
Answer:
(c) 38

Question 5.
Where is sound box located in the body?
(a) At the beginning of the wind pipe.
(b) At the beginning of the food pipe.
(c) At the end of the wind pipe.
(d) At the end of the food pipe.
Answer:
(a) At the beginning of the wind pipe.

II. Structure of heart:

Question 1.
What is the location of a bicuspid valve in human heart?
(a) Between right and left ventricle.
(b) Between left and right atrium.
(c) Between left atrium and left ventricle.
(d) Between right atrium and right ventricle.
Answer:
(c) Between left atrium and left ventricle.

Question 2.
Which blood vessels bring deoxygenated blood to the right atrium?
(a) Superior and inferior vena cava
(b) Pulmonary veins
(c) Pulmonary artery
(d) Systemic aorta
Answer:
(a) Superior and inferior vena cava

Question 3.
Which artery carries deoxygenated blood and which vein carries the oxygenated blood respectively?
(a) Dorsal aorta and inferior vena cava respectively.
(b) Pulmonary vein and pulmonary artery respectively
(c) Pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein respectively
(d) Superior vena cava and inferior vena cava respectively.
Answer:
(c) Pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein respectively

Question 4.
Under which of the following condition will rate of heartbeat be faster?
(a) Sleeping
(b) Resting
(c) Running
(d) Sitting
Answer:
(c) Running

Question 5.
Which chambers of the heart are called receiving chamber?
(a) Both atria
(b) Right ventricle
(c) Left ventricle
(d) Only left atria
Answer:
(a) Both atria

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule

Class 6 Geography Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Place a tick mark (✓) against the correct option:

Question 1.
What term is used for the imaginary east-west horizontal lines on the earth?
(i) Meridians
(ii) International Date Line
(iii) Parallels
Answer:
Parallels

Question 2.
What is the shape of the meridians?
(i) Circular
(ii) Semicircular
(iii) Points
Answer:
Semicircular

Question 3.
What do the parallels of latitude and meridians of longitude together form on the globe?
(i) Angular distance
(ii) Hemisphere
(iii) Graticule
Answer:
Graticule

Question 4.
How many parallels are there in the northern hemisphere?
(i) 90
(ii) 89
(iii) 91
Answer:
90

Question 5.
Which circles form the eastern and western hemispheres?
(i) 0° parallel and 180° meridian
(ii) 0° Prime Meridian and 180° meridian
(iii) North and South Polar circles
Answer:
0° Prime Meridian and 180° meridian

Question 6.
Which circle appears as a point on the globe?
(i) Equator
(ii) North/South Pole
(iii) Prime Meridian
Answer:
North/South Pole

Question 7.
How many places on the earth may be located on 45° N parallel?
(i) One
(ii) Many
(iii) Two
Answer:
Many

B. Observe a globe and examine the following statements. Correct the wrong ones:

Question 1.
Parallels of latitude lie parallel to the Prime Meridian,
Answer:
Wrong: Parallels of latitude lie parallel to the equator.

Question 2.
All parallels of latitude converge at the equator.
Answer:
Wrong: All meridians of longitude converge at the poles.

Question 3.
Parallels and meridians are imaginary lines.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
8° 4′ 65″ N is a north meridian.
Answer:
Wrong: 8° 4′ 65″ N is a north parallel.

Question 5.
Meridians are parallel to each other.
Answer:
Wrong: Latitudes are parallel to each other.

C. Find the correct graticule out of the following and put a tick mark against it.

Answer:
Figure (a) is correct.

D. Answer the following:

Question 1.
How will you express the latitude and longitude of the North Pole?
Answer:
The latitude of the North Pole would be 90°N. All the meridians of longitudes pass through the North Pole. So the North pole would be 0° longitude.

Question 2.
How much is the angular distance between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn?
Answer:
The angular distance between the tropic of Cancer and tropic of Capricorn is 23°30′ + 23°30′ = 47°

Question 3.
Using a globe, write down the names of the countries through which the equator passes.
Answer:
The countries through which the equator passes are Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Sao tome and Principe, Gabon, Republic of the Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia and Kiribati.

Question 4.
Write down the main uses of the graticule.
Answer:
Graticules help us to determine the locations on the earth. In the modern age, Geographical Information Systems, Global Positioning System, Google Maps, Wikimapia, Bhuvan of ISRO also make use of graticules.

E. Complete the following table:

Characteristics	Parallels of latitude	Meridians of longitude
Shape
	Size of each parallel is different
Distance		Distance between two meridians is larger on the equator and the same decreases towards the Poles.

Answer:

Characteristics	Parallels of latitude	Meridians of longitude
Shape	Circular	Semicircular
Size	Size of each parallel is different	Size of each meridian is same
Distance	Distance between two parallels is the same everywhere	Distance between two meridians is larger on the equator and the same decreases towards the Poles.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule Textbook Questions and Answers

Think a little!

Question 1.
A game of reading the meridians on the world map is going on. Shaheen and Sanket are asking each other to locate places on specific meridians and are making notes of the same. Shaheen asks Sanket to locate Wrangel Island on 180° meridians. Sanket could locate the island in the map but both are confused while making a note of it. They are puzzled whether to write 180° E or 180° W? What would be the precise answer? Please help them. Can we use a similar logic with reference to 0° meridian as well?
Answer:
The 0° and the 180° meridians lie opposite to each other and form a circle around the earth. This circle divides the earth in the eastern and western hemisphere. Shaheen and Sanket can write the Wrangled island to be loacted on 180° meridian.

Do it yourself!

Use figure 1.4 of the geography textbook:

In the upper portion of the circle, at the centre X, draw angles of 30°, V₁ X K₁ and V₂ X K₂; K₁ and K₂ being the points on the circle. Draw an ellipse joining K₁ and K₂.
In the lower half of the circle, mark angles of 60° and name the points on the circle as P₁ and P₂.

Question 1.
Draw an ellipse joining P₁ and P₂.
Answer:

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Is the distance between K₁ K₂ and P₁ P₂ the same?
Answer:
No, the distance between K₁ K₂ and P₁ P₂ are not the same.

Question 2.
Compare the distances XK₁ and XP₂. Are these distances the same or are they different?
Answer:
Yes, the distances are the same.

Question 3.
Now compare the ellipses you have drawn. Which is the larger ellipse? Why?
Answer:
The ellipse through K₁ and K₂ is larger than the ellipse through P₁ and P₂ . This is because the distance between K₁ K₂ is greater than the distance between P₁ P₂.

Observe the picture (fig) on page 5 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Let the line AM be 0°.
Draw the line MB. Measure the angle it makes with the line AM and write it near B. Note the semicircle that passes through B and joins the North and South Poles. Trace it.
Now join MC. Measure ∠AMC and write it next to C. Draw a semicircle that passes through ‘C’ and joins the North and South Poles.
Draw a line that passes through point A at 0°, and joins the North and South Poles.

Answer:
∠AMB = 70°
∠AMC = 85°

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
How many parallels and meridians can be drawn on a globe at an interval of 10°?
Answer:
19 parallels and 36 meridians can be drawn on a globe at an interval of 10°.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule Textbook Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
A miniature model of the earth is called a _____.(ball, globe, sphere)
Answer:
globe

Question 2.
The location of any place on the earth is determined with reference to the ______ of the earth. (poles, circle, centre)
Answer:
centre

Question 3.
The _______ is considered as 0° parallel.(equator, poles, circles)
Answer:
equator

Question 4.
The ______ bisects the earth into north and south parts. (poles, equator, circles)
Answer:
equator

Question 5.
One can draw _____ parallels on the earth at the interval of 1°. (90,181,360)
Answer:

Question 6.
The 0° meridian is known as the _____. (Central meridian, Equator, Prime Meridian)
Answer:
Prime Meridian

Question 7.
Each degree is divided into 60 ______.(minutes, hours, seconds)
Answer:
minutes

Question 8.
One can draw _____ meridians each at a distance of 1°. (90,181, 360)
Answer:
360

Question 9.
All meridians are _______ in size.(unequal, equal, uneven)
Answer:
equal

Question 10.
Exact location of a place on the earth can be located using ______.(equator, latitude and longitude, Prime Meridian)
Answer:
latitude and longitude

Question 11.
The distance between any two adjacent parallels is _______ on the surface of the earth. (111 km, 102 km, 44 km)
Answer:
111 km

Question 12.
The parallels and meridians on the globe form a net that is called a ______.(latitude,graticule, longitude)
Answer:
graticule

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Different parallels	Distance between meridians
(1) Poles	(a) 111 km
(2) Tropic of Cancer	(b) 102 km
(3) Polar Circles	(c) 0 km
(4) Equator	(d) 44 km
(5) Meridians	(e) 360
	(f) 1°

Answer:
1 – c
2 – b
3 – d
4 – a
5 – e

Place a tick mark (✓) against the correct option:

Question 1.
Which meridian is considered as the Prime Meridian?
(i) 0°
(ii) 80°
(iii) 90°
Answer:
0°

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What are parallels of latitudes?
Answer:
Ellipses that are created at some angular distance from the centre of the earth and are parallel to one another are called parallels of latitudes.

Question 2.
How many parallels are there in the northern hemisphere?
Answer:
There are 90 parallels in the northern hemisphere.

Question 3.
Which circle divides the earth in the eastern and western hemisphere?
Answer:
The Prime Meridian divides the earth in the eastern and western hemisphere.

Question 4.
What is the distance between any two adjacent parallels on the surface of the earth?
Answer:
The distance between any two adjacent parallels on the surface of the earth is 111 km.

Question 5.
What is a graticule?
Answer:
The parallels and meridians on the globe form a net that is called a graticule.

Question 6.
What is used to determine the location on the earth?
Answer:
Latitude and longitude is used to determine the location on the earth.

Write the full forms of:

Question 1.
GIS
Answer:
Geographical Information System

Question 2.
GPS
Answer:
Global Positioning System

Question 3.
IRNSS
Answer:
Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System

Question 4.
ISRO
Answer:
Indian Space Research Organisation

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Parallels and meridians are imaginary lines on the earth.
Answer:
Parallels and meridians can be drawn on a globe though not on the earth. That is why parallels and meridians are imaginary lines on the earth.

Question 2.
Geographers developed a miniature model of the earth in the form of a globe.
Answer:
Oceanic waters, uneven nature of the land, forest, innumerable islands of different sizes and buildings make it impossible to draw lines on the earth. In order to overcome this difficulty, geographers developed a miniature model of the earth in the form of a globe.

Question 3.
Latitude and longitudes are expressed into degree, minutes and seconds.
Answer:
To locate the places within the distance of 111 km exactly, the unit degree is divided into smaller units. Degrees are divided into minutes and seconds.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of the term ‘equator’.
Answer:

• The equator is considered as 0° parallel.
• It is the largest parallel and great circle.
• It bisects the earth into two equal hemispheres viz, the northern and southern hemisphere.

Question 2.
What are Poles of the earth?
Answer:
On the globe and also on the earth, at the north and south ends of the earth’s axis, Poles appear as points. These are called the North Pole and the South Pole respectively.

Observe a globe and examine the following statements. Correct the wrong ones:

Question 1.
Parallels of latitude lie parallel to the Prime Meridian,
Answer:
Wrong: Parallels of latitude lie parallel to the equator.

Question 2.
All parallels of latitude converge at the equator.
Answer:
Wrong: All meridians of longitude converge at the poles.

Question 3.
Parallels and meridians are imaginary lines.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
80° 4′ 65″ N is a north meridian.
Answer:
Wrong: 80° 4′ 65″ N is a north parallel.

Question 5.
Meridians are parallel to each other.
Answer:
Wrong: Latitudes are parallel to each other.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 10 Cell and Cell Organelles Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 10 Cell and Cell Organelles

Class 8 Science Chapter 10 Cell and Cell Organelles Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Who am I?

Question a.
I am ATP producing factory.
Answer:
Mitochondria

Question b.
I am single-layered but maintain cellular osmotic pressure.
Answer:
Vacuole

Question c.
I support the cell, but I am not cell wall. I have a body resembling net.
Answer:
Endoplasmic reticulum

Question d.
I am chemical factory of the cell.
Answer:
Chloroplasts in case of plant cells can be called chemical factory as they synthesise carbohydrates. Ribosomes also synthesise proteins, so those can also be called chemical factory. Golgi complex is secretory in function, hence it can be also called factory. Mitochondria though mainly referred to as powerhouse of the cell, it is also mentioned as chemical factory by some authors.

Question e.
Leaves are green because of me.
Answer:
Chloroplast.

2. What would have happened? If……….

Question a.
RBCs had mitochondria.
Answer:
Mitochondria continuously carry out oxidation and form energy inside the cell. They produce energy-rich compound, ATP. In this process, they utilize carbohydrates, fats and proteins present in the cell. If RBCs has mitochondria, they would have used oxygen for this purpose than carrying it to all the cells of the body. The cells would not have obtained oxygen.

Question b.
There had been no difference between mitochondria and plastids.
Answer:
Mitochondria carry out oxidation of carbohydrates, fats, etc. with the help of enzymes. Plastids are synthesising carbohydrates with the help of solar energy and chlorophyll. Both the cell organelles have their own sets of different enzymes as per their role. If there would have been no difference between mitochondria and plastids, the specific functions would not have been taken place.

Question c.
Genes had been absent on the chromosomes.
Answer:
Genes are functional segments on the chromosomes which are responsible for transmitting the hereditary information.

Question d.
Plasma membrane had not been selectively permeable.
Answer:
Selectively permeable membrane allows some substances to enter the cell, while prevents other unwanted or harmful substances. If plasma membrane would not have been selectively permeable, there would be no control over entry and exit of any substances. The process of osmosis would also be erroneous in such case.

Question e.
Plants lacked anthocyanin.
Answer:
If plants lacked anthocyanin, no part of the plant would display purple or blue colour. Anthocyanin attracts the insects for pollination and seed dispersal. These processes will be affected due to lack of anthocyanin. These pigments are also said to be protective in nature for the plant. This protection will not be given to the plant in absence of anthocyanin.

3. Who is odd man among us? Give reason.

Question a.
Nucleolus, mitochondria, plastids, endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
Nucleolus. (All the others are cell organelles but nucleolus is not a cell organelle present in cytoplasm.)

Question b.
DNA, Ribosomes, Chlorophyll
Answer:
Chlorophyll. (DNA and Ribosomes are present in plant as well as in animal cells. Chlorophyll is present only in plant cells.)

4. Give functions.

Question a.
Plasma membrane.

Answer:

1. Plasma membrane acts as a selectively permeable membrane. It allows entry of those useful substances which are needed for the cell. It does not allow entry of the harmful and unwanted substances.
2. Plasma membrane keeps the homeostasis in the cell. The cell is kept in steady state even if the external environment changes.
3. Plasma membrane is responsible for processes of endocytosis and exocytosis.
4. The processes of diffusion and osmosis are possible only due to plasma membrane.
5. In animal cells, plasma membrane is the outermost protective covering of the cell.

Question b.
Cytoplasm.
Answer:

1. All the cell organelles are spread in the cytoplasm of a cell.
2. The cytoplasm is the medium for many cellular chemical reactions.
3. The cytosol which is the part of cytoplasm other than cell organelles stores many vital substances like amino acids, glucose, vitamins, etc.
4. Cytosol also helps in the cellular movements.

Question c.
Lysosome.

Answer:

1. Lysosome helps in the destruction of attacking viruses and bacteria and thereby help in the immune response.
2. Lysosomes act as demolition squads. They destroy worn-out cellular organelles and organic debris. This process is called autolysis which All Pagesmeans self-destruction.
3. They are also called suicide bags as in a worn out, damaged or old cell, lysosomes automatically burst. The lytic enzymes present in the lysosome digest their own cells.
4. Lysosomes can digest stored proteins, fats during starvation.

Question d.
Vacuole.

Answer:

1. Vacuoles maintain the osmotic pressure of the cell.
2. Various metabolic byproducts and end products such as glycogen, proteins, water, etc. are stored in the lysosome.
3. In food vacuole of amoeba, the food is temporarily stored till digestion. In other animal cells, vacuoles can store waste products and food.
4. Vacuoles of plant cells can provide turgidity and rigidity as it contains good amount of cell sap.

Question e.
Nucleus.

Answer:

1. Nucleus is the controlling centre for the entire cell.
2. It controls all metabolic activities of the cell.
3. The cell division is possible due to the nucleus.
4. The chromosomes present in the nucleus carry the genes. These genes are responsible for the transmission of hereditary characters from parental generation to the next generations.

5. Who gives me the colour? (Select the correct option).

Question a.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Red tomato	a. Chlorophyll
2. Green leaf	b. Carotene
3. Carrot	c. Anthocyanin
4. Violet	d. Lycopene

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Red tomato	d. Lycopene
2. Green leaf	a. Chlorophyll
3. Carrot	b. Carotene
4. Violet	c. Anthocyanin

Project:

Question 1.
Prepare model of a cell using different ecofriendly materials.

Question 2.
Study osmosis using parchment paper or a similar membrane.

Question 3.
Form a friends’ group in your class. Give each one role of a cell organelle. Present a skit accordingly.

Class 8 Science Chapter 10 Cell and Cell Organelles Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
Cell wall is mainly composed of carbohydrates like ……….. and …………. .
Answer:
Cell wall is mainly composed of carbohydrates like cellulose and pectin.

Question 2.
Plasma membrane is said to be a ……………. …………….. membrane as it allows some substances to enter the cell, while prevents other substances.
Answer:
Plasma membrane is said to be a selectively permeable membrane as it allows some substances to enter the cell, while prevents other substances.

Question 3.
Homeostasis is maintained in the cell by ………….. .
Answer:
Homeostasis is maintained in the cell by plasma membrane.

Question 4.
An …………… is a specialized subunit having specific function within the cell.
Answer:
An organelle is a specialized subunit having specific function within the cell.

Question 5.
……………. has ribosome granules on its outer surface.
Answer:
Rough ER has ribosome granules on its outer surface.

Question 6.
During starvation, ………………… digest stored proteins, fats.
Answer:
During starvation, lysosomes digest stored proteins, fats.

Question 7.
……………….. is the secretory organ of the cell.
Answer:
Golgi complex is the secretory organ of the cell.

Question 8.
……………. compound ATP is produced in the mitochondria.
Answer:
Energy-rich compound ATP is produced in the mitochondria.

Given below are incorrect statements. Rewrite them after correcting them:

Question 1.
In mitochondria, the inner membrane is porous and the outer membrane is deeply folded.
Answer:
In mitochondria, the outer membrane is porous and the inner membrane is deeply folded.

Question 2.
Vacuole is bound by double membrane.
Answer:
Vacuole is bound by single membrane.

Question 3.
If fruit pieces are kept in thick saturated sugar solution, the water from fruit pieces enter the sugar solution resulting into their swelling.
Answer:
If fruit pieces are kept in a thick saturated sugar solution, the water from fruit pieces enter the sugar solution resulting into their shrinking.

Question 4.
Raisins kept in water shrink after an hour.
Answer:
Raisins kept in water swell after an hour.

Question 5.
Lysosome produces vacuoles and secretory vesicles.
Answer:
Golgi complex produces vacuoles and secretory vesicles.

Who gives me the colour? (Select the correct option)

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Nucleus	a. Pipelines of the cell
2. Endoplasmic reticulum	b. Powerhouse of the cell
3. Golgi complex	c. Suicidal bags
4. Mitochondria	d. Packing department
5. Lysosomes	e. Controlling centre

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Nucleus	e. Controlling centre
2. Endoplasmic reticulum	a. Pipelines of the cell
3. Golgi complex	d. Packing department
4. Mitochondria	b. Powerhouse of the cell
5. Lysosomes	c. Suicidal bags

Find the odd one out by giving suitable reasons:

Question 1.
Demolition squads, Suicide Bags, Immune system, Powerhouse of the cell.
Answer:
A powerhouse of the cell. (All the others are descriptions of the lysosomes.)

Question 2.
Lignin, Suberin, Cutin, Iodine
Answer:
Iodine. (All the others are polymers present in the cell wall.)

Question 3.
Nucleolus, Genes, Chromosomes, Ribosomes
Answer:
Ribosomes. (All the others are inclusions in the nucleus.)

Write definitions/Give meanings:

1. Homeostasis: The tendency of the cell to keep the cellular environment constant in spite of changes in the outer: environment is called homeostasis.

2. Endocytosis: To take in the food or any other substance from outer environment into the cell is called endocytosis.

3. Exocytosis: To give out the unwanted substances from the cell to the outer « environment is called exocytosis.

4. Diffusion: The movement of the molecules from region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration is called diffusion.

5. Osmosis: The movement of solute from low concentration to high concentration and the movement of solvent from high concentration to the region of low concentration across semipermeable membrane is called osmosis.

6. Plasmolysis: When the cell is kept ?! in hypertonic medium, the water exits through the process of exosmosis causing shrinkage of the cytoplasm, this is known as plasmolysis.

7. Isotonic solution: When the concentration of the cell and that of the medium in which the cell is kept is same, then such solution is called isotonic solution.

8. Hypotonic solution: When the concentration of the water in the cell is less than that of the concentration of the water in the surrounding medium in which the cell is kept, then such solution is called hypotonic solution.

9. Hypertonic solution: When the concentration of the water in the cell is more than that of the concentration of water in the surrounding medium then such solution is called hypertonic solution.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell:
Answer:

Prokaryotic cell	Eukaryotic cell
1. Nucleoid is present instead of a well-formed nucleus.	1. Nucleus is well-formed with nuclear membrane, chromatin network and nucleolus.
2. Chromosome number is always one.	2. Chromosome number is more than one and is specific for every species.
3. Membrane-bound cell organelles are absent.	3. There are membrane-bound cell organelles.
4. The size of the cell is 1 to 10 micrometre. Example: Bacteria	4. The size of the cell is 5 to 100 micrometre. Example: All highly evolved unicellular and multicellular plants and animals.

Question 2.
Plant cell and animal cell
Answer:

Plant cell	Animal cell
1. The cell wall is the outermost covering on the cell. The plant cells have both cell wall and the cell membrane	1. The cell membrane or plasma membrane is the outermost covering of the cell. The animal cells do not have cell wall
2. The vacuoles are large and centrally placed.	2. The vacuoles are small and uniformly distributed in the cytoplasm.
3. There are plastids in the plant cells. The chloroplasts have chlorophyll.	3. The plastids are absent in the animal cells.
4. The lysosomes are absent in the plant cells.	4. Lysosomes are present in the animal cells. They contain digestive enzymes.
5. The cytoplasm is thin and pushed to the periphery due to central vacuole.	5. The cytoplasm is dense and granular. It is uniformly spread throughout the cell.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What are the components of plasma membrane?
Answer:
In plasma membrane, protein molecules are embedded in two layers of phospholipids.

Question 2.
Which part of the cell maintains the homeostasis?
Answer:
Plasma membrane of the cell maintains the homeostasis.

Question 3.
What are genes?
Answer:
Genes are the functional segments on the chromosomes that carry hereditary i information from the parental generation to the offspring.

Question 4.
What is meant by rough ER?
Answer:
The endoplasmic reticulum that has ribosomes on its outer membrane is called rough ER.

Question 5.
Write the examples of plant pigments.
Answer:
Chlorophyll, Carotene, Xanthophyll, Anthocyanin, Betalains and Lycopene are some of the plant pigments.

Question 6.
What are the inclusions in the stroma of chloroplasts?
Answer:
Enzymes, DNA, ribosomes and carbohydrates that are necessary for photosynthesis are present in the stroma of the chloroplasts.

Question 7.
Which staining technique was developed by Camilio Golgi? Where was this technique used?
Answer:
Camilio Golgi developed the staining technique called ‘Black reaction’ which was used in the study of nervous system.

Question 8.
What type of work is done by National Centre for Cell Science?
Answer:
National Centre for Cell Science – NCCS is involved in research in cytology and research about cancer treatment and it also provides services for National Animal cell repository.

Question 9.
Ripe tomatoes appear red.
Answer:
When green tomatoes become ripe they lose chlorophyll and develop red pigment in them called lycopene. Therefore, ripe tomatoes appear red.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Raisins swell after keeping in plain water.
Answer:
When raisins are placed in plain water, there is action of endosmosis. The outer skin of raisins acts like selectively permeable membrane. Since the concentration of water inside the raisin is lesser than the concentration of water in the outer medium, water enters in the raisin. This causes raisins to swell after keeping them in plain water.

Question 2.
The fruit pieces kept in sugar syrup show shrinking.
Answer:
There is more concentration of water in the fruit pieces as compared to the concentration of water in the sugar syrup. Therefore, water is lost out by exosmosis. The membranes of the fruit pieces act as selectively permeable membranes. Thus the process of plasmolysis occurs resulting into shrinking of the fruit pieces.

Question 3.
The nucleus of the sieve tubes of the plant phloem is lost.
Answer:
The sieve tubes of the plant phloem conduct the food in plants. To make this transport easier, the nucleus of the sieve tubes of the plant phloem is lost,

Question 4.
Plant cells have less mitochondria than those of animal cells.
Answer:
Mitochondria are the cell organelles which are called powerhouse of the cell. They produce energy in the form of ATP. Animals are motile and need more energy for walking, running and moving. Plants are stationary. They do not need energy to greater extent. Therefore, they have lesser number of mitochondria.

Question 5.
Vacuoles do not have any typical size or shape.
Answer:
Vacuoles change their shape and size as per the need of the cell. Thus they do not have any fixed shape or size.

Question 6.
Ripe tomatoes appear red.
Answer:
When green tomatoes become ripe they lose chlorophyll and develop red pigment in them called lycopene. Therefore, ripe tomatoes appear red.

Give functions:

Question 1.
Endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer:

1. Endoplasmic reticulum or ER is the supporting framework of the cell.
2. The ribosomes attached to the membrane of the ER synthesize proteins. These proteins are conducted by ER.
3. The detoxification process is done by ER. The toxins that enter the cell through food, air and water are removed out by making them water soluble.

Question 2.
Golgi complex.

Answer:

1. Different secretions are prepared in the Golgi complex. Hence it is called the secretory organ of the cell.
2. The secretions are modified and sorted out as per their functions. They are further packed.
3. The enzymes, mucus, proteins, pigments, etc. are sorted and then dispatched to various target regions like plasma membrane, lysosome, etc.
4. Golgi complex also produces vacuoles and secretory vesicles.
5. Formation of cell wall, plasma membrane and lysosomes is aided by Golgi complex.

Question 3.
Plastids.
Answer:

1. Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll. They carry out the process of photosynthesis. They convert solar energy to chemical energy in the form of food.
2. Chromoplasts with different pigments can impart different colours to flowers and fruits.
3. Leucoplasts are responsible for the synthesis and storage of food like starch, oils and proteins.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How does endosmosis and exosmosis occur in the cell?
Answer:

1. When the water concentration inside the cell is less as compared to the medium in which it is present, then the endosmosis takes place. This makes the water to enter inside the cell.
2. When water concentration inside the cell is more than the water concentration in the medium in which it is present, then the water comes out of the cell. This is called exosmosis.
3. Since the cell membrane acts as a semipermeable membrane, the processes of endosmosis and exosmosis takes place in the cell.

Question 2.
What is cytoplasm? What are the constituents of cytoplasm?
Answer:

1. The jelly like material present between the cell membrane and nucleus is called cytoplasm.
2. Cytoplasm without cell organelles is called cytosol.
3. All the cell organelles are spread in the cytoplasm.
4. Cytosol stores many vital constituents such as amino acids, glucose, vitamins, etc.
5. The cytoplasm of animal cells is dense and granular while that of plant cells is thin and peripheral. It is pushed to sides due to large central vacuole.

Question 3.
Describe the structure of the nucleus in the cell.

Answer:

1. Nucleus is the most important part of the eukaryotic cell.
2. Inside the nucleus there is round darkly stained nucleolus.
3. The nucleus is covered over by double membrane which is porous.
4. The nuclear pores allow the transport of different substances in and out of the nucleus to cytoplasm.
5. Inside the nucleus is the chromatin network which contains chromosomes. Chromatin fibres are thin which condense to form chromosomes. The chromosomes become clear and distinct at the time of cell division.
6. In every cell there are specific number of chromosomes. Chromosomes contain genes which are bearers of hereditary characters.

Question 4.
Why is endoplasmic reticulum compared with the pipelines?
Answer:

1. The endoplasmic reticulum works as pipelines to carry different substances in the cell.
2. It is a net like structure consisting of interconnected small tubes and sheets filled with fluid.
3. On the inner side the E.R. is connected to nucleus while at the outer side it is in contact with plasma membrane. Therefore, it works like a pipeline.

Question 5.
Write an account of the different structures seen in Golgi complex.
Answer:

1. Golgi complex is made up of 5-8 hollow and flat sacs called cisternae.
2. These are placed parallel to each other and are filled with different enzymes.
3. Golgi complex has two faces called forming face and maturation face.
4. The proteins packed in vesicles and coming from ER reach Golgi complex through cytoplasm.
5. They fuse with the formation face of the Golgi membranes for emptying their contents in the cisternae.
6. When these contents pass through the cisternae, they are chemically modified with the help of enzymes and are again packed in the vesicles.
7. These vesicles come out of Golgi ‘ complex at the maturation face.

Question 6.
How is energy produced in the mitochondria? How the structures of mitochondria help in this process?
Answer:

1. Around every mitochondrion there is a double membrane.
2. The outer membrane of these is porous while the inner membrane is deeply folded.
3. These folds or ‘cristae’ enclose the matrix filled with proteinaceous gel containing ribosomes, phosphate granules and DNA. Protein synthesis takes place in this matrix.
4. Mitochondria carry out oxidation of carbohydrates and fats in the cell. This produces energy in the form of ATP, s i.e. Adenosine Tri Phosphate

Question 7.
What is the benefit of foldings of inner membrane in mitochondria?

Answer:
The structure of the inner mitochondrial membrane is extensively folded and compartmentalized. The numerous imaginations of the membrane are called cristae. This folded inner membrane increases the area which is about 5 times more than that the outer membrane due to cristae. Cristae membranes have small round protein complexes known as Fx particles. In these particles the process of energy production goes on.

Research:

Question 1.
Keep 4 – 5 raisins in water and observe after an hour. Afterward, keep the same raisins in sugar solution and observe after an hour. Note down the observations and discuss in the classroom.
Answer:
When raisins are kept in water its outer skin acts as a semi-permeable membrane. The water content inside the raisin is lesser as compared to the water content in the outside medium. Therefore the water enters in the raisins due to process of endosmosis. Thus if raisins kept in plain water are observed after one hour, they are seen to be swollen.

On the other hand, if raisins are kept in sugar solution, they show plasmolysis and they shrink. The sugar solution acts as hypertonic medium. Water content in the raisin is higher than that present in the sugary solution. Thus water exists from raisins and its content thus shrinks.

Question 2.
Wooden doors fit very tightly in rainy season. Why does it happen?
Answer:
During rainy season there is more humidity in air. The doors get soaked in rain water. Though wood is non-living, it has the ability to absorb water. As the moisture is more in the surrounding area, it enters the wood. This is a type of endosmosis. It causes the doors to swell. The swollen doors then fit very tightly.

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Structure of the cell:

Answer:

(iii) Complete the chart:

Answer:

Component	Animal cell	Plant cell
Cell membrane	Present	Present
Cell wall	Absent	Present
Lysosomes	Present	Absent
Plastids	Absent	Present
Endoplasmic reticulum	Present	Present
Vocuole	Present	Present
Golgi complex	Present	Present
Mitochondria	Present	Present

Question 2.
Sketch the diagrams to show how osmosis occurs in plant cell if kept separately in isotonic, hypotonic and hypertonic medium.
Answer:

Question 3.
Sketch the diagrams to show how osmosis occurs in animal cell if kept separately in isotonic, hypotonic and hypertonic medium
Answer:

Activity-based questions:

Question 1.
Experiment Activity – Take a drop of water on a clean glass slide. Using an ice-cream spoon, gently scrap the inner surface of your cheek. With a needle, transfer a little material from spoon to the water drop on the slide and spread it evenly. Put a drop of methylene blue stain on the smear. Put a cover slip and observe under microscope. Did you observe the cells with blue nucleus?
Answer:
Students should do this activity at school laboratory. There are squamous epithelial cells in the inner side of the cheek. When stained with methylene blue the nucleus takes up dark stain and can be seen clearly.

Question 2.
Experiment Activity – Take out a thin peel of Rheo or Croton leaf and observe the chromoplasts under the compound microscope.
Answer:
Students are expected to do the observations in the school laboratory.

Question 3.
Can you recall? Observe the cells of onion peel under the microscope. Have you seen the fully turgid, rectangular cells of onion peelings?

Answer:
Students are expected to do the observations in the school laboratory.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 9 Disaster Management Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 9 Disaster Management

Class 8 Science Chapter 9 Disaster Management Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer the following in your own words.

Question a.
Explain the relation between continuous rains and landslide. Give reasons.
Answer:
Before the actual landslide, many changes occur in the surrounding hilly ground. The hard rocks develop cracks and crevices. These are natural changes but due to man-made activities, the cracks are widened due to erosion. These cracks make the big rocks to break into smaller stones. The cracks widen further due to excessive rainfall. These rocks further get eroded and they fall down along with soil from the slopes. The entire process is speeded up due to rainwater.

Question b.
Prepare a chart showing ‘Dos’ and ‘don’ts’ at the time of earthquake.
Answer:
At the time of earthquake

Dos	Don’ts
1. Go in the open grounds.	1. Don’t wait in the multi-storeyed buildings. Do not use lifts. Use stairs to descend.
2. Keep the electrical appliances and cooking gas closed.	2. Do not stand near buildings, trees or electric wires and poles.
3. Use battery or torch.	3. Do not light candles, lantern or match- sticks.
4. Stand silently at one place. Do not panic or get scared.	4. Do not sit in uncomfortable posture for a long time.
5. Take protection under some hard covering, especially to protect the head and face. Cover the face.
6. If, in vehicle, find a safe place and stop the vehicle, sit in the vehicle than coming out in open.

Question c.
What are the specifications of an earthquake-proof building?
Answer:
The earthquake-proof building is such that even if the earthquake is caused, it should not cause damage to the buildings due to these earth movements. There are some codes of conduct while constructing such buildings. Advanced technology is used for earthquake resistant construction. The foundation of earthquake-proof building is separated from lower land. The walls are of less weight or they are wooden. The house constructed with special light materials are preferred in earthquake-prone regions.

Question d.
Explain the effects of landslide.
Answer:
1. Mostly rivers originate in the hills and mountains. When there is landslide, the rivers naturally get flooded.
2. The paths of the riverine water changes due to landslide.
3. Waterfalls are displaced from their original positions.
4. New and artificial water reservoirs are created.
5. The falling debris, soil and rocks make the trees at the base of hillside uprooted. All the plant life is lost.
6. The constructions done by the villagers on the slope can be totally damaged due to landslide. There is large scale damage to property and life. In few cases like Malin the entire village was buried due to landslide and accompanied rainfall.
7. Transportation is affected as the roads and railway tracks are blocked due to debris.

Question e.
Is there any relation between dam and earthquake? Explain.
Answer:
There is abundant water stored in the dams. This water column puts additional weight on the ground. Initially there may not be any weight, but later due to construction of dam, suddenly the pressure of this weight is so high that this ground experiences the tension. If such area is already earthquake-prone, then there can be chances of earthquake. According to theory of plate tectonics, there are continuous movements in the earth’s surface. If over such fragile plates, the dams are constructed then the chances of earthquake are enhanced.

2. Give Scientific reasons.

Question a.
It is safer to find shelter under things like a bed, table at the time of earthquake.
Answer:
When earthquake takes place, due to the vibrations in the earth’s surface, there is possibility of the roof and walls of the house to fall. This collapse can cause severe head injury which can be fatal. Thus, one must take shelter below the hard-supporting structures such as bed or table. This precaution can save one’s life.

Question b.
In monsoon, don’t take shelter near hillside.
Answer:
The excessive rainfall can cause landslides. The soil and rocks from the hillside can be pushed down along with the flow of rainwater. This debris slides to the lower heights from the hills. This explains us that taking shelter near the base of the hillside can be disastrous as one can be buried in the debris due to sudden landslide. Therefore, in monsoon, one should not take shelter near hillside.

Question c.
Don’t use lifts at the time of earthquake.
Answer:
Lifts or elevators run on electricity. The electricity supply can be hindered due to earthquake. There may be chances of fire due to short circuit. We may get trapped in the elevator at such times. The building may also collapse due to earthquake. It is always better to use stairs at the time of such calamities, so that one can safely come out of the building. Therefore, it is said that lifts should not be used at the time of earthquakes.

Question d.
The foundation of earthquake- proof building is separated from lower land.
Answer:
The surface of the earth trembles at the time of earthquake. These tremors cause seismic waves which are responsible for the movements of the earth’s surface. The ground thus shakes or it goes up-down. These shocks and waves formed in the interior of the earth spread on the surface in all directions. This causes collapse of the building and other structures on the land.
To prevent such disasters the foundation of earth-quake proof building is separated from lower land.

3. If a crowd gathers at the place of earthquake, what would be the difficulties in relief work?

Question a.
If a crowd gathers at the place of earthquake, what would be the difficulties in relief work?
Answer:
If people flock in crowd, the rescue work will not be possible. The ambulances and the fire engines will not reach the spot where the help is needed. The personnel from disaster management cells cannot thus act in time. It will be difficult to manage the situation and thus such crowding should never be done.

4. Make a list of the institutes and organizations who provide help for disaster managment. Collect more information about their work.

Question a.
Make a list of the institutes and organizations who provide help for disaster management. Collect more information about their work.
Answer:
International government organisations working for disaster management are:
a. The United Nations and its organisations:
1. The Food and Agricultural Organisation of the UN (FAO): It gives early warning of impending food crises, and keep track of global food supply problems.
2. The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP): It helps disaster-prone countries with disaster mitigation, prevention and preparedness measures.
3. The World Food Programme (WFP): It is the main supplier of relief food aid.
4. The World Health Organisation (WHO): It gives global public health leadership by setting standards, monitoring health trends, and providing direction on emergency health issues. WHO’s role is to reduce avoidable loss of life and the burden of disease and disability.

b. The International Committee of the Red Cross ( ICRC): It gives physical rehabilitation to people injured by explosive weapons or other types of incident.

c. The International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies ( IFRC): It coordinates and gives international help to victims of natural and technological disasters, to refugees and in health emergencies.

International non-governmental agencies working for disaster management are:
a. International Rescue Committee (IRC): It provides lifesaving care and life-changing help to refugees forced to flee from war or disaster.

b. IMA World Health: It, in collaboration with USAID, the World Bank and many other organisations, builds sustainable health care systems.

c. CARE: It is an organisation fighting global poverty. It works for women and puts efforts to improve their basic education, prevent the spread of HIV by providing awareness among them, give them increase access to clean water and sanitation, expand economic opportunity for them. It provides emergency aid to survivors of war and natural disasters, and helps people rebuild their lives.

Indian organisations and institutes working for disaster management are:
a. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF): The multi-disciplinary, multi-skilled, high-tech force of the NDMA are capable of dealing with all types of natural and man-made disasters.

b. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA): It lay down the policies, plans and guidelines for Disaster Management to ensure timely and effective response to disasters.

c. National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM): It has been given the responsibilities for human resource development, capacity building, training, research, documentation and policy advocacy in the field of disaster management.

5. Make a survey of your school according to the plan of disaster management an write the pointwise information.

Question a.
Make a survey of your school according to the plan of disaster managment an write the pointwise information.
Answer:

This an activity based questions. Kindly do it yourself. But make sure to involve the following points in your survey:

• Primary information of the school: It should include information such as name and address of the school and Head Master, total number of school staff and name and phone numbers of school management members.
• School disaster management committee: Get the information of the members involved in disaster management committee.
• Detailed information about school building: Note the number of rooms, classroom, age of the building, types of roofs under this point.
• Information about school ground: It should include information like distance of ground from the main road, types of play grounds.
• Daily routine of the school: It should include information like working time of the school, lunch break time for the school.
• Possible hazards in the school: It should information such as record of past disaster happened in school, current planning for overcoming disasters.
• Disaster management map of the school: It should have information regarding all the buildings of the school, entrances and exit gates, place of probable danger, safer place at the time of disaster.

6. Are there any possible places of landslide in your area? Collect information from experts.

Question a.
Are there any possible places of landslide in your area? Collect information from experts.
Answer:
This is an activity based question. kindly do it yourself.

7. With the help of the following pictures, explain your role in disaster management.

Question a.
With the help of following pictures, explain your role in the disaster management.
Answer:

The picture given is not very clear. It does not indicate the condition of disaster. Therefore, there are two alternatives for this answer.
Option 1 : The boy holds a paper on which is written, ‘I am at risk’! The boy is shocked to read this. Someone has given message to him. He must search that person and help him or her. He should therefore take help from some elder or from police force in such matter.

Option 2 : The boy shown in the picture is in danger. So, he is typing in his I – pad, “I am at Risk”. After receiving this message, someone will help him. It depends upon, to whom is he sending this message. If he sends this message to us, we can immediately try to help him. His message “I am at Risk”, shows that he is in danger and has to be saved.
It is not clear about which disaster is shown in the picture.

Project:

Question 1.
Make a collection of news, photos. and cuttings about landslides and rift collapse.

Question 2.
With the help of Internet, collect information about the latest gadgets and technology to forecast earthquake.

Question 3.
Collect information about NDRF, RPF, CRPF, NCC from Internet.

Question 4.
Discuss- Need of CCTV.

Class 8 Science Chapter 9 Disaster Management Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
Earthquakes cause ……………. waves leading to movements of the earth’s surface.
Answer:
Earthquakes cause seismic waves leading to movements of the earth’s surface.

Question 2.
The central point of earthquake is the point above the ……………. on the earth’s surface.
Answer:
The central point of earthquake is the point above the epicentre on the earth’s surface.

Question 3.
The accentuation of earthquake is measured in …………… .
Answer:
The accentuation of earthquake is measured in ‘Richter Scale’.

Question 4.
If there is earthquake at the bottom of ocean, it may create ……………… waves.
Answer:
If there is earthquake at the bottom of ocean, it may create tsunami waves.

Question 5.
…………….. is the best device to put off small fires.
Answer:
Stirrup pump is the best device to put off small fires.

Question 6.
………………. of waterfalls occurs due to landslides.
Answer:
Displacement of waterfalls occurs due to landslides.

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
Every year nearly 2,400 to 4,000 earthquakes occur on the earth.
Answer:
False. (Every year nearly 12,400 to 14,000 earthquakes occur on the earth.)

Question 2.
Potassium, sodium and calcium are the metals that react with water at high room temperature.
Answer:
False. (Potassium, sodium and calcium are the metals that react with water at normal room temperature.)

Question 3.
A fire caused due to electrical components is extinguished by fire extinguishers like carbon dioxide are used.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Indiscriminate cutting of the trees results in improvement of soil quality.
Answer:
False. (Indiscriminate cutting of the trees results in soil erosion.)

Question 5.
Landslide results in loss of plant life.
Answer:
True.

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Class A fire	a. Electrical components
2. Class B fire	b. Gaseous substances
3. Class C fire	c. Chemical substances
4. Class D fire	d. Liquid substances
5. Class E fire	e. Solid substances

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Class A fire	e. Solid substances
2. Class B fire	d. Liquid substances
3. Class C fire	b. Gaseous substances
4. Class D fire	c. Chemical substances
5. Class E fire	a. Electrical components

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Earthquake	a. Formation of artificial water reservoir
2. Tsunami	b. Wildlife lost
3. Forest fire	c. Loss of coastal regions
4. Landslide	d. Change in the level of groundwater-table

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Earthquake	d. Change in the level of groundwater-table
2. Tsunami	c. Loss of coastal regions
3. Forest fire	b. Wildlife lost
4. Landslide	a. Formation of artificial water reservoir

Name the following:

Question 1.
Modern equipment to get prior intimation about earthquake:
Answer:

1. Laser ranging
2. Very long baseline
3. Geiger counter
4. Creep meter
5. Strain meter
6. Tide gauge
7. Tilt meter
8. Volumetric strain gauge.

Question 2.
Some code of conduct made by Indian Standard Institute for construction of buildings:
Answer:

1. IS 456
2. IS 1893
3. IS 13920

Question 3.
The subcommittees of School Disaster Management.
Answer:

1. Fire extinguisher
2. Awareness
3. Instructions
4. Traffic management
5. Safety
6. Communication committee.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which is the instrument or machine that records the intensity of earthquake?
Answer:
The machine/Instrument which records the earthquakes is called ‘Seismograph’ or ‘Seismometer’.

Question 2.
Which is the most common and effective solution for extinguishing fire ?
Answer:
Spraying water is the most common and effective solution for extinguishing fire.:

Question 3.
Which type of fires can be extinguished by the method of suppressing?
Answer:
To extinguish the fires caused due to electricity or oil, the method of suppressing the fire can be used.

Question 4.
Which metals react with water at normal room temperature?
Answer:
Combustible metals like potassium, sodium and calcium, react with water at normal room temperature.

Question 5.
Which metals react with water at higher temperatures?
Answer:
Magnesium, aluminum and zinc react with water at high temperatures.

Question 6.
Which institutes have launched a program to forecast the landslides and its effects?
Answer:
The Government of India in collaboration with Indian Mountaineering Institute and International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development has launched a program to forecast the landslides and its effects.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
The electric mains are shut off immediately after the earthquake.
Answer:
There is increased possibility of short circuit after the earthquake. This may result in fire. The earthquake has already – brought the disaster. To prevent further destruction, the electric mains are shut off immediately after the earthquake.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Types of fire:
Answer:
There are five types of fire. This division is based on two criteria, viz.
(i) Which substance is being burnt, (ii) What is the method of extinguishing it.
1. Class A Fire: Commonly inflammable solid things such as wood, clothes, coal, papers can be burnt by this type of fire. This fire is extinguished by spraying water over it. This is also called cooling out. Water is effectively used to put off class A fire.

2. Class B Fire: Flammable liquid substances such as petrol, oil, varnish, solvents, cooking oil, paints, etc. catch fire and it is called class B fire. Since these substances are lighter than water, they can be extinguished only by foaming fire extinguishers.

3. Class C Fire: The fire caused due to gaseous substances is called class C fire. Domestic gas (L.P.G.) and acetylene can cause such kind of fire.

4. Class D Fire: Combustible metals catch class D fire. Metals such as potassium, sodium and calcium, can react with water at normal room temperature whereas magnesium, aluminium and zinc react with water at high temperature. When both these groups combine with water, it causes explosion.

5. Class E Fire: When electric components are subjected to fire, they form class C fire. Such fires can be caused by short circuit or due to problems in electric fittings. Such fire is extinguished with the help of carbon dioxide and non-conductive fire extinguishers.

Question 2.
Disaster relief – planning.
Answer:
Anyone can face disaster at any time. The only way to tackle with such disasters is to keep preparedness to deal with any calamity. Schools, colleges and various offices need to chalk out a detailed planning in case of possible disasters. With this purpose in mind, disaster relief planning is done.

E.g. In the disaster relief planning for school, primary information of the school, the structure of School Disaster Management Committee, detailed information about school building and information about school ground, daily routine of the school such as at what time the school starts and what time does it end, the possible hazards in the school, and disaster management map of the school is included.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What are the different ways to extinguish fire? Write briefly about them.
Answer:
There are three main methods to extinguish the fire. These methods are used to stop the spread of fire and to avoid the financial and other losses.
1. Cooling out by use of water: Water is easily available and can be used for putting off fire instantly. Due to spraying of water, there is cooling effect produced which helps in reducing the loss by fire. Fire can be easily controlled by water.

2. Suppressing the fire by covering it: When there is a fire due to electricity or oil it has to be controlled by covering the fire by sand or soil. When the froth is spread on the fire, there is no contact between air and fire. This puts off the fire and stops the spread of fire caused due to oil.

3. Keep away Flammable Substances: Care is taken to keep away all flammable substances from the fire. Wooden articles and inflammable substances are kept in such as way the fire will not engulf it. Stirrup pumps are used to put off small fires by which the water is spread in all directions around the fire.

Question 2
What are the safety measures and precautions to stop the fire?
Answer:

1. Switching off the regulator of cooking gas cylinder when not in use. Put off the connections of all electrical appliances when not in use.
2. If there is fire, call others immediately for help. Take help of others by calling them. Also help others who are in need to save their lives from fire.
3. Get help from fire brigade by calling phone number 101.
4. Know details about working of the fire extinguishing apparatus.
5. Give first aid to the victim of fire. Seek immediate medical help,

Question 3.
What are the causes of landslide?
Answer:

1. Various types of natural disasters like earthquakes, tsunami, heavy rains, storms, floods can result into landslide.
2. The indiscriminate cutting down of the trees can result into soil erosion. Soil erosion in turn results into landslide.
3. The construction of roads, bridges, railway tracks, etc. on the mountain slopes result into lot of digging. Such activities make soil cover loose. From the slopes the soil and rocks then can slide easily. This results into landslides.

Draw a well labelled diagrams:

Question 1
Seismometer/Secismograph.
Answer:

Question 2.
Focal point and epicenter or earthquake.
Answer:

Open-Ended Questions:

Question 1.
Have you at any time faced with any disaster? What were your experiences during such condition? How did you get rescued?
Answer:
Students should write their own experiences about such incidents if any.

Question 2.
In Maharashtra where do the traffic jams occur due to landslides? Make a list of such places. Why does the landslide occur at those places only? Discuss in the classroom and suggest preventive measures.
Answer:
In Maharashtra, the landslides are very common in the hilly regions. The traffic is suspended often during rainy season when such calamity strikes. Malshej, Khandala, Kasara are some of the Ghats which are very prone to land-slide. On the tracks of Konkan railway, the landslides are very common during heavy downpour.

The regions where more landslides occur have many constructions and large scale deforestation. The traffic of Konkan railway comes to standstill after such landslide. Moreover, during heavy monsoon days, the speed of the running trains is kept very slow. The soil structure is also responsible for such landslides.

Preventive measures: There should be wire meshing done across the sides of the roads and railway tracks so that the collapsed rocks and other debris does not obstruct the traffic. Tree plantation should be carried out to prevent loosening of the soil and rock. It will also help in preventing the soil erosion.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write about the following:

Question 1.
The Constitution prevents the imposition of religious taxes.
Answer:

• State cannot impose religious taxes that might be used to encourage a particular religion. That is, our Constitution forbids religious taxes.
• This is done in order to broaden the scope of religious freedom.

Question 2.
What is meant by Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:

• In case of encroachment of Fundamental Rights, the Indian citizens have the right to get judicial remedies is also a fundamental right.
• This is called the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• This means providing legal remedies in case people’s rights get violated.
• So, it becomes a Constitutional duty of the courts to protect the rights of the people.

2. Find one appropriate word:

Question 1.
Protection from illegal arrest and detention.
Answer:
Habeas Corpus

Question 2.
To restrain a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled.
Answer:
Quo Warranto

Question 3.
The order of the Supreme Court or the High Court commanding the government to perform an action that is its duty to perform.
Answer:
Mandamus

Question 4.
The order preventing a Subordinate Court from exceeding its jurisdiction.
Answer:
Prohibition.

3. State the reason why we are free to practise the following:

Question 1.
All Indian citizens can celebrate all festivals joyfully, because
Answer:

• In India, we have a great diversity of festivals. Our Constitution has given the different communities the right to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
• This is guaranteed by our Constitution by giving the citizens the Right to Freedom of Religion.
• So we are free to celebrate all festivals joyfully.

Question 2.
We can make efforts towards the preservation and propagation of our language, its script and literature, because…
Answer:

• Cultural and Educational Rights in our Constitution gives the communities the right to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
• So we are free to make efforts towards preservation and propagation our language, its script and literature

4. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

Question 1.
We can approach the ______ in case of infringement of our rights (Court, Police, Government)
Answer:
Court

Question 2.
________ education cannot be made compulsory in educational institutions that get aid from the state. (Political, Religious, Racial)
Answer:
Religious

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
_____ right provides freedom to establish institutions for religious reasons. (Right to Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, Right to Constitutional remedies)
Answer:
Right to Religion

Question 2.
_____ is the right which gives people freedom to preserve their own language, script and literature. (Right to Freedom of Religion, Right to Equality, Cultural and Educational Rights)
Answer:
Cultural and Educational Rights

Question 3.
Sometimes the rights that are guaranteed to us by the Constitution may get encroached upon and we are not able to exercise our rights and this is called _______.(violation of our rights, infringement of our rights, deprivation of our rights)
Answer:
infringement of our rights

Question 4.
The writ which ensures protection from unlawful arrest and detention is ________. (Mandamus, Certiorari, Habeas Corpus)
Answer:
Habeas Corpus

Question 5.
The writ which prevents a subordinate court from exceeding its jurisdiction is _____. (Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Certiorari)
Answer:
Prohibition

Question 6.
The writ which restrains a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled is ________. (Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Mandamus)
Answer:
Quo Warranto

Question 7.
The writ which orders removal of a lawsuit from a subordinate court to superior court is ______. (Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari)
Answer:
Certiorari

Question 8.
There are ______, protection available for judicial rights. (judicial, religious, educational)
Answer:
judicial

Question 9.
There are _______ official languages in Indian Constitution. (22, 28, 24)
Answer:
22

Question 10.
While considering fundamental rights, we also need to remember our _______. (duties, belief, self-interest)
Answer:
duties

Answer in one or two sentence:

Question 1.
In which educational institutions is it not allowed to make religious education compulsory?
Answer:
Religious education cannot be made compulsory in educational institutions that receives aid from the state.

Question 2.
In which aspects of social life of our country do we witness diversity?
Answer:
We can see that there is a great diversity of festivals, food and ways of life in the social life of our country.

Question 3.
Write any one right given to the different communities to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
Answer:
The communities can establish institutions for the development of their language.

Question 4.
Which Fundamental Right ensures that there is no encroachment on our Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
The Right to Constitutional Remedies is the Fundamental Right which ensures that there is no encroachment on our Fundamental Rights.

Question 5.
What is called an infringement of our rights?
Answer:
Sometimes the rights that are guaranteed to us by the Constitution may get encroached upon and we are not able to exercise our rights. This is called an infringement of our rights.

Question 6.
What does protection of Fundamental Rights by the courts ensure?
Answer:
Protection of Fundamental Rights by courts ensure that the citizens are able to exercise their Fundamental Rights and that they can fulfil their roles as alert, responsible and active citizens.

State the reason why we are free to practice the following:

Question 1.
We can move to court if there is encroachment of Fundamental Rights because….
Answer:
(i) In case of encroachment of Fundamental Rights, the Indian citizens have the right to get judicial remedies.

(ii) The Right to Constitutional Remedies is a Fundamental Right. So we can move the court if there is an encroachment on Fundamental Rights.

Write about the following:

Question 1.
what is each Indian free to practise?
Answer:
According to Right to Freedom of Religion, each Indian citizen is free to practise any religion and to establish institutions for religious reasons.

Question 2.
What right has our Constitution given to different communities?
Answer:

• One of our Fundamental Rights is Cultural and Educational Rights.
• Our Constitution has given the different communities the rights to preserve their cultural uniqueness.

Question 3.
What does the court do if there is infringement of our rights?
Answer:
The court considers our complaint, investigates it and in case it is convinced that rights have indeed been infringed upon and injustice has been done to the aggrieved individual, the court gives an appropriate verdict.

Question 4.
Give some instances which illustrate the infringement of rights:
Answer:
Some instances of infringement of rights are:

• Arresting an individual without reason.
• Preventing a person from leaving a village or a town without giving a valid reason.
• Refusing food, water or medicines to jail inmates.

Let’s us discuss:

Question 1.
How many official languages are listed in the Constitution?
Answer:
Currently there are 22 scheduled languages in India.

Question 2.
Which institutions have been established by the Maharashtra State Government for the further development of the Marathi language?
Answer:
Some institutions established by Maharashtra State Government for the further development of Marathi language are:

• Akhil Bharatiya Marathi Nathya Parishad.
• Maharashtra Sahitya Parishad – Pune.
• Rajya Marathi Vikas Sanstha.
• Akhil Bharatiya Marathi Sahitya Mahamandal.

Question 3.
Is the reaction of this Government official right or wrong?
An officer tells a woman who presents all the documents for getting the benefits of a scheme i for destitutes, “You don’t look like a destitute” and refuses her the benefits of the scheme. In this instance, do you think the woman’s right has been infringed? Where should she go to get redressal?
Answer:

• The reaction of this government official is incorrect since the woman has presented all the documents pertaining to the scheme.
• This is encroachment of her Fundamental Rights.
• She should move to court and lodge a complaint and seek constitutional remedy for infringement of her rights.

Find out and discuss:

Question 1.
How many official languages are listed in the Constitution?
Answer:
The Eight schedules of the Constitution consists,of the following 22 languages:

1. Assamese
2. Bengali
3. Gujarati
4. Hindi
5. Kannada
6. Kashmiri
7. Konkani
8. Malayalam
9. Manipuri
10. Marathi
11. Nepali
12. Oriya
13. Punjabi
14. Sanskrit
15. Sindhi
16. Tamil
17. Telugu
18. Urdu
19. Bodo
20. Santhali
21. Maithili
22. Dogri.

Question 2.
Do you think that all the work of the government and the courts should be done in Marathi in Maharashtra? What should be done to do so?
Answer:
Yes, I do think that all the work of the government and courts should be done in Marathi in Maharashtra since Marathi is the official language of Maharashtra To achieve this

• Marathi, as well as non-Marathi speakers working in the government organizations and courts, should be given formal training in Marathi.
• Workshops can be conducted to train people for conversing and corresponding in Marathi.
• What should be done at the school – level

Question 3.
for the development of your language and culture?
Answer:

• Schools should encourage reading of books written in the respective language.
• School should make students acquainted with different fors of literature.
• School should establish a language club.