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Maharashtra Board Class 6 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Urban Local Government Bodies

Class 6 Civics Chapter 4 Urban Local Government Bodies Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The first city in India to have a Municipal
Corporation is
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Agra
Answer:
Mumbai

Question 2.
The body that looks after the administration of places that are in the process of becoming cities:
(a) Municipal Council
(b) Municipal Corporation
(c) Nagar Panchayat
Answer:
Municipal Council

Question 3.
The office bearer who supervises the work of the Municipal Council is the
(a) Chief Officer
(b) Executive Officer
(c) Commissioner
Answer:
Executive officer

2. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What problems do people face in cities?
Answer:
There are several problems in cities: Shortage of housing, insufficient space, traffic congestion, problem of waste disposal, increase in crime and a large proportion of slum population.

Question 2.
Name the various committees of the Municipal Corporation.
Answer:
Education committee, Health committee, Transport committee, Standing committee, Ward committee, Women and Child Welfare committee, etc.

3. Make a chart giving information about the urban local government bodies according to the points given below.

Points	Nagar Panchayat	Municipal Council	Municipal Corporation
(1) Office Bearers and Officers
(2) Number of Members

Answer:

Points	Nagar Panchayat	Municipal Council	Municipal Corporation
(1) Office Bearers and Officers	President and Vice President Chairman Executive officer Councillors	President Vice president Corporators Executive officer	Mayor Deputy Mayor Corporators Municipal Commissioner
(2) Number of Members	10 elected ward members, 3 nominated members	Determined so as to be in proportion to the population of the city	Determined so as to be in proportion to the population of the city

4. Can you tell?

Question 1.
Which are essential functions of the Municipal Council.
Answer:
The essential functions of Municipal Council are:

• Lighting of public streets.
• Providing drinking water.
• Maintaining public hygiene.
• Sewage disposal.
• Registration of birth/death/marriage, etc.

Question 2.
Where does the Nagar Panchayat function?
Answer:
Nagar Panchayat functions in those areas which are neither fully rural nor fully urban.

5. Make different lists of places in your district according to whether they have a Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council or a Municipal Corporation.

Activities:

• Make your own health awareness slogans to help prevent the spread of infectious diseases, and display them in your classroom.
• Visit the Municipal Corporation nearest to you and find out which new schemes have been taken up.
• Discuss in class what you could do to contribute to them.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 4 Urban Local Government Bodies InText Questions and Answers

What would you do?

Question 1.
When you hand over your household waste to the waste pickers.
Answer:

• I will ensure that I separate organic and inorganic waste.
• I will ensure that if there is anything which can be reused and recycled then it is sent to the recycling centre.
• E-waste if any, will be collected and sent to the e-waste processing centre.

Question 2.
The road is waterlogged as the water pipe has broken.
Answer:

• I will immediately inform the public works department.
• I will ensure that quick steps are taken to avoid the waste of the precious resource.

Question 3.
You notice that unclean, impure water is being used for pani puns.
Answer:

• I will immediately inform the food safety and sanitation department about the same.
• I will ensure that strict action is taken against the vendor.

Question 4.
Many people are throwing plastic bags from the bridge into the river.
Answer:

• I will inform the Municipal Commissioner about the same.
• I will request him to create awamess about the need to take steps to control pollution of water bodies.
• I will also request him to develop environment consciousness amongst the people about the hazards of using plastics and its disposal in water bodies.

Question 5.
The Municipal Councils’ programme to clean the slum areas has been published in the newspaper, but you think that one of the planned actions is improper.
Answer:
I will write a letter to the editor and express my views about the same. I will explain why the action may not have the desired effect and suggest an alternative measure.

Why did the Corporation do it?

Question 1.
The corporation has refused permission for any construction work that would require the cutting down of trees.
Answer:
The corporation wants to ensure that the environment is conserved and preserved and that the environmental balance is not disturbed in the name of progress.

Question 2.
It has implemented many programmes to control the spread of diseases like dengue, swine flu, etc.
Answer:
To take steps towards creating a healthy society and contain the spread of epidemics.

Question 3.
Modernised the Fire Brigade.
Answer:
To be armed with state of art technology in case of emergency caused due to fire.

Question 4.
Inspected the weighing scales in the vegetable market.
Answer:
To ensure that people are not cheated by vendors and that they get the right quantity of vegetables for the money paid.

What did you feel on reading this?

Question 1.
The Metro will soon run in your city.
Answer:
The Urban local government bodies in the city are working towards infrastructural development of the city.

Question 2.
Permission has been given for the construction of a 24 storey building.
Answer:
It is important to take permission from the Municipal authorities before construction of building.

Question 3.
Gardens and Leisure Centres will be established in every ward.
Answer:
The urban local government bodies ensure that proper facilities are provided to the people for rest, recreation and general well being.

Question 4.
Action will be taken against those who use purified water to water the gardens or to wash their cars.
Answer:
The local gemment bodies take steps to ensure that water, a scarce resource, is not wasted.

Question 5.
It has bee made compulsory to dispose of wet garbage within one’s locality.
Answer:
Waste management is given priority by the local government bodies.

Question 6.
Old age homes will be constructed for the benefit of senior citizens.
Answer:
The local government bodies take steps to ensure that all citizens including senior citizens experience safety and security. They want to ensure that the senior citizens lead a life of dignity.

Students Activity:

Question 1.
Find out:
In how many cities of Maharashtra State is the administration carried out through Corporations?
In which year was the Municipal Corporation of your city established?

Question 2.
Try this:
Form an Education Committee for your class. The committee should have an equal number of boys and girls as representatives. They should discuss the following issues and prepare a report.
(a) Facilities in the classroom.
(b) A proposal for setting up a small library for the class.
(c) Oraganising a sports competition.

Question 3.
Do this:
Find out the hospital run by the Municipal Council or Corporation in your area. What facilities are offered to the patients there? What is a person required to do if she/he wants to take treatment there?

Question 4.
Make different lists of places in your district according to whether they have a Nagar Panchayat, Municipal Council or a Municipal Corporation.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 4 Urban Local Government Bodies Additional Important Questions and Answers

Name the following:

Question 1.
The Urban local Government bodies:
Answer:

Nagar Panchayat.
Municipal Council.
The Municipal Corporation.

Question 2.
The Nagar Panchayat elects these members from amongst themselves:
Answer:

President.
Vice-president.

Question 3.
The chairman of all the meetings of Municipal Council:
Answer:
President.

Question 4.
In the absence of the President, he looks after the work of the Municipal Council:
Answer:
Vice-president.

Question 5.
The elected members of Municipal Corporation:
Answer:
Corporators.

Question 6.
Any two committees of the Municipal Corporation:
Answer:
Health committee, Transport committee.

Question 7.
He prepares the annual budget of the Municipal Corporation:
Answer:
The Municipal Commissioner.

State whether the following statements are True or False giving reasons:

Question 1.
There is a Nagar Panchayat in every city.
Answer:
False.
There is a Nagar Panchayat in those areas which are neither fully rural nor fully urban.

Question 2.
Lighting public streets is the discretionary function of the Municipal Council.
Answer:
False.

• There are some functions that are binding on the Council which are known as obligatory functions.
• Lighting public street is one such obligatory function.

Question 3.
The total number of members in a Municipal Corporation is determined so as to be in proportion to those who contest elections
Answer:
False.
The total number of members in a Municipal Corporation is determined so as to be in proportion to the population of the city.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Name the sources of revenue of the Municipal Council.
Answer:
Property tax, education tax, water tax, grants from State Government, tax on markets, etc.

Question 2.
All local government bodies have to carry out some essential functions. What, according to you, are the essential functions of a Nagar Panchayat?
Answer:

• Providing essential facilities and other services to the citizens.
• Implementing sanitation programmes.
• Providing infrastructure facilities like roads.
• Providing educational facilities.
• Water supply.
• Ensure that a drainage system is in place.
• Maintain records of births and deaths.

Do you know?

Question 1.
For every Municipal council, there is a Chief Officer. He implements the decisions taken by the Municipal Council. There are several officers who assist him.
Would you like to become such an officer? If you become a Health Officer, what functions would you perform?
Answer:
Yes I would like to become an officer in the Municipal Council.
If I become a Health officer my functions would be:

• Ensure that community health is maintained through health check-ups, Vaccination drives ,etc.
• Take step to control epidemics.
• Create awareness amongst the citizens regarding health and sanitation.
• Supervise the working of the health centre.
• Training of the professionals working towards community health.

Question 2.
Appeal from Municipal Council:
Calling all citizens – to take the following measures to stop breeding of mosquitoes and curb the spread of dengue:

1. Do not stock old tyres, cocount shells, empty cans or boxes on your terrace or around your house.
2. In case of persistent fever go to a doctor without delay.
3. Keep your surroundings clean.

In response to the above, what would you do in your house and in the surroundings?
Answer:
I will ensure that I keep my surroundings clean. If there is any waste water accumulation, I will inform the authorities and request them to take necessary steps. I will pay special attention to waste disposal. I will also put into practice the maxim: ‘Reduce, Reuse, Recycle…. Restore’ for a clean and healthy environment.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 Rural Local Government Bodies

Class 6 Civics Chapter 3 Rural Local Government Bodies Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Put a tick (✓) in the right box:

Question 1.
The ______ looks after the local adiministration of the village.
(a) Gram Panchayat
(b) Panchayat Samiti
(c) Zilla Parishad
Answer:
(a) Gram Panchayat

Question 2.
It is binding to hold at least ______ meetings of the Gram Sabha in each financial year.
(a) four
(b) five
(c) six
Answer:
(c) six

Question 3.
At present, there are _______ districts in Maharashtra.
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 36
Answer:
(c) 36

2. Make a list of the functions of the Panchayat Samiti.
Answer:

• Building roads, gutters, wells and borewells.
• Organising vaccination drives.
• Providing clean drinking water.
• Maintaining cleanliness of roads and arrange for the disposal of waste.
• Helping the farmers improve agriculture and livestock.
• Provide primary education.
• Promote handicrafts and cottage industries.
• Provide financial aid to the weaker sections

3. What is your opinion?

Question 1.
The Gram Panchayat levies various taxes.
Answer:

• The Gram Panchayat looks after the administration of the village.
• It carries out the functions relating to water supply, electricity, registration of births, deaths and marriages.
• To carry out these functions money is required and taxes are one of the sources of income of Gram Panchayat.

Question 2.
The number of Zilla Parishads is less than the total number of districts in Maharashtra.
Answer:

• Every district has a Zilla Parishad. At present, the state of Maharashtra has 36 districts but only 34 Zilla Parishads.
• The reason is that Mumbai city district and Mumbai Suburban District do not have a rural population.
• Therefore, they do not have Zilla Parishads.

4. Complete the Table:

My Taluka, My Panchayat Samiti :
Name of the Taluka: ______.
The name of the chairman of the Panchayat Samiti: ____.
The name of the Deputy Chairman of the Panchayat Samiti: _____.
The name of the Block Development Officer: ______.
The name of the Block Education Officer: _______.

5. Write a brief note on:

Question 1.
The Sarpanch:
Answer:

• The elections to a Gram Panchayat are held every five years.
• The elected members elect a Sarpanch and Deputy Sarpanch from amongst themselves.
• The meetings of the Gram Panchayat are held under the chairmanship of the Sarpanch.
• It is his responibility to implement the development schemes of the village.
• The members of the Gram Panchayat can bring a motion of no confidence against Sarpanch who is not carrying out his responsibilities properly.
• In the absence of the Sarpanch, the Deputy Sarpanch looks after the work of a Gram Panchayat.

Question 2.
The Chief Executive Officer:
Answer:

• The decisions taken by the Zilla Parishad are implemented by the Chief Executive Officer of the Zilla Parishad.
• He is appointed by the State Government.

Project:

• Organize a mock Gram Sabha and enact the roles of the Sarpanch, members of the Gram Panchayat,voters, Gram Sevak.
• Make a chart depicting the possible structure of a Balsansad and display it in the class.
• Obtain information about the schemes run by the Zilla Parishad in your area or near your city.

Class 6 Civics Chapter 3 Rural Local Government Bodies Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks by appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
If the population of a village is less than ______ then two or more such villages come under one Gram Panchayat, this is then called a ‘Group Gram Panchayat’.
(a) 750
(b) 500
(c) 600
Answer:
500

Question 2.
The state of Maharashtra has _____ Zilla Parishads.
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 36
Answer:
(a) 34

Question 3.
Elections of the Zilla Parishad are held every _______ years.
(a) six
(b) five
(c) three
Answer:
(b) five

Question 4.
The chief executive officer of the Zilla Parishad is appointed by the ______.
(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
(c) Elected member of Zilla Parishad from among themselves
Answer:
(a) State Government

Name the following:

Question 1.
The local government bodies at the rural level :
Answer:

1. The Gram Panchayat.
2. The Panchayat Samiti.
3. The Zilla Parishad.

Question 2.
He implements the development schemes of the village :
Answer:
Sarpanch.

Question 3.
In the absence of the Sarpanch the office bearer who looks after the work of the Gram Panchayat :
Answer:
Deputy Sarpanch.

Question 4.
The secretary of the Gram Panchayat :
Answer:
The Gram Sevak.

Question 5.
The assembly of all the voters of the village or rural area :
Answer:
Gram Sabha.

Question 6.
Minimum number of meetings which must be held in each financial year:
Answer:
Six.

Question 7.
Any two issues raised by women before the meeting of the Gram Sabha :
Answer:

1. Employment
2. Health

Question 8.
Any two sources of the revenue of the Gram Panchayat :
Answer:

1. Water tax
2. Pilgrimage tax

Question 9.
The link between the Zilla Parishad and Gram panchayat:
Answer:
Panchayat Samiti.

Question 10.
The office bearer who has the responsibility of calling the meetings and conducting business of the meetings of the Panchayat Samiti:
Answer:
The chairman.

Question 11.
Any two sources of income of the Panchayat Samiti :
Answer:

1. Money from district fund.
2. Grants from the State Government.

Question 12.
Local self government at the district level :
Answer:
Zilla Parishad.

Question 13.
He implements the decisions taken by the Zilla Parishad :
Answer:
Chief excutive officer.

Make a list of the functions of the:

Question 1.
Gram Panchayat.
Answer:

1. The Gram Panchayat looks after the administration of the village.
2. The Gram Panchayat carries out the functions relating to water supply, electricity, registration of births, deaths and marriages.

Question 2.
Gram Sevak.
Answer:

1. Looks after the day-to-day functioning of the Gram Panchayat.
2. Explains its development scheme to the residents of the village.

Question 4.
Zilla Parishad provides the following facilities.
Answer:
Education facilities, health facilities, water supply facilities, making provision of seeds, supply of electricity, tree plantation drives in the village.

Question 5.
President of the Zilla Parishad
Answer:

1. He presides over the meetings of the Zilla Parishad.
2. He exercise control over business conducted during the meetings.
3. He control the financial transactions of the Zilla Parishad.

What is your opinion?

Question 1.
Local self government bodies at the rural level have an important role to play.
Answer:

1. Local self government bodies play an important role in providing good governance to the rural areas.
2. People too get an opportunity to take part in the decision making.
3. It is also a training ground for democracy.

What would you do?

Where would you tell Dinesh and Naina to go for the following things?

Question 1.
To get their younger sibling vaccinated :
Answer:
Primary Health centre.

Question 2.
To accompany their father to get the 7/12 extract:
Answer:
Reveue department.

Question 3.
To learn about the use of a new manure :
Answer:
Agriculture department.

Question 4.
To complain against contaminated water supply :
Answer:
Sanitation department.

Question 5.
To get a birth certificate :
Answer:
Health Department.

Question 6.
To get the income / caste certificate :
Answer:
Revenue Department.

Write a brief note on:

Question 1.
Women’s participation in the Gram Sabha:
Answer:
A meeting of the women of a village is held before the meeting of the Gram Sabha. Here, women feel free to discuss a variety of issues. During the Gram Sabha, they speak with greater concern about issues such as drinking water, prohibition, employment, fuel, health etc. They also suggest measures for bringing about necessary changes.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 19 Life Cycle of Stars Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 19 Life Cycle of Stars

Class 8 Science Chapter 19 Life Cycle of Stars Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Search and you will find:

Question a.
Our galaxy is called ………… .
Answer:
Our galaxy is called the Milky Way and Mandakini.

Question b.
For measuring large distances, ………… is used as a unit.
Answer:
For measuring large distances, the light year is used as a unit.

Question c.
The speed of light is …………. km/s.
Answer:
The speed of light is 300000 km/s.

Question d.
There are about ………… stars in our galaxy.
Answer:
There are about 100 billion stars in our galaxy.

Question e.
The end stage of the Sun will be …………. .
Answer:
The end stage of the Sun will be a white dwarf.

Question f.
Stars are born out of ………… clouds.
Answer:
Stars are born out of interstellar clouds.

Question g.
Milky way is a ………. galaxy.
Answer:
Milky way is a spiral galaxy.

Question h.
Stars are gigantic spheres of ………… gas.
Answer:
Stars are gigantic spheres of hot gas.

Question i.
The masses of other stars are measured relative to the mass of the …………. .
Answer:
The masses of other stars are measured relative to the mass of the Sun.

Question j.
Light takes ……………. to reach us from the Sun while it takes …….. to reach us from the moon.
Answer:
Light takes about 8 minutes to reach us from the Sun while it takes about 1 second to reach us from the moon.

Question k.
The larger the mass of a star, the faster is its ……….. .
Answer:
The larger the mass of a star, the faster is its evolution.

Question l.
The number of fuels used in the life of a star depends on its …………. .
Answer:
The number of fuels used in the life of a star depends on its mass.

2. Who is telling lies?

Question a.
Light year is used to measure time.
Answer:
False. (Light year is used to measure distance.)

Question b.
End stage of a star depends on its initial mass.
Answer:
True.

Question c.
A star ends its life as a neutron star when the pressure of its electrons balances its gravity.
Answer:
False. (A star ends its life as a neutron star when the pressure of its neutrons balances its gravity.)

Question d.
Only light can emit from the black hole.
Answer:
False. (Not even light can be emitted by a black hole.)

Question e.
The Sun will pass through the supergiant stage during its evolution.
Answer:
False. (The Sun will pass through the red giant stage during its evolution.)

Question f.
The Sun will end its life as a white dwarf.
Answer:
True.

3. Answer the following question:

Question a.
How do stars form?
Answer:
There are huge clouds of gas and dust in the empty spaces between the stars in a galaxy. These clouds are called interstellar clouds. The size of an interstellar cloud is about a few light years.

When an interstellar cloud starts contracting due to some disturbance, its density and temperature increase. This results in formation of a dense sphere of hot gas and nuclear energy generation starts at the centre of the star. Therefore, the gas sphere becomes self-luminous. Thus a star is formed, i.e., a star is born.
A huge interstellar cloud can produce thousands of stars at a time.

Question b.
Why do stars evolve?
Answer:
Although stars appear stable for quite a long period of time, their properties do change, though very slowly. A change in the properties of a star, leading to its passing through different stages, is called evolution of the star. Burning of the fuel at the centre of the star and a gradual decrease in its amount is the main reason of evolution of a star.

Question c.
What are the three end stages of stars?
Answer:

1. Stars having initial mass less than 8 times the mass of the Sun ultimately become white dwarfs.
2. Stars having initial mass between i 8 and 25 times the mass of the Sun ultimately become neutron stars.
3. Stars having initial mass larger than 25 times the mass of the Sun ultimately turn into black holes.

Question d.
Why was the name black hole given?
Answer:
When a star having initial mass larger than 25 times the mass of the Sun reaches its end stage, its gravitational force and density increase exponentially. All nearby objects get attracted towards the star and nothing can come out of it, not even light. All incident light is absorbed by the star. We can probably see a very minute black hole at its place. Hence, the name is given as black hole.

Question e.
Which types of stars end their life as a neutron star?
Answer:
Stars having initial mass between 8 and 25 times the mass of the Sun end up as neutron stars. When these stars pass through ( the supergiant stage, their size increases to 1000 times. Huge explosion that occurs in the last stage of these stars is very powerful and very high energy is given off. After the huge explosion, called the supernova explosion, their central portion contracts in size to about 10 km. In this stage, such stars are completely made up of neutrons and hence are called neutron stars.

4. A. If you are the Sun, write about your properties in your own words.
B. Describe white dwarfs.

Question A.
If you are the Sun, write about your properties in your own words.
Answer:

If you are the Sun, write about your properties in your own words.
Answer:
There are billions of stars in the galaxy called the Milky Way and Mandakini. I am one of the small stars called the Sun. I have my own family called the solar system. There are planets, satellites, asteroids, comets and meteors in my family. My mass is 2 × 1030 kg which is about 3.3 lakh times that of the earth. With a radius of 695700 km, my size is about 100 times that of the earth. My surface temperature is about 5800 K while it is 1.5 × 107 K at the centre.

72 % of my mass consists of hydrogen while 26 % consists of helium. Rest 2 % is made up of elements heavier than helium. I am about 4.5 billion years old and the scientists on the earth have concluded that not much change has taken place in my properties during this period. According to the scientists, in the end stage of my life, I will turn into a red giant star. Thereafter, I will first explode and then contract to become as small as the earth. I will appear small as well as white and hence, I will be called a white dwarf. This will be my last stage for ever.

Question B.
Describe white dwarfs.
Answer:
Depending on the initial mass, stars can reach one of the three end stages. White dwarf is one such stage of stars having initial mass less than 8 times the mass of the Sun. These stars undergo huge expansion and their radius increases by a factor of 100 to 200. These stars appear reddish because of their large size and lower temperature. Hence, these stars are also called red giant stars.

At the end of their evolution, these stars explode, their outer gas envelope is thrown outward and the inner part contracts to the size of the earth. However, the density in the star becomes very high. In this stage, the pressure due to electrons becomes independent of temperature and sufficient to balance the gravitational force for ever.

In this stage, such stars look white and due to their small size they are called white dwarfs.

Can you recall?

Question 1.
What is a galaxy?
Answer:
A system of billions of stars, their planetary systems and interstellar clouds of gas and dust held together by gravitational attraction is called a galaxy.

Question 2.
What are the different constituents of our solar system?
Answer:
The different constituents of our solar system are as follows :

1. Sun as a star.
2. Eight planets, namely, Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune; of which Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars are made up of rocks and minerals, while Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are made up of gases.
3. Natural satellites of some planets revolving around the respective planets.
4. Asteroids located between Mars and Jupiter.
5. Comets made up of ice, dust and gases.
6. Meteors and meteoroids.

Question 3.
What are the major differences between a star and a planet?
Answer:

1. Nuclear/atomic explosions regularly take place at the centre of stars. This causes the discharge of heat and light. Hence, stars shine. Planets do not discharge any light. They are visible due to the light reflected by them.
2. Stars are very big in size and massive relative to planets.
3. Stars twinkle, planets do not.
4. Stars are made up of hydrogen, helium and other light elements.
5. Planets are made up of solid, liquid or gaseous substances or a combination thereof.

Question 4.
What is a satellite?
Answer:
An astronomical object orbiting a planet is called a satellite.

Question 5.
Which is the star nearest to us?
Answer:
The star nearest to us is the Sun.

Project:

Question 1.
Use your imagination and make models of the Milky Way and the solar system.
Answer:
N.B. Students can make these models and display the same in science exhibition. You can use sand, scrap material, stones, pebbles, marbles, pieces of glass, beads, etc.

Question 2.
Write the effects: If the Sun disappears ………..
Answer:
N.B. You can write the effects with the help of the following points:

1. No sunrise, no sunset, no beauty of morning and evening wee hours.
2. In the absence of the gravitational force due to the Sun, the earth will drift away in the galaxy.
3. Darkness, no source of energy, end of life on the earth.
4. Moon will be invisible.
5. The temperature of the earth will fall below the freezing point of water. All oceans will also freeze.
6. Even the atmosphere will freeze and fall on the earth. This will cause more cosmic rays to reach the earth.

Class 8 Science Chapter 19 Life Cycle of Stars Important Questions and Answers

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Gravitational force	a. Alpha Centauri
2. The star nearest to us other than the Sun	b. 2 × 1030 kg
3. Mass of the Sun	c. 10 30 g
	d. towards the centre of a star or a planet

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Gravitational force	d. towards the centre of a star or a planet
2. The star nearest to us other than the Sun	a. Alpha Centauri
3. Mass of the Sun	b. 2 × 1030 kg

Question 2.
Mass of the star:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. < 8 MSun	a. Proton star
2. between 8 and 25 times MSun	b. Black hole
3. > 25 MSun	c. Neutron star
	d. White dwarf

Answer:
Mass of the star:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. < 8 MSun	d. White dwarf
2. between 8 and 25 times MSun	c. Neutron star
3. > 25 MSun	b. Black hole

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Name the star nearest to the earth.
Answer:
The Sun.

Question 2.
Other than the Sun, which is the star nearest to the earth?
Answer:
Alpha Centauri.

Question 3.
What would be the last stage of the Sun?
Answer:
The last stage of the Sun would be white dwarf.

Question 4.
Name two forces that act on any star.
Answer:
Gravitational force and the force due to the pressure of hot gas are the two forces that act on any star.

Question 5.
What is a black hole?
Answer:
A black hole is the end stage of a quite big star, where due to the extremely high gravitational force, nothing, not even light, comes out.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How is stability of stars maintained?
Answer:
Properties of a star remain unchanged for quite a long time. The gravitational force and the force due to the pressure of the hot gas act together on a star. The gravitational force acts towards the centre of the star and tries to bring the gas particles close together. Hot gas shows the tendency to spread and its force acts away from the centre of the star. This force tries to disperse the gas particles. A balance between the gravitational force and the force due to the hot gas keeps the star stable.

However, if the magnitude of any one force is more than that of the other force, the star either contracts or expands depending upon which force dominates.

Question 2.
Why is the Sun called an ordinary star?
Answer:
The star nearest to the earth is the Sun. Hence, it appears quite big and bright. There are billions of stars in our galaxy called the Milky Way and Mandakini which are greater or lower in mass, size and temperature than the Sun. Hence, the Sun is called an ordinary star.

Do you know?

When the Sun will become a red giant, its diameter will increase so much that it will swallow Mercury and Venus. It is possible that the earth will also be absorbed by the Sun. It will take about 4-5 billion years for the Sun to reach this state.

Question 3.
Describe various stages of evolution of star.
Answer:
Though the properties of a star remain unchanged for quite a long time, this situation is never static. A star passes through different stages. This process is called the evolution of a star.
Important stages of the evolution of a star are as follows:

1. Initial stage of stability: The gravitational force and the force due to the pressure of the hot gas act together on a star. The gravitational force acts towards the centre of the star and tries to bring the gas particles close together. Hot gas shows the tendency to spread and its force acts away from the centre of the star.

This force tries to disperse the gas particles. A balance between the gravitational force and the force due to the hot gases keeps the star stable, as long as the energy generation continues at the centre of the star.

2. Burning of the fuel: As a star continuously emits energy, its energy constantly decreases. When the fuel at the centre of the star is exhausted, the energy generation stops and the temperature of the star starts decreasing. Decreasing temperature causes the gas pressure to decrease and the balance between the gravitational force and the force due to the gas pressure is no more maintained.

As the magnitude of the gravitational force is now more than that of the force due to the gas pressure, the star starts contracting. This causes another fuel to start burning, e.g. on exhausting hydrogen, helium starts undergoing fusion. Availability of multiple fuels depends on the mass of the star.

The higher the mass of the star, the more is the number of fuels used. The star either contracts or expands during the course of using these fuels. This may cause the imbalance between the gravitational force and the force due to the hot gas.

3. Total exhaustion of the fuel: When all fuels are exhausted, the energy generation in the star finally stops completely and the temperature of the star starts decreasing. The balance between the gravitational force and the force due to the gas pressure can no more be maintained. The evolution of the star ends and the star proceeds to its end stage.

4. End stage of a star: Once the fuel in the star is totally exhausted, the energy generation in the star stops and subsequently the gas pressure decreases, the star starts contracting and its density starts increasing. When the density becomes very high, some new types of pressures are generated which are independent of the temperature of the gas.

In such a case, the pressure remains stable despite low temperature and absence of any energy generation and thus the star remains stable for ever. This stage is the end stage of the star. Depending on the initial mass, stars can reach one of the three end stages.

• Stars having initial mass less than 8 times the mass of the Sun ultimately become white dwarfs.
• Stars having initial mass between 8 and 25 times the mass of the Sun ultimately become neutron stars.
• Stars having initial mass larger than 25 times the mass of the Sun ultimately turn into black holes.

Write short notes on the following:

Question 1.
End stages of stars having initial mass less than 8 times the mass of the Sun.
Answer:
These stars undergo huge expansion and their radius increases by a factor of 100 to 200 during their various stages of evolution. These stars appear reddish due to their lower temperature. Hence, they are called red giant stars.

At the end of evolution, these stars explode, their outer gas envelope is thrown out and the inner part contracts roughly to the size of the earth. Hence, the density of the star becomes very high. In this stage, the pressure due to electrons becomes independent of temperature and sufficient to balance the gravitational force for ever. Such stars look white and due to their small size they are called white dwarfs.

Question 2.
End stage of the stars having mass between 8 and 25 times the mass of the Sun.
Answer:
These stars pass through the red giant stage and later super giant stage, during which their size may increase to 1000 times. The huge explosion, called the supernova explosion, occurs in the last stage of the evolution. It is very powerful and very high energy is given off in this case.

As a result, the stars are visible even during the day. Later their central portion contracts to about 10 km. In this stage, the stars are completely made up of neutrons and are called neutron stars. The pressure of these neutrons is independent of temperature and sufficient enough to balance the gravitational force for ever.

Question 3.
End stages of stars having mass larger than 25 times the mass of the Sun.
Answer:
After the supernova explosion, no pressure can balance the gravitational force. Hence these stars contract continuously and their gravitational force and density increase exponentially. All nearby objects get attracted towards these stars and not even light can come out of them. Light falling on these stars is completely absorbed by the star. We cannot see these stars. A very minute black hole is formed at the place of such a star. This is the end stage of these stars.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 5 Food Safety Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 5 Food Safety

Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Food Safety Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following statements by using the correct option from those given below.
(Irradiation, dehydration, pasteurization, natural, chemical)

Question a.
Drying the food grains from farms under the hot sun is called …………. .
Answer:
dehydration

Question b.
Materials like milk are instantly cooled after heating up to a certain high temperature. This method of food preservation is called ……….. .
Answer:
pasteurization

Question c.
Salt is a ……….. type of food preservative.
Answer:
natural

Question d.
Vinegar is a …………. type of food preservative.
Answer:
chemical

2. Answer the following questions in your own words. 

Question a.
How is milk pasteurised?
Answer:
Boil the milk at 80°C for 15 minutes and cool it quickly. This destroys the microbes present in the milk and it can remain for a longer duration. This process is called pasteurization of milk.

Question b.
Why should we not consume adulterated food materials?
Answer:
Different types of adulterants affect our health in different ways. Some adulterants cause abdominal discomfort or poisoning while some may affect the functioning of some organs if consumed over a long period of time or even cause cancer.

Question c.
What precautions do your parents take to keep foodstuffs safe?
Answer:
Our parents take following care to keep foodstuffs safe

1. Drying of grains.
2. Boiling of milk, soups and curries from time to time.
3. Refrigeration of vegetables, fruits, milk and cooked food.
4. Candying of jams.
5. Use natural preservatives like oil, spices, neem leaves, salt, etc.
6. Use chemical preservatives in sauces, ketchups, pickles, jams and squashes.

Question d.
How does food spoilage occur? Which are the various factors spoiling the food?
Answer:
Food spoilage is the process in which food deteriorates to the point in which it is not edible to humans or its quality of edibility becomes reduced.
Following are the factors for spoiling of food:

1. Bacteria causes food to spoil
2. Incorrect storage may spoil the food.
3. Infestation by pests.
4. Chemical reaction takes place in food and it gets spoiled.

Question e.
Which methods of food preservation would you use?
Answer:
I use following methods to preserve the food:

1. Freezing
2. Boiling
3. Salting of pickles
4. drying of grains
5. candying of jams.

3. What shall we do?

Question a.
There are vendors selling uncovered sweet-meats in open places in the market.
Answer:
We should tell them to sell the covered sweets because uncovered sweets are harmful to eat because it contains dust, dirt and germs. And buyers also should not purchase these uncovered sweets.

Question b.
A ‘pani-puriwala’ is serving the panipuri with dirty hands.
Answer:
We should tell him to wear gloves before serving panipuri because dirty hands contain dirt and germs which are harmful to us.

Question c.
We have purchased a large quantity of fruits and vegetables.
Answer:
We should keep them in refrigerator because in refrigerator, due to low temperature, fruits and vegetables do not spoil and biological and chemical reactions in fruits and vegetables are slowed down at low temperature.

Question d.
We need to protect foodstuffs from pests like rats, cockroaches, wall-lizards etc.
Answer:

1. If we do not protect foodstuffs from pests like rats, cockroaches, wall-lizards etc. then the food get spoiled by them and germs carried by them enters into the food.
2. If we eat this food then we may get food poisoning and we fall sick so we need to protect foodstuffs from pests like rat, cockroaches, wall lizards etc.

4. Find the odd-man-out. 

Question a.
Salt, vinegar, citric acid, sodium benzoate.
Answer:
Salt

Question b.
Lakhi dal, brick dust, metanyl yellow, turmeric powder.
Answer:
Turmeric powder

Question c.
Banana, apple, guava, almond.
Answer:
Almond

Question d.
Storing, freezing, settling, drying
Answer:
Storing

5. Complete the chart below.

Question a.

Answer:

Foodstuff	Adulterant
1. Turmeric powder	Metanil yellow
2. Black pepper	Dried papaya seeds
3. Rava	Iron filings
4. Honey	Sugar, water and jaggery

6. Explain why this happens and suggest possible remedies.

Question a.
Qualitative wastage of food.
Answer:
Qualitative wastage of food happens due to wrong methods of protecting food, excessive use of food preservatives, over-cooking, washing the vegetables after cutting them, mis¬handling of fruits like grapes and mangoes, miscalculation of the time required to transport food from producers to consumers are some of the reasons of qualitative wastage of food.
Possible remedies:

1. Avoid overcooking of food.
2. Store grains and other perishable foodstuffs like vegetables, fruits, milk etc. using proper methods.
3. Wash fruits and vegetables before cutting it.

Question b.
The cooked rice is underdone.
Answer:
Sometimes in a hurry if we cook the rice it is underdone.
Possible remedies: Use proper pressure cooker to cook the rice.

Question c.
The wheat that was bought is a bit moist.
Answer:
Sometimes due to sudden rain, wheat gets a bit moist. Possible remedies: Do not store the moist wheat, it gets spoiled due to fungus so first sundry it and then store in a clean and dry container to avoid microbial growth.

Question d.
The taste of yoghurt is too sour/slightly bitter.
Answer:
The taste of yoghurt is too sour/slightly bitter means it is spoiled. This happens if it is not kept in the refrigerator.
Possible remedies:- Always keep the yoghurt in refrigerator to avoid biological and chemical reactions in food materials.

Question e.
Cut fruits turned black.
Answer:
Fruit contains an enzyme called polyphenol oxidase or tyrosinase that reacts with oxygen. The oxidation reaction basically forms a sort of rust on the surface of fruits so it turns black.
Possible remedies:

1. Coat the fruits with sugar syrup
2. Add lemon juice on fruits.

7. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Food remains safe at 5° Celsius.
Answer:
Food remains safe at 5° Celsius because at 5°C, micro-organisms stop growing.

Question 2.
Nowadays, food is served in buffet style during large gatherings.
Answer:
Nowadays, food is served buffet style during large gatherings because due to buffet style quantitative wastage of food can be avoided, as people take only as much as they could eat.

Project:

Question 1.
Go to your kitchen und take notes about the food safety measures and the food wastage you see there.

Question 2.
In a science exhibition demonstrate the various methods of detecting food adulteration.

Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Food Safety Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following statements by using the correct option from those given below.
(Irradiation, dehydration, pasteurization, natural, chemical)

Question 1.
………………………. is celebrated as “World Food Day”.
Answer:
16th October

Question 2.
FSSAI means ………………………. .
Answer:
Food Safety and Standardization Authority of India

Question 3.
………………………. gas is filled in tight packets of potato wafers.
Answer:
Nitrogen

Question 4.
Common name of acetic acid is ……………………….
Answer:
Vinegar

Question 5.
………………………. is sprayed on the gunny bags containing food grains.
Answer:
Melathion

Question 6.
………………………. is used in smoking method.
Answer:
Aluminium phosphide

Question 7.
………………………. and ………………………. are emitted by radioactive isotopes in irradiation method.
Answer:
X – rays, gamma rays

Question 8.
In Maharashtra, irradiation plants have been installed at ………………………. for onions and potatoes and at for spices and condiments.
Answer:
Lasalgaon, Navi Mumbai

Question 9.
………………………. found the pasteurisation method.
Answer:
Louis Pasteur

Question 10.
………………………. adulterant is added to turmeric powder.
Answer:
Metanyl yellow

Question 11.
………………………. adulterant is added to red chilly powder.
Answer:
Brickdust

Question 12.
………………………. is used to make fruits more attractive.
Answer:
calcium carbide

Question 13.
………………………. and ………………………. harmful chemicals are mixed with cold drinks.
Answer:
carbonated soda, phosphoric acid

Question 14.
Shopkeepers change the of the ………………………. food packets fo avoid a financial loss.
Answer:
expiry date

Question 15.
Milk vendors add ………………………. to the milk to appear as higher fat content.
Answer:
urea

Question 16.
The shelf life of potatoes and onions ………………………. due to slowed-down of sprouting.
Answer:
increases

Question 17.
Serving too much food to guests at traditional feasts and banquets leads to ………………………. wastage of food.
Answer:
Quantitative

Question 18.
Miscalculation of the time required to transport food from producers to consumers leads to ……………………… . wastage of food.
Answer:
Qualitative

Question 19.
Prevention of food spoilage by microbial growth and infestation by pests is called ………………………. .
Answer:
food protection

Question 20.
………………………. is an example of a chemical preservative.
Answer:
Sodium benzoate.

Say whether True or False,, Correct and rewrite the false statement.

Question 1.
To prevent adulteration of food, it is inspected by the “Food and Drug Administration department of the government”.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Overcooking of food increases the quality of food.
Answer:
False. Over cooking of food spoils it

Question 3.
Peanuts become rancid then, it is not good to eat.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Oil and ghee contain fats.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Prevention of food spoilage by microbial growth and infestation by pests is called food wastage.
Answer:
False. Prevention of food spoilage by microbial growth and infestation by pests is called food protection.

Question 6.
Serve yourself only as much as you can eat.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Salt, sugar and oil are naturally available preservatives.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Pickles can be preserved by salting.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Milk vendors add urea to the milk so that it appears to have higher fat content.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Shelf life of fruits and vegetables decreases by gamma rays emitted by radio-active isotopes.
Answer:
False. Shelf life of fruits and ‘ vegetables increases by gamma rays emitted by radioactive isotopes.

Give scientific reasons.

Question 1.
Refrigerators are used in the kitchen.
Answer:

1. Biological and chemical reactions in food materials are slowed down at low temperature.
2. As a result food remains in good condition for a longer period. Therefore refrigerators are used in the kitchen.

Question 2.
Potatoes and onions are treated with gamma rays.
Answer:
Potatoes and onions are treated with gamma rays because irradiation with gamma rays prevents their wastage due to sprouting and increases their shelf life.

Question 3.
Grains are sun-dried.
Answer:
Grains are sun-dried to preserve them because on sun drying their water content gets reduced and hence they last longer.

Question 4.
We boil milk from time to time.
Answer:
We boil milk from time to time to kill microorganisms in it and thus prevent it from getting spoilt.

Question 5.
Jams or pickles get spoilt if their jars are not sealed properly.
Answer:
If the jar is not sealed properly, micro¬organisms from the air enter in the jar and start growing on the food. Oxygen in the air helps the micro-organisms and fungi to grow faster and hence bring about the spoilage of the jams and pickles.

Question 6.
Some vendors add urea to the milk.
Answer:
Some vendors add urea to the milk so that it appears to have higher fat content.

Question 7.
Food wastage should be avoided.
Answer:
In countries like India, the food requirement is plenty and people do not get proper meals even once in a day. If food is not wasted then it could have met the need of many others. Therefore, food should not be wasted and proper measures should be implemented to stop quantitative and qualitative wastage of food.

Question 8.
Adulterated food should not be consumed.’
Answer:

1. The health of all people is endangered by food adulteration.
2. Different types of adulterants affect our health in different ways.
3. Some adulterants cause abdominal discomfort or poisoning, while some may affect the functioning of some organs if consumed over a long period of time or even cause cancer.

Can you tell?

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How and where food is wasted?
Answer:
Quantitative wastage of food:
1. Wrong methods of farming like hand sowing of, ts seeds, inadequate threshing, improper storage and wrong methods of distribution are some reasons for quantitative wastage of food.

2. Besides, much food is wasted as a result of the custom of offering and serving too much food to guests at traditional feasts or banquets.

3. Had it not been wasted, all this food could have met the need of many others Qualitative wastage of food: Using wrong methods of protecting food, excessive use of food preservatives, over-cooking, washing the vegetables after cutting them, mis-handling of fruits like grapes and mangoes, mis-calculation of the time required to transport food from producers to consumers, are some of the causes of quantitative wastage of food.

Question 2.
How is the food adulterated?
Answer:
Food is adulterated by the following ways:

1. Removal of some important components of food. e.g. removal of fat content of milk, essence of cloves, cardamoms, etc.
2. Mixing of a low quality inedible or cheaper material or harmful colour with food.
3. Mixing of some harmful materials like small stones, fine sand, iron filings, urea, dung of horse, sawdust etc.

How will you find out if food has been adulterated?

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 18 Ecosystems Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 18 Ecosystems

Class 8 Science Chapter 18 Ecosystems Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following by using the correct option:

Question a.
Air, water, minerals, soil are ………….. factors of an ecosystem. (physical, organic, inorganic)
Answer:
Air, water, minerals, soil are physical factors of an ecosystem.

Question b.
River, ponds, ocean are …………. ecosystems, (land, aquatic, synthetic)
Answer:
River, ponds, ocean are aquatic ecosystems.

Question c.
Man is ………….. in an ecosystem. (producer, consumer, decomposer)
Answer:
Man is consumer in an ecosystem.

2. Match the following:

Question a.

Producer	Ecosystem
1. Cactus	a. Forest
2. Aquatic plants	b. Creek
3. Mangroves	c. Aquatic
4. Pine	d. Desert

Answer:

Producer	Ecosystem
1. Cactus	d. Desert
2. Aquatic plants	c. Aquatic
3. Mangroves	b. Creek
4. Pine	a. Forest

3. Give my information:

Question a.
Ecosystem.
Answer:
Ecosystem is the structure formed by the interrelationships between the living organisms and non-living components in their surrounding habitats. Living organisms are also called biotic factors while the non-living components are called abiotic factors. The abiotic and biotic factors have a reciprocal relationship with each other. The ecosystem has plants as producers, animals as consumers and microbes as decomposers.

The decomposers return the substances back to the nature by process of decomposition in which the organic complex molecules are reduced to their inorganic constituents. Thus the dead remains of plants and animals are once again recycled back to the nature in any healthy ecosystem.

Question b.
Biome.
Answer:
Biomes are a larger collection of small ecosystems which are similar in their structure. In a particular biome there are same climatic, abiotic factors and similar living organisms. Biomes are of two main types, land biomes and aquatic biomes. The land biomes exist only on land. Land biomes are of following subtypes based on the abiotic factors. E.g. Grasslands, evergreen forests, deserts, Tundra ecosystem, ecosystems in Taiga, tropical rainforests, etc. Aquatic biomes include freshwater ecosystem, marine ecosystem and brackish water ecosystem found in the creeks.

Question c.
Food web.
Answer:
The complex feeding relationships form a food web. In nature in any ecosystem, the food chains are not straight and linear. But these are quite complex. A prey is consumed by a predator but this predator can itself be a prey to some other predator. E.g. Frog is a predator for variety of insects but frog is preyed upon by snake and the snake can be eaten by a bird. The same bird can also feed on insects or frog. The interrelationships between different biotic components of any ecosystem thus form the complicated food web.

4. Give scientific reasons: 

Question a.
Plants in an ecosystem are called producers.
Answer:
are cut down causing deforestation. The wild animals lose their habitat. Many of them become extinct. There is great loss of flora and fauna due to construction of large dams. There is undue pressure on the land surface caused due to stored water column. This may cause earthquakes. The human settlements are removed as their houses and farms are immersed under water. In all the above ways large dams destroy the ecosystems.

Question b.
Large dams destroy ecosystems.
Answer:
When a large dam is constructed, the original landscape is changed. The trees are cut down causing deforestation. The wild animals lose their habitat. Many of them become extinct. There is great loss of flora and fauna due to construction of large dams. There is undue pressure on the land surface caused due to stored water column. This may cause earthquakes. The human settlements are removed as their houses and farms are immersed under water. In all the above ways large dams destroy the ecosystems.

Question c.
Rhinos were restored in Dudhwa forest.
Answer:
Long ago in last century, Dudhwa forest was the natural habitat of the one-horned Rhino. However, due to hunting and poaching, the Rhino became almost extinct. In order to restore it back the breeding in captivity was attempted and the young ones were released in the natural habitat. Saving the precious wildlife is important and hence these efforts were done.

5. Answer the following:

Question a.
What are the effects of increased population (of human beings) on ecosystems?
Answer:

1. Human population growth rate is very big as compared to other animals.
2. Moreover, they are apex consumers in an ecosystem. Just like any other organisms, ecosystems provide all the basic needs to humans, too.
3. However, man demands much more due to excessive population. The natural resources are utilized on the large scale only by man.
4. Changing lifestyles, consumerism, degradation of nature and pollution are certain aspects which are created only by human beings.
5. All these cause increased stress on the ecosystems. Large human population also produces large-scale solid wastes.

Question b.
How is urbanization responsible for destruction of ecosystems?
Answer:
When people do not get sufficient food and other amenities, they migrate to the cities. The cities provide employment for many people due to industries, factories and other facilities. Every day many people migrate to cities. This causes urbanization. Due to increased population in cities, there is more need for housing. This results in loss of agricultural lands, marshlands, wetlands, forests and grasslands, etc.

The natural ecosystems are lost in an attempt to have developmental work. Human interference causes changes in the ecosystems. When land usage is changed many naturally occurring species of plants and animals are exterminated. Animal- human conflicts are very common in newly established urban areas which are near the natural forests.

Question c.
What are the reasons for war?
Answer:
There are difference of opinions and competition over land, water, mineral resources, etc. among neighbouring countries. Moreover, there can be economic and political causes which lead to war among different countries. Many times the l religions and ethnicity are also caused for dispute. Due to international conflicts, the peace is disturbed and it results in war.

Question d.
Explain the interactions among the factors of an ecosystem.
Answer:

1. The abiotic factors such as air, water, soil, sunlight, temperature, humidity, etc. affect the biotic factors, i.e. the surviving plants, animals and microbes in the ecosystem.
2. The type of abiotic factors in an ecosystem determine the survival of biotic factors. The population of these biotic factors is also dependent on the quality of abiotic factors.
3. The proportion of abiotic factors in an ecosystem fluctuates as biotic factors use up or release particular abiotic factors.
4. Every biotic factor also interacts with its necessary abiotic factors as well as other biotic factors around it.

Question e.
Differentiate between evergreen forests and grasslands.
Answer:

Evergreen forests	Grasslands
1. About seven percent of the Earth’s surface is occupied by evergreen forests.	1. About 30 percent of the Earth’s surface is covered by grasslands.
2.  More than half of the earth’s terrestrial plants and animals are seen in evergreen forests.	2. Grazing animals are seen in grasslands.
3. Tropical evergreen forests are dense, multi-layered.	3. Grasslands consist of tall grass. There are wild grasses and there may be some trees.
4. These forests are found in the areas receiving more than 200 cm annual rainfall i.e. very heavy rainfall.	4. There is an average of 20 – 35 inches of rainfall a year in grasslands.
5. Tropical regions show evergreen forests.	5. Several parts of the world have grasslands.

6. Describe the following pictures:

Question a.
Describe the following pictures

Answer:
The picture no. 1 is showing desert ecosystem, while the picture no. 2 is showing a forest ecosystem where a wetland (a lake) is also shown. In desert ecosystem, the producers are green cactus and a palm tree. Since in desert there are scanty rains, the vegetation is very less. The soil is sandy soil. The consumers of the desert are also limited.

In the above picture camel is shown which is a primary consumer in the desert ecosystem. Camel is very well adapted for desert life. There is also the scarcity of water in desert and hence cactus shows xerophytic (suitable to survive in desert) adaptations.

In second picture, the forest ecosystem is shown because we can see elephant and tiger in the picture. Also, giant hornbill is sitting on the tree. This forest must be tropical evergreen forest. The rainfall is heavy in such areas and hence different types of wetlands can be seen in forests. Wetlands support variety of life. A separate aquatic ecosystem does exist here which is closely interconnected with the terrestrial ecosystems through food chains and food web.

The birds utilize the fish as their prey. The wild animals come to wetlands to quench their thirst. In this picture the plants, grass, etc. are producers, small fishes in the lake are primary consumers. They will be eaten by larger fishes which are secondary consumer in the aquatic ecosystem. The elephant is herbivorous animal and hence it is primary consumer. Snake is the secondary consumer while the birds of prey (eagle that is flying) and tiger are tertiary consumers.

Can you recall?

Question 1.
Which factors do you find in your surroundings?
Answer:
In our surroundings there are abiotic and biotic factors. The biotic factors are animals and plants in the surroundings. The invisible bacteria and fungi also have important role in the ecosystem as decomposers. Important abiotic factors are air, water, land, sunlight, etc.

Question 2.
Are these factors directly or indirectly related to you?
Answer:
We are directly or indirectly connected to every single factor in the surrounding in which we reside. For the requirement of food, we are dependent on plants and animals. For our survival we continuously need oxygen, water and other minerals, etc.

Classify:

Question 1.
Classify the following into living and non-living factors. Sunlight, Sunflower, Elephant, Lotus, Algae, Stone, Grass, Water, Ant, Soil, Cat, Fern, Air, Lion.
Answer:

Living Factors	Non-living Factors
Sunflower, Elephant, Lotus, Algae, Grass, Ant, Cat, Fern, Air, Lion.	Sunlight, Stone, Water, Soil, Air.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
What is the role of microbes in above interaction?
Answer:
Microbes play the role of decomposers in the above interactions.

Question 2.
How do producers obtain abiotic factors?
Answer:
Producers obtain solar energy from sunlight. The other nutrients are obtained from soil, water and air.

Question 3.
From where do the consumers get their food?
Answer:
Consumers get their food from producers and other consumers.

Project:

Question 1.
Visit an ecosystem nearby, List the biotic and abiotic factors in it. Show with pictures or sketches, how they are dependant on each other.

Question 2.
With the help of internet find out the loss of ecosystems due to wars or atomic explosions. Describe in your words.

Class 8 Science Chapter 18 Ecosystems Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following by using the correct option:

Question 1.
Biotic community is another name for ………. (ecology, ecosystem, population)
Answer:
Biotic community is another name Biotic for ecosystem.

Question 2.
Microbes in an ecosystem are ………… (producers, consumers, decomposers)
Answer:
Microbes in an ecosystem are decomposers.

Question 3.
Many types of ecosystems are found in ………… (oceans, deserts, biosphere)
Answer:
Many types of ecosystems are found in biosphere.

Question 4.
………….. is a type of grassland ecosystem. (Taiga, Tundra, Desert)
Answer:
Taiga is a type of grassland ecosystem.

Question 5.
Gir forest in Gujarat is the only habitat/shelter for the spectacular ………….. (Asiatic lion, Royal Bengal tiger, One-horned rhino)
Answer:
Gir forest in Gujarat is the only habitat shelter for the spectacular Asiatic lion.

Correct the following statements by changing one or two words:

Question 1.
Primary, secondary, tertiary consumers are the abiotic factors of the ecosystem.
Answer:
Primary, secondary, tertiary consumers are the biotic factors of the ecosystem.

Question 2.
Most of the ecosystems are simple.
Answer:
Most of the ecosystems are complex.

Question 3.
The word ecosystem was brought in the use by Ray Claffam.
Answer:
The word ecosystem was brought in the use by A.G. Tansle.

Question 4.
Specific ecosystem developed in a vast area is called a biosphere.
Answer:
Specific ecosystem developed in a vast area is called a biomes.

Question 5.
Longer summer and limited rain develop very tall plants in the grassland ecosystem.
Answer:
Longer summer and limited rain develop dwarf plants in the grassland ecosystem.

Question 6.
29 % of the earth surface is covered by water and only 71 % has land on it.
Answer:
71 % of the earth surface is covered by water and only 29 % has land on it.

Question 7.
Dams increase the water current in lower area.
Answer:
Dams lessen the water current in lower area.

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. The Great Himalayan National Park	a. Asiatic lion
2. Kaziranga	b. Tigers
3. Bharatpur	c. Aquatic birds
4. Ranthambore	d. One-horned Rhino
5. Gir forest	e. White panther

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. The Great Himalayan National Park	e. White panther
2. Kaziranga	d. One-horned Rhino
3. Bharatpur	c. Aquatic birds
4. Ranthambore	b. Tigers
5. Gir forest	a. Asiatic lion

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Typha, Pistia, Eichhornia, Dipterocarpus
Answer:
Dipterocarpus. (All others are aquatic plants.)

Question 2.
Teak, Parthenium, Pine, Sandalwood
Answer:
Parthenium. (All others are forest trees.)

Question 3.
Giraffe, Zebra, Cheetah, Elephant
Answer:
Cheetah.. (All others are surviving grassland animals, Cheetah is a forest animal that is extinct from Asia.)

Question 4.
Hyena, Cow, Deer, Rabbit
Answer:
Hyena. (All others are primary consumers, Hyena is tertiary consumer.)

Question 5.
Fusarium, Leptocorsia, Aspergillus, Polycarpus
Answer:
Leptocorsia. (All others are decomposers, Leptocorsia is primary consumer.)

Taking into consideration the relationship in the first pair, complete the second pair :

Question 1.
Plants : Producers : : ……… : Consumers
Answer:
Animals

Question 2.
Secondary consumers : Jackals : : Tertiary consumer : ………..
Answer:
Kite/Lion/Hyena

Question 3.
Goat, sheep : Grassland ecosystem : : Tigers : …………..
Answer:
Forest ecosystem

Question 4.
Desert : Land biome : : Creek : …………….
Answer:
Aquatic biome

Question 5.
Limited rain : Grassland ecosystem : : ……….. : Tropical rainforests
Answer:
Excessive rain.

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is an ecosystem?
Answer:
The structure which is formed due to interactions between abiotic and biotic factors is called an ecosystem.

Question 2.
What is an ecological niche?
Answer:
The position of any living organism with reference to other living organisms and the role played by that organism is called ecological niche.

Question 3.
How are types of ecosystems formed?
Answer:
Types of ecosystems are formed according to size, place, climate, types of plants and animals that survive in that ecosystem.

Question 4.
Give examples of land biomes.
Answer:
Grasslands, evergreen forests, deserts, Tundra or polar ecosystem, ecosystems in Taiga, tropical rainforests, etc. are land biomes.

Question 5.
What are the reasons for tourism among the people?
Answer:
Tourism is mainly because people like to visit scenic places, undertake nature watch, wish to visit to sacred places and for entertainment purpose.

Question 6.
Why we should protect natural ecosystems?
Answer:
Natural ecosystems must be protected as they maintain balance in the biosphere.

Give my information Write short notes:

Question 1.
Dudhwa forest.
Answer:
Dudhwa forest is in Uttar Pradesh. About a century back, Dudhwa forest was the habitat for one-horned Rhino. However, due to hunting and poaching in 20th century, this animal became endangered. Thus to restore their populations, on 1st April 1984 rhino were introduced there again. Rhinos can were bred in captivity followed by releasing them back into natural ecosystem.

For this purpose at first the land was selected. This was 27 square km grassland and forest with continuous water supply through natural resources. Two observatories were established for making these efforts successful. Now Dudhwa is known for one¬horned Rhino population.

Question 2.
Aquatic ecosystems.
Answer:
Earth’s 71 % of surface is covered over by aquatic ecosystems. They are of three main types, viz. fresh water ecosystem, marine ecosystem and brackish water ecosystem. Rivers, lakes and ponds and streams are some of the fresh water ecosystem. Fresh water contains less salt and hence it is potable. Marine water has more salinity, i.e. its salt content is high. Brackish water ecosystem is present in the creeks. Here the saline and fresh water mix together. Hence salinity here is lesser than that of the marine water.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Microbes are called decomposers.
Answer:
Decomposition is the process in which the organic compounds are broken down to their inorganic constituents. The organic substances such as carbohydrates, proteins and lipids which are locked in the dead remains of plants and animals are converted into hydrogen, oxygen, calcium, iron, sodium, potassium, etc. by microbes. Therefore, microbes are called decomposers.

Use your brain power:

Question 1.
Which biotic factors get affected due to a dam?
Answer:
The biotic factors include plants, animals and humans. Lot of vegetation is submerged from the place where dam is constructed. The forests are wiped out. Large scale deforestation takes place in the proposed dam area. Wildlife is destroyed completely. The resident animals whose habitat are there either migrate away or are killed due to lack of their food and shelter. Many instances of animal-human conflicts arise when the wild animals drift to the neighbouring human settlements.

If human settlements are shifted, people are displaced. They lose their houses and agricultural land. Though compensation is given to them, there is great change for the people. Water current in lower area of the dam is reduced due to construction of dam-walls. Therefore, the original lotic (running 5 water) ecosystems that were present are destroyed after the construction of dam.

Question 2.
What will be the effects on biotic factors in the running water of river?
Answer:
The aquatic flora (plants) and fauna (animals) are well adapted to their habitats. The running water ecosystems are known as lotic ecosystems. The non-moving waters on the contrary create lentic ecosystems. Lotic ecosystems provide special adaptations to the plants and animals living therein. Plants are mostly in the form of freely floating algae and phytoplankton. Animals are well adapted for swimming in the currents of water. The fishes especially show a stream-lined body, fins for swimming, and gills to take up dissolved oxygen in the water. The other animals are also well adapted to the currents of water.

Think about it:

Question 1.
Can we call a tree an independent ecosystem?
Answer:
The huge tree can be an independent ecosystem. On one such tree there may be different habitats. Variety of insects thrive on huge tree by making their habitats in cracks and crevices on the tree. Many birds visit the tree to feed on such insects. There are many bird species that live in the hollow of the tree. Garden lizards, chameleons, snakes are the different reptiles seen associated with the tree ecosystem.

Squirrels, rabbits, bats are the mammals which take shelter in and around the trees, also inhabit a tree variety of fungi, lichens, mosses and epiphytic plants like orchids survive on the huge trees. Many food chains and complicated food webs are formed with the support of the tree. Thus one can say that a tree is an independent ecosystem.

Question 2.
Today Divija visited a hill. Honey: bees were hovering on flowers. One of them stung Divijia’s hand. Divija was hurt due to that sting and said with anger that all the honey-bees from the whole world must get destroyed. Afterwards, she thought what will happen if all honey-bees are destroyed? We will get honey, nothing more. What would be your explanation to Divija?
Answer:
Honey bees provide us with honey and bee-wax. Both of these are commercial products. But more than that the role played by honey bees in the pollination of flowers is very important. Due to their nectar collecting behaviour, they bring about pollination of the flowers.

Presence of honey bees is thus very essential for the agriculture and horticulture. Without honey bees, the growth of fruits and grains will not be possible, if pollination and subsequent fertilization does not take place in nature. This will create famine-like conditions. Therefore, honey bees’ position in the nature is very important.

Chart based questions:

Question 1.
Complete the following chart in context to a grassland.

Answer:

Question 2.
Write the information about various components of forest.

Answer:

Question 3.
Observe such ecosystems around you and complete the following chart.

Answer:

Question 4.
Complete the table.

Answer:

National Park/Sanctuary	State
1. Gir	Gujarat
2. Dachigam	Jammu-Kashmir
3. Ranthambore	Rajasthan
4. Dajipur	Maharashtra
5. Kaziranga	Assam
6. Sunderbans	Bengal
7. Melghat	Maharashtra
8. Periyar	Kerala

Question 5.
Complete the following chart:

Answer:

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Correct the following diagram:

Answer:

MCQs based on experiment:

Question 1.
Which one out of the following is not biotic factor?
(a) Humidity
(b) Rabbit
(c) Snake
(d) Bacteria
Answer:
(a) Humidity

Question 2.
Which climatic factor is causing migration of the birds in certain regions of the earth?
(a) Humidity and rainfall
(b) Ambient temperature
(c) Amount of carbon dioxide
(d) Amount of plant matter
Answer:
(b) Ambient temperature

Question 3.
Which abiotic factor mainly distinguishes marine water from the fresh water?
(a) Temperature
(b) Dissolved oxygen:
(c) Salinity
(d) Surface tension
Answer:
(c) Salinity

Question 4.
Why is creek water different from the river water?
(a) Creek water is more polluted than the river water.
(b) Creek water is less salty than the river water.
(c) Creek water is more saline than the river water.
(d) Creek water is less turbulent than the river water.
Answer:
(b) Creek water is less salty than the river water.

Question 5.
Which land biome shows presence of cacti plants more?
(a) Polar regions
(b) Grasslands
(c) Rainforest
(d) Desert
Answer:
(d) Desert

Projects:

Collect information

Question 1.
What are the possible threats to grasslands?
Answer:
Man tries to use grasslands for agricultural purpose. This transformation causes loss of natural ecosystem. Many animals from grasslands are killed by hunting and poaching. Though now Wildlife Act has protected these animals, many wildlife species are already extinct. There are chances of forest fires which is the greatest threat to grasslands. The global warming may also cause grasslands to become a desert.

Question 2.
Why did Asian Cheetah become extinct in last century?
Answer:
When British ruled India, Asian Cheetah was hunted to a great extent. The kings and British rulers did rampant hunting. The forest lands were also reduced due to encroachment by humans to build their settlements. Dams were constructed. Mega highways, bridges and roads caused loss of habitat for Asian Cheetah. Cheetah needs large thickly forested territory. This was lost due to all man-made activities. All these reasons made Asian Cheetah extinct in last century.

Question 3.
Observe Asian Cheetah on internet. Describe it.
Answer:
Cheetah is the fastest running feline animal on the earth. Though from Asian regions it is said to be extinct, in African grasslands, its occurrence is still there. But it is endangered animal. By 2016, the global cheetah population is estimated at approximately 7,100 individuals in the wild. Several African countries have taken steps to improve cheetah conservation measures.

Cheetah has a slender body, deep chest, spotted coat. Its head is small rounded and on the face there is black tear-like streaks. It has long thin legs and a long spotted tail. Cheetah in India were tamed during Moghul period for assisting in hunting. Stories about such episodes are commonly told. However, the last Cheetah in India was spotted in Bastar, M.P. in 1948.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 11 Ancient India and the World Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 11 Ancient India and the World

Class 6 History Chapter 11 Ancient India and the World Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Name the following:

Question 1.
Places where articles made in Rome were found.
Answer:
Kolhapur and Arikamedu in Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
A new style of art emerged during the Kushana period in India.
Answer:
Gandhara style of art.

Question 3.
The language of the books Mahavansa and Deepvansa.
Answer:
Pali language.

Question 4.
A country to which Buddhism had spread in the ancient period.
Answer:
Sri Lanka.

2. Think and expand/elaborate:

Question 1.
Indian culture had an impact on southeast Asia.
Answer:

• Indian culture had a deep impact on the art and cultural life of southeast Asia.
• Dance-dramas based on stories from Ramayana and Mahabharata are popular in Indonesia even today.
• In later years, temples of Lord Shiva and Vishnu were also built there.

Question 2.
The spread of Buddhism in China became easier.
Answer:

• In the first century CE, the Ming emperor of China invited the Buddhist bhikkhus Dharmarakshaka and Kashyapmatanga to China.
• The Bhikkhus translated many Indian Buddhist texts into Chinese language.
• This made the spread of Buddhism in China easier.

3. What would you do if you are encouraged in your favourite hobby ?
Answer:
If someone encouraged me, it will make me very happy and boost my self-confidence. Thus I will further expand my horizon by gaining more knowledge and enhancing my hobby.

4. Describe a picture:

A picture of the Gandhara style sculpture on a stupa in Hadda, Afghanistan is given in this chapter. Observe it and write about it.

5. Find out more about:

Question 1.
The Gandhara style of art.
Answer:
Under the influence of the Greek art of sculpture, a new form of art emerged in India during the Kushana period. It is called Gandhara school of art. In the Gandhara, art school images of Gautam Buddha were mainly carved in Gandhara.

Question 2.
The Silk Route.
Answer:
Chinese silk was in great demand in India. Merchants in ancient India supplied Chinese silk to western countries. The land route by which the silk trade was carried on was called the silk route. Some ancient places in India were connected to this route. The Chinese Buddhist Bhikkhus also came to India through this silk route.

6. Mark the countries of Southeast Asia mentioned in the chapter on an outline map.

Activity:

Obtain information about a form of art of your choice and present it in your class.

Class 6 History Chapter 11 Ancient India and the World Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
People of the Harappan civilisation had developed trade relations with the countries of the ______.
(a) north
(b) west
(c) south
Answer:
(b) west

Question 2.
________ had spread to Afghanistan and to many countries of Central Asia.
(a) Zoroastrianism
(b) Jainism
(c) Buddhism
Answer:
(c) Buddhism

Question 3.
The writings of the Greek historians introduced India to the ______ world.
(a) western
(b) eastern
(c) central
Answer:
(a) western

Question 4.
Under the influence of the Greek art of sculpture, a new form of art emerged in India during the ____ period.
(a) Gupta
(b) Kushana
(c) Vakataka
Answer:
(b) Kushana

Question 5.
In the Gandhara art school images of _______ were mainly carved.
(a) Gautam Buddha
(b) Vardhaman Mahavir
(c) Guru Nanak
Answer:
(a) Gautam Buddha

Question 6.
The early coins that were minted in India were also like _________ coins.
(a) Sri lanka
(b) Chinese
(c) Greek
Answer:
(c) Greek

Question 7.
The excavations at Arikamedu in Tamil Nadu have also brought to light many articles made in ______.
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Rome
(c) China
Answer:
(b) Rome

Question 8.
______was an important port in Egypt.
(a) Funan
(b) Kolhapur
(c) Alexandria
Answer:
(c) Alexandria

Question 9.
Beside Indian goods, the _______ also conveyed Indian philosophy and science to Europe.
(a) Chinese
(b) Arabs
(c) Greeks
Answer:
(b) Arabs

Question 10.
The concept of ‘__________ ‘ is one of India’s major contributions to the world.
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) mathematics
Answer:
(a) zero

Question 11.
Sanghamitra carried a branch of the _________ tree to Sri Lanka.
(a) Banyan
(b) Bodhi
(c) Pipal
Answer:
(b) Bodhi

Question 12.
There was a great demand in India for Sri Lankan _________ and other precious stones.
(a) diamonds
(b) rubies
(c) pearls
Answer:
(c) pearls

Question 13.
The wall paintings in Sigiriya caves bear a resemblance to the paintings in the _______ caves.
(a) Ellora
(b) Ajanta
(c) Nashik
Answer:
(b) Ajanta

Question 14.
Right from the ancient times, India and __________ had established trade and cultural relations.
(a) China
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rome
Answer:
(a) China

Question 15.
Emperor Harshavardhan had even sent an ambassador to the _______ court.
(a) Greek
(c) Roman
(c) Chinese
Answer:
(c) Chinese

Question 16.
Chinese _______ was known as .’Chinanshuka’ and was in great demand in India.
(a) pearls
(b) diamond
(c) silk
Answer:
(c) silk

Question 17.
Merchants in ancient India supplied Chinese silk to _______ countries.
(a) eastern
(b) western
(c) northern
Answer:
(b) western

Question 18.
The land route by which the silk trade was carried on, was called the ________.
(a) Silk Route
(b) Trade Route
(c) Horse Route
Answer:
(a) Silk Route

Question 19.
The Chinese Buddhist bhikkhus Fa-hien and Yuan Chwang also came to ______ through this silk route.
(a) Nepal
(b) Rome
(c) India
Answer:
(c) India

Question 20.
The bhikkhus translated many Buddhist texts into the _____ language.
(a) Chinese
(b) Japanese
(c) Prakrit
Answer:
(a) Chinese

Question 21.
People of Funan knew ______ language.
(a) Marathi
(b) Chinese
(c) Sanskrit
Answer:
(c) Sanskrit

Question 22.
Indian culture had a deep impact on the art and cultural life of ________ Asia.
(a) Southeast
(b) Southwest
(c) Northeast
Answer:
(a) Southeast

Question 23.
Dance-dramas based on stories from the two Indian epics are popular in ______ even today.
(a) China
(b) Indonesia
(c) Japan
Answer:
(b) Indonesia

Question 24.
In the later years, ______ of Lord Shiva and Vishnu were also built.
(a) caves
(b) muttas
(c) temples
Answer:
(c) temples

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What has India exchanged with the outside world?
Answer:
Having developed trade relations, India began economic and cultural exchange with the outside world.

Question 2.
Who introduced India to the western world?
Answer:
The writings of the Greek historians introduced India to the western world.

Question 3.
Besides Indian goods, what did the Arabs convey to Europe?
Answer:
Besides Indian goods, the Arabs also conveyed Indian philosophy and science to Europe.

Question 4.
Who were sent to Sri Lanka to spread Buddhism?
Answer:
King Ashoka sent his son Mahendra and daughter Sanghamitra to Sri Lanka to spread Buddhism.

Question 5.
Who introduced the Bodhi tree to Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Sanghamitra carried a branch of the Bodhi tree to Sri Lanka.

Question 6.
What is similar between the caves at Ajanta and Sigiriya?
Answer:
The wall paintings at Sigiriya bear resemblance to the paintings in the Ajanta caves.

Question 7.
What provides information about the dose relations between India and Sri Lanka?
Answer:
The Sri Lankan Buddhist works ‘Dipavamsa’ and ‘Mahavamsa’ provide information about the close relations between India and Sri Lanka.

Question 8.
Who sent an ambassador to the Chinese court?
Answer:
Emperor Harshavardhan sent an ambassador to the Chinese court.

Question 9.
What gave an impetus to the spread of Buddhism in China?
Answer:
The Bhikkhus translated many Indian Buddhist texts into Chinese Language. This gave an impetus to spread of Buddhism in China.

Question 10.
In the later years, which temples were built in South-Asian countries?
Answer:
the later years, temples of Lord Shiva and Vishnu were built in south-asian countries.

Elaborate:

Question 1.
Alexandria was an important port in Egypt?
Answer:
The Arab merchants carried Indian goods up to Alexandria. From there, they were sent to the countries in Europe. Besides Indian goods, the Arabs also conveyed Indian philosophy and science to Europe. The concept of ‘zero’ is one of India’s major contribution’ to the world . It was the Arabs who introduced this Indian concept to Europe.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 10 Ancient India: Cultural Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 10 Ancient India: Cultural

Class 6 History Chapter 10 Ancient India: Cultural Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Make a list of ancient Indian universities.
Answer:
The ancient Indian universities are Takshashila, Vamasi, Valabhi, Nalanda, Vikramshila and Kanchi.

Question 2.
Make a list of the Indian goods that were in demand in foreign countries.
Answer:
Indian goods like fine textiles, ivory, precious stones, spices, beautifully made earthen ; pottery were in great demand in foreign countries.

2. Name the following:

Question 1.
Epics and poetic composition of ancient India.
Answer:
Epics Silappadhikaram and Manimekhalai and Arsha epics Ramayana and Mahabharata and Paumchariya a poetic work are composition of ancient India.

3. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The epic Ramayana was composed by rishi
(a) Vyas
(b) Valmiki
(c) Munni
Answer:
(b) Valmiki

Question 2.
The science of Indian medicine is called
(a) Ayurveda
(b) Homeopathy
(c) Alopathy
Answer:
(a) Ayurveda

Question 3.
Thousands of students could live at the University.
(a) Kanchi
(b) Takshashila
(c) Nalanda
Answer:
(c) Nalanda

4. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Explain what is meant by ‘Tipitaka’.
Answer:
Tipitaka is a Buddhist religious text written in Pali. It contains three categories of texts.

• Sutta Pitaka
• Vinay Pitaka
• Abhidhamma Pitaka

Question 2.
What is the message of the Bhagwad Gita?
Answer:

• The Bhagwad Gita tells us that each one of us should do our duty without expecting rewards.
• It also says that the path of devotion to God is open to all.

Question 3.
What aspects does Ayurveda take into account?
Answer:
Ayurveda is a very old traditional Indian medical science. Ayurveda not only seeks to understand the symptoms, diagnosis and treatment of an illness but also takes into account the prevention of the illness.

Question 4.
What is meant by Sangham Literature?
Answer:
Sangham means a gathering of learned men. The literature that is compiled in such gathering is known as Sangham literature.

5. Discuss:

Question 1.
Art and architecture of the Mauryan and Gupta period.
Answer:

• Indian architecture reached its peak during the Mauryan and the Gupta periods.
• The stone pillar erected by Emperor Ashoka at various places are excellent examples of Indian sculpture.
• The stupa at Sanchi and cave sculptures at Karla, Nashik, Ajanta, Ellora, etc. show that the same tradition advanced even further.

6. What would you do ?

Question 1.
How would you obtain information about Ayurvedic medicine and use it in your day to day life?
Answer:
I will try to get information about Ayurveda from different literature that is available either in bookstores or on internet. I will try to deal with minor ailments like cough, cold, acidity, aches and pains in day to day life through ayurvedic stores. I will try to improve my health in order to prevent ailments by taking ayurvedic medicines to improve my immunity.

Question 2.
On a trip to a historical site, your friend in writes his name on the structure.
Answer:
When on a trip to a historical site, I see my friend write his name on the structure, I will gently tell him the importance of historical monuments and also how the ancient Indians must have built it with lots of effort, without modern technology and equipment. Thus invoking respect for the ancient fellow Indians is my friend. Also telling him how proud we Indians should be of their art and talents.

7. Observe the picture of the stupa at Sanchi and obtain more information about it.

Answer:
Sanchi is an outstanding specimen of Buddhist art and architecture. The Sanchi stupa is one of the best preserved early stupa in central India. The Sanchi stupa is surrounded by a railing with four carved gateways facing in all four directions. An interesting characteristic about Sanchi stupa is that Lord Buddha has been symbolically represented by footsteps, wheels, thrones, etc. rather than by his own image. The Sanchi stupa is one of the most wonderful structures of ancient India.

Activity:

• Obtain information from the elders in your family, about some special buildings in your neighbourhood.
• Visit some historical buildings, memorials in your neighbourhood and write a note about the history you learn from the visits there.

Class 6 History Chapter 10 Ancient India: Cultural Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
______ means a gathering of learned men.
(a) Pitaka
(b) Sangham
(c) Shreni
Answer:
(b) Sangham

Question 2.
The Agamgranthas are a collection of the teachings of ________.
(a) Guru Nanak
(b) Gautam Buddha
(c) Vardhaman Mahavir
Answer:
(c) Vardhaman Mahavir

Question 3.
Vimalsuri has told the story of ____ in Paumchariya a poetic work in Prakrit.
(a) Rama
(b) Harishchandra
(c) Buddha
Answer:
(a) Rama

Question 4.
Tipitaka is written in ______.
(a) English
(b) Pali
(c) Hindi
Answer:
(b) Pali

Question 5.
_______ women composed gathas about their own experience.
(a) Illiterate
(b) Housewives
(c) Learned
Answer:
(c) Learned

Question 6.
The Bhagwad Gita, which is a sacred text of the Hindu, is a part of the ______.
(a) Ramayana
(b) Arthashastras
(c) Mahabharata
Answer:
(c) Mahabharata

Question 7.
Adi Shankaracharya lived during the ______ century CE.
(a) seventh
(b) eighth
(c) ninth
Answer:
(b) eighth

Question 8.
Kautilya wrote the ______.
(a) Arthashastra
(b) Raghuvansha
(c) Brahmasutras
Answer:
(a) Arthashastra

Question 9.
Patanjali wrote _______.
(a) Kumarsambhava
(b) Upanishads
(c) Mahabhashya
Answer:
(c) Mahabhashya

Question 10.
‘Ramayana’ and ‘Mahabharata’ are the two _______ epics of ancient India.
(a) Arsha
(b) Modern
(c) Classical
Answer:
(a) Arsha

Question 11.
Arsha means _______ by rishis or sages.
(a) sung
(b) reported
(c) composed
Answer:
(c) composed

Question 12.
The main character of Ramayana is ________.
(a) Shri Ram
(b) rishis
(c) Kautilya
Answer:
(a) Shri Ram

Question 12.
Mahabharata has been composed by the sage ______.
(a) Kautilya
(b) Vyas
(c) Adi
Answer:
(b) Vyas

Question 14.
India has an ancient tradition of telling a ____ through songs, music and dance.
(a) story
(b) moral
(c) fairytale
Answer:
(a) story

Question 15.
_______ composed by Pandit Vishnusharma is an excellent example of narrative literature.
(a) Champak
(b) Chandamama
(c) Panchatantra
Answer:
(c) Panchatantra

Question 16.
________ was carried out by sea as well as land routes.
(a) Trade
(b) Travel
(c) Study
Answer:
(a) Trade

Question 17.
The concept of stitching clothes was introduced in India during the ______ period.
(a) Vakataka
(b) Kushana
(c) Satavahana
Answer:
(b) Kushana

Question 18.
Jeevaka was a well known ______ at the court of king Bimbisara.
(a) clown
(b) minister
(c) vaidya
Answer:
(c) vaidya

Question 19.
_______ were the first to use the numerals 1 to 9 and zero.
(a) Chinese
(b) Nepalese
(c) Indians
Answer:
(c) Indians

Question 20.
The scientist Aryabhatta wrote the book Aryabhatiya which included many formulae for ______ operations.
(a) mathematical
(b) scientific
(c) medical
Answer:
(a) mathematical

Question 21.
Aryabhatta was also an ________.
a) scientist
(b) astronomer
(c) astrologer
Answer:
(b) astronomer

Question 22.
________ was an important city on the ancient indian trade route.
(a) Nalanda
(b) Vikramshila
(c) Takshashila
Answer:
(c) Takshashila

Question 23.
Emperor Harshavardhan made generous donations to ________University.
(a) Nalanda
(b) Vikramshila
(c) Takshashila
Answer:
(a) Nalanda

Question 24.
Vikramshila University was established by king _______ in the eighth century CE.
(a) Harshavardhan
(b) Dharmapal
(c) Ashoka
Answer:
(b) Dharmapal

Question 25.
During the Pallava dynasty, ________ in Tamil Nadu emerged as an important centre of education.
(a) Nalanda
(b) Valabhi
(c) Kanchi
Answer:
(c) Kanchi

Question 26.
The stone pillars erected by Emperor Ashoka at various places are excellent examples of Indian ________.
(a) sculpture
(b) drawing
(c) photography
Answer:
(a) sculpture

Question 27.
_______ architecture developed during the in South India.
(a) Pillar
(b) Temple
(c) Statue
Answer:
(b) Temple

Question 28.
The art of making ______ images of deities emerged during the period of the Pallavas.
(a) copper
(c) gold
(c) bronze
Answer:
(c) bronze

Question 29.
The ______ pillar at Mehrauli near Delhi is evidence of the advanced knowledge of metallurgy of the ancient Indians.
(a) iron
(b) gold
(c) bronze
Answer:
(a) iron

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
In which languages was the ancient Indian literature written?
Answer:
Ancient Indian literature was written in Sanskrit, Ardhamagadhi, Pali and Tamil languages.

Question 2.
What variety was included in the ancient Indian literature?
Answer:
Ancient Indian literature included varieties like religious literature, treatises on grammar, epics, plays, stories, etc.

Question 3.
What does ‘Sangham’ mean?
Answer:
Sangham means a gathering of learned men.

Question 4.
Name two prominent Sangham epics.
Answer:
The two prominent epics are ‘Silappadhikarm’ and Manimekhalai’.

Question 5.
What do we learn from the Sangham literature?
Answer:
From the Sangham literature we learn about the political and social life in south India during the period.

Question 6.
Name the three important religious texts.
Answer:
The important religious texts are Agamgranth, Tipitaka and Bhagwad Gita.

Question 7.
In which languages are the Jain Agamgranth written?
Answer:
The Jain Agamgranthas are written in the Prakrit languages of Ardhamagadhi, Shaurseni and Maharashtri.

Question 8.
What does Agamgranthas contain?
Answer:
Agamgranthas are a collection of the teachings of Vardhaman Mahavir.

Question 9.
Give the literary work of Haribhadrasuri.
Answer:
Haribhadrasuri’s literary work Samaraichchakaha is well known.

Question 10.
What does Sutta Pitaka contain?
Answer:
Sutta Pitaka includes texts of Gautam Buddha’s teachings or sermons.

Question 11.
What instructions are given in Vinay Pitaka?
Answer:
The Vinay Pitaka gives the rules of behaviour which bhikkhus and bhikkhunis in the Bauddha Sangha should follow in their day- to-day lives.

Question 12.
Which is the sacred text of the Hindus?
Answer:
The Bhagvad Gita is the sacred text of the Hindus.

Question 13.
Who wrote the Arthashastra?
Answer:
Kautilya wrote the Arthashastra.

Question 14.
What is Ashtadhyayi?
Answer:
Ashtadhyayi is a treatise in grammar written by the grammarian Panini.

Question 15.
Name the two Arsha of ancient India.
Answer:
Ramayana and Mahabharata are the two ‘Arsha’ epics of ancient India.

Question 16.
What does ‘Arsha’ mean?
Answer:
Arsha means composed by rishis or sages.

Question 17.
Who wrote the Ramayana?
Answer:
Rishi Valmiki composed the Ramayana.

Question 18.
Who wrote the Mahabharata?
Answer:
The Mahabharata has been composed by sage Vyas.

Question 19.
Which literature is an excellent example of narrative literature?
Answer:
Panchatantra composed by Pandit Vishnusharma is an excellent example of narrative literature.

Question 20.
What are shrenis?
Answer:
Organisations of traders and artisans are called shrenis.

Question 21.
When was the concept of stitching clothes introduced in India?
Answer:
The concept of stitching clothes was introduced in India during the Kushana period.

Question 22.
What does Charaka Samhita contain?
Answer:
The Charaka Samhita contains detailed information about clinical diagnosis and pharmacy.

Question 23.
Explain the concept of decimal system.
Answer:
Indians invented the concept of decimal system in which the value of a digit changes according to its place ekam, daham, (units, terms, etc).

Question 24.
Name some of the students who attended the Takshashila University.
Answer:
A famous vaidya, Jeevaka, Chandragupta Maurya, the grammarian Panini and vaidya Charaka are some of the students of the Takshashila University.

Question 25.
Which Chinese scholar visited the Takshashila University?
Answer:
The famous Chinese Bauddha bhikkhu, Fa-hien visited the Takshashila University.

Question 26.
Name the Chinese Bhikkhus that visited Valabhi.
Answer:
Yuan Chwang and Itsing, the Chinese Bauddha Bhikkhus visited Valabhi.

Question 27.
Which emperor made generous donation to Nalanda University?
Answer:
Emperor Harshavardhan made generous donation to Nalanda University.

Question 28.
How could one get admission at the Nalanda University?
Answer:
Students seeking admission to the university had to appear for an examination at the entrance gate.

Question 29.
Who established the Vikramshila University?
Answer:
Vikramshila University was established by a king named Dharmapal in the eighth century

Question 30.
When did Kanchi emerge as an important centre of education?
Answer:
During the reign of the Pallava dynasty, Kanchi in Tamil Nadu emerged as an important centre of education.

Question 31.
How do we know that Indian sculpture was excellent?
Answer:
The stone pillars erected by Emperor Ashoka at various places are excellent examples of Indian sculptures.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What is a classical period in history?
Answer:
Sometimes there is such a period in the history of language, literature and art and that its glory remains undiminished even later on such a period is said to be classical.

Question 2.
Explain ‘Theatre’.
Answer:
India has an ancient tradition of telling a story through songs, music and dance. When these arts are presented with supporting dialogues they are known as ‘theatre’.

Question 3.
Give the importance of surgeon Sushruta’s treatise.
Answer:

(a) The famous surgeon Sushruta has discussed the diagnosis of different ailments and their remedies in his treatiste the ‘Sushruta Samhita’.

(b) The importance of this text is that it discusses the different causes leading to injuries, fractures, their types and the various types of surgeries required for them.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Takshashila University
Answer:
(a) Takshashila was an important city on the ancient Indian trade route.

(b) Gautama Buddha and a famous vaidya, had studied at Takshashila University.

(c) Chandragupta Maurya the founder of the Mauryan Empire was educated at this university.

(d) The Greek historians who accompanied Alexander have also given a description of if the university. They have stated that such a university did not exist anywhere in Greece.

(e) The famous Chinese Bauddha bhikkhu, Fa- Hien who came to India around 400 CE also visited the Takshashila University. The university provided education in various subjects such as Vedic literature, Buddhist philiosophy, economics, logic, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 9 Ancient Kingdoms of the South Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 9 Ancient Kingdoms of the South

Class 6 History Chapter 9 Ancient Kingdoms of the South Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Can you tell ?

Question 1.
Whose name did the Satavahana kings write before their own?
Answer:
Jhe Satavahana kings were known to follow the custom of writing their mother’s name before their own.

Question 2.
The ancient name of Kolhapur.
Answer:
The ancient name of Kolhapur was ‘Kuntal’.

2. Complete the table by reading the map in the lesson:

Pallava	Kanchi
	Aihole, Badami, Pattdakal
Satavahana

Answer:

Pallava	Kanchi
Chalukya	Aihole, Badami, Pattdakal
Satavahana	Ajanta, Ellora, Nashik, Bhokardan

3. Tabulate the following names as dynasties and their capitals:
Satavahana, Pandya, Chalukya,Vakataka, Pallava, Madurai, Pratishthan, Kanchipuram, Vatapi
Answer:

Dynasty                                                                     Capital
Satavahana	Pratishthan
Chalukya	Vatapi
Vakataka	Vatsagulm
Pallava	Kanchipuram
Pandya	Madurai

4. Observe any three picture in the lesson and write in your own words what you learn from them:
Answer:
The Kailas Temple:

The Kailas temple at Ellora in Maharashtra was carved out during the reign of Krishna Raja I. This temple is the largest rock-cut monolithic ancient Hindu temple. This temple gets its name Kailas as it symbolizes mount Kailas, the home of Lord Shiva.

A Satavahana coin:

Indian trade was at its zenith during the Satavahana period. Indian goods were exported to western countries and even as far as Rome. Trade took place by sea and this fact is known through coins which have the image of a ship carved on it.

The Ratha or chariot temples:

The rathas or shrines shaped as temple chariot are hewn from the granite rock. They are a perfect example of monilithic rock-cut architecture of the Pallava dynasty. These group monuments at Mahabalipuram has been classified as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

5. Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the ancient dynasties of Southern India.
Answer:
The Cher, Pandya and Chola dynasty were the ancient dynasties of Southern India.

Question 2.
After the decline of the Mauryan Empire which local kings became independent?
Answer:
After the decline of the Mauryan Empire, the local kings in Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka became independent.

6. Anwer in brief:

Question 1.
Write about the achievements of Mahendra Varman.
Answer:

• Mahendra Varman was an able Pallava ruler.
• He expanded the Pallava kingdom.
• He was also a playwright.

Question 2.
What is meant by Tri-samudra-toya-peet- vahnah?
Answer:
Tri-samudra-toya-peet-vahnah means ‘one whose houses have drunk the water of three seas’. It simply means to describe the one whose kingdom is so vast that it extends to the three seas, i.e. Arabian sea, the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean.

Question 3.
What goods were exported from the Muziris port?
Answer:
Goods like spices, pearls, precious stones were exported from the Muziris port.

Activity:

Make a collection of the pictures in the chapter and display them in the school exhibition

Class 6 History Chapter 9 Ancient Kingdoms of the South Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
Muziris is mentioned as an important port on the coast of _______.
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Chennai
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 2.
Muziris port was in the ______ Kingdom and was a major centre for export.
(a) Chola
(b) Pandya
(c) Cher
Answer:
(c) Cher

Question 3.
The Pandya kingdom was a part of today’s ______.
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Maharashtra
Answer:
(b) Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
The capital of the Pandya kingdom was ______.
(a) Kodaikanal
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Madurai

Question 5.
After the decline of the Mauryan Empire, the local kings in Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh Karnataka also became _____.
(a) independent
(b) dependent
(c) republic
Answer:
(a) independent

Question 6.
Pratishthan or the present day Paithan in ______ was the capital of Satvahana Dynasty.
(a) Delhi
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

Question 7.
King Simuk was the founder of the _______ dynasty.
(a) Satavahana
(b) Vakataka
(c) Chalukya
Answer:
(a) Satavahana

Question 8.
The inscription in the _______ caves near Junnar in Pune district bear the names of the important persons of this dynasty.
(a) Kanheri
(b) Kolhapur
(c) Naneghat
Answer:
(c) Naneghat

Question 9.
Of the ________ Kings, Gautamiputra Satakarni is particularly well known.
(a) Chalukya
(b) Satavahana
(c) Vakataka
Answer:
(a) Chalukya

Question 10.
Satakarni defeated the _________ king Nahpana.
(a) Shaka
(b) Cher
(c) Paithan
Answer:
(a) Shaka

Question 11.
The famous poetic work Gatha-Saptashati in Maharashtri, was ________ by the Satavahana king Hala.
(a) composed
(b) edited
(c) sung
Answer:
(a) composed

Question 12.
Indian trade ________ greatly during the Satavahana period.
(a) decreased
(b) increased
(c) receded
Answer:
(b) increased

Question 13.
Paithan, Ter, Bhokardan, Kolhapur were recognised as important centres of ________.
(a) music
(b) culture
(c) trade
Answer:
(c) trade

Question 14.
Indian goods were exported as far away as ________.
(a) America
(b) Rome
(c) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(b) Rome

Question 15.
The cave sculptures at Ajanta, Nashik, Karla, Bhaje, Kanheri, Junnar in Maharashtra were carved during the ______ period.
(a) Satavahana
(b) Vakataka
(c) Cher
Answer:
(a) Satavahana

Question 16.
The power of the Satavahanas began to _______ by the third century CE.
(a) strengthen
(b) weaken
(c) flourish
Answer:
(b) weaken

Question 17.
Among the dynasties that emerged after the Satavahana period was the Vakataka, a _______ dynasty.
(a) powerful
(b) varied
(c) dynamic
Answer:
(a) powerful

Question 18.
The Vakataka dynasty was founded by _____.
(a) King Pravarsen
(b) King Pulakeshi
(c) King Vindhyashakti
Answer:
(c) King Vindhyashakti

Question 19.
King Vindhyashakti was ______ by Pravarsen I.
(a) succeeded
(b) finalised
(c) demoralised
Answer:
(a) succeeded

Question 20.
Chandragupta II had married his daughter Prabhavati to _________, the Vakataka king.
(a) Dantidurg
(b) Setubandh
(c) Rudrasen II
Answer:
(c) Rudrasen II

Question 21.
Varahdev, a minister of the Vakataka king Harishen, was a follower of _______.
(a) Judaism
(b) Buddhism
(c) Elinduism
Answer:
(b) Buddhism

Question 22.
Kalidasa’s ______ also belongs to the Vakataka period.
(a) Meghadoot
(b) Setubandh
(c) Saptashati
Answer:
(a) Meghadoot

Question 23.
The Chalukya dynasty in _____ was a powerful one.
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Karnataka
(c) Nepal
Answer:
(b) Karnataka

Question 24.
Pulakeshi I established the rule of the Chalukya Ancient Kingdoms of the South dynasty in the _______ century CE.
(a) fourth
(b) fifth
(c) sixth
Answer:
(c) sixth

Question 25.
The famous temples at Badami, Aihole and Pattadakal were built during the _______ period,
(a) Vakataka
(b) Satavahana
(c) Chalukya
Answer:
(c) Chalukya

Question 26.
The Pallavas were also powerful dynasty in ______ India.
(a) South
(b) North
(c) East
Answer:
(a) South

Question 27.
_______ in Tamil Nadu was the capital of the Pallava dynasty.
(a) Mahabalipuram
(b) Kanchipuram
(c) Ellora
Answer:
(b) Kanchipuram

Question 28.
Mahendra Varman was an able _______ ruler.
(a) Chalukya
(b) Pallava
(c) Vakataka
Answer:
(b) Pallava

Question 29.
The famous ‘ratha’ temples of ________ were sculpted during the reign of Mahendra Varman.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Kaniyakumari
(c) Mahabalipuram
Answer:
(c) Mahabalipuram

Question 30.
The Pallavas had a powerful and well equipped ______.
(a) army
(b) navy
(c) airforce
Answer:
(b) navy

Question 31.
The Rashtrakuta dynasty was first established in ______ by king Dantidurg.
(a) Mahabalipuram
(b) Nepal
(c) Maharashtra
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 32.
Krishna Raja I had the famous Kailas temple carved at _______.
(a) Ellora
(b) Ajanta
(c) Kanheri
Answer:
(a) Ellora

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the ancient dynasties of Southern India.
Answer:
The Cher, Pandya and Chola dynasty were the ancient dynasties of Southern India.

Question 2.
Which ancient port is mentioned as an important port?
Answer:
‘Muziris, is mentioned as an important port on the coast of Kerala.

Question 3.
What was the capital of the Paridya kingdom?
Answer:
The capital of the Pandya kingdom was Madurai.

Question 4.
What was the capital of the Satavahana dynasty?
Answer:
Pratishthan or the preseht day Paithan in Maharashtra was the capital of the Satavahana dynasty.

Question 5.
Who was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty?
Answer:
iCing Simuk was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty.

Question 6.
Which custom did the Satavahana kings follow?
Answer:
The Satavahana kings were known to follow the custom of writing their mother’s name before their own.

Question 7.
Name a popular Satavahana king.
Answer:
Gautamiputra Satakarni was a very well known Satavahana king.

Question 8.
What title was given to Gautamiputra Satakarni?
Answer:
Gautamiputra Satakarni was awarded the title Tri-samudra-toya-peet-vahan’.

Question 9.
Give the extent of the Satavahana empire.
Answer:
The Satavahana empire extended from the river Narmada in the north to the Tunga- bhadra river in the south.

Question 10.
Name the trade centres of the Satavahana period.
Answer:
Paithan, Ter, Bhokardan, Kolhapur were recognised as important trade centres of the Satavahana period.

Question 11.
Which caves were sculpted during the Satavahana period?
Answer:
The Caves at Ajanta, Nashik, Karla, Bhaje, Kanheri, Junnar in Maharashtra were carved during the Satavahana period.

Question 12.
Which dynasty emerged after the Satavahan dynasty?
Answer:
The Vakataka dynasty emerged after the Satavahana dynasty.

Question 13.
Who founded the Vakataka dynasty?
Answer:
The Vakataka dynasty was founded by king Vindhyashakti.

Question 14.
What did the Vakataka king, Pravarsen II compose?
Answer:
The Vakataka king Pravarsen II composed ‘Setubandh’ in Maharashtra.

Question 15.
What was the name of Kalidasa’s literature?
Answer:
Kalidasa’s literature was ‘Meghdoot’.

Question 16.
Which powerful dynasty was from Karnataka?
Answer:
The Chalukya dynasty was a powerful dynasty from Karnataka.

Question 17.
Name the capital of the Chalukya dynasty.
Answer:
Badami or Vatapi was the capital of the Chalukya dynasty.

Question 18.
Name the temples built during the Chalukya period.
Answer:
The famous temples at Badami, Aihole and Pattadakal were built during the Chalukya period.

Question 19.
Which powerful dynasty existed in South India?
Answer:
The Pallavas were a powerful dynasty in South India.

Question 20.
Name the capital of the Pallava Kingdom.
Answer:
Kanchipuram in Tamil Nadu was the capital of the Pallava kingdom.

Question 21.
What is characteristic of the ‘ratha’ temples?
Answer:
The ‘ratha’ temples of Mahabalipuram are characteristic to have been sculpted from a single rock.

Question 22.
Write Yuan Chwang’s opinion about the Pallava kings.
Answer:
Yuan Chwang visited Kanchi and recorded that people of all religions received tolerant and just treatment under the rule of the Pallava kings.

Question 23.
Who was the founder of the Rashtrakuta Dynasty?
Answer:
King Dantidurg was the founder of the Rashtrakuta Dynasty.

Question 24.
Who sculpted the Kailas temple at Ellora?
Answer:
Krishna Raja I had the famous Kailas temple carved at Ellora.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Describe the work of literature by king Hala.
Answer:
The Satavahana king Hala composed the famous poetic work Gatha-Saptashati in Maharashtrin a Prakrit language.
This work provides information about the life of the people during the Satavahana period.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Marathi Solutions Kumarbharti Chapter 1 जय जय हे भारत देशा Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Marathi Kumarbharti Chapter 1 जय जय हे भारत देशा

शब्दार्थ

तपोवन – तपस्व्यांचे वास्तव्य असणारे वन. उजळली – प्रकाशमय झाली. उपनिषदे – वेदांचे सार. नररत्ने – वीरपुरुष, देशभक्त. खाण – भांडार. युग – काही शतकांचा कालखंड. धैर्य – धाडस, हिंमत. छळ – जुलूम. नच – नाहीच. वाकल्या माना – शरणागत. कापरे – भीती. अभिमान – सार्थ गर्व. आत्मशक्ती – स्वबळ, मनाची शक्ती. त्याग – सोडणे. श्रम – कष्ट, मेहनत. धुंद – आनंदाने बेभान. हरित क्रांती – धनधान्याची विपुलता. विश्वशांती – जगामध्ये शांतता नांदणे. कंगाल – दरिद्री. थरारल्या – शहारल्या. झळकत – प्रकाशत. मशाल – मोठी ज्योत. लोकशक्ती – लोकांची एकजूट, एकता. दलितमुक्ती – पीडितांची शोषणापासून सुटका.

कवितेचा (गीताचा) भावार्थ

हे माझ्या प्रिय भारत देशा, तुझा जयजयकार असो! तू नवीन जगाची आशा आहेस.

तपोवनातून उपनिषदांतील तत्त्वज्ञानाची भाषा प्रकाशमय झाली. तुझ्या मातृभूमीत शूरवीर पुरुषांच्या खाणी जन्माला आल्या; उदयाला आल्या. युगानुयुगे तू जगाला धैर्याची शिकवण दिली आहेस. तू नवीन सूर्याचा तेजस्वी देश आहेस. तू नवीन जगाची प्रेरणा आहेस. तुझा जयजयकार असो.

जुलूम-जबरदस्तीपुढे, मारक शक्तीपुढे आणि छळ करणाऱ्या व्यवस्थेपुढे तू कधी वाकला नाहीस, शरण आला नाहीस. तुझा शूर पराक्रमी स्वाभिमान पाहून अन्यायालाही भीतीचे कापरे भरते. अन्यायाला धडकी भरते. हे आत्मबळाच्या देशा, हे त्यागाच्या नि भक्तीच्या देशा, तुझा विजय असो. तू नवीन जगाची आस आहेस, तुझा जयजयकार असो.

घाम गाळून, कष्ट करून पिकलेली शेते आनंदाने बेहोश होऊन डोलत आहेत. घामाच्या थेंबांतून शेतकऱ्याच्या हृदयातील आनंद ओसंडतो आहे. तू हरितक्रांतीचा देश आहेस, तू विश्वामध्ये शांती नांदवणारा देश आहेस, तुझा विजय असो. तू नवीन जगाची आशा आहेस. हे भारत देशा, तुझा जयजयकार असो.

दैन्य-दारिद्र्याच्या घोर अन्यायाला जाळणाऱ्या मशाली आता पेटून झळाळत आहेत. त्यामुळे भोवताली भुकेकंगालांच्या झोपड्या आनंदाने शहारत आहेत. जनतेची एकजूट असलेल्या, हे लोकशक्तीच्या देशा, तुझा विजय असो. सर्व शोषित-पीडित जनांच्या मुक्तीचा तू देश आहेस. तू नव्या जगाची एकमेव आशा आहेस. हे भारत देशा, तुझा बुलंद जयजयकार असो.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 17 Man-made Materials Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 17 Man-made Materials

Class 8 Science Chapter 17 Man-made Materials Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Try to find it:

Question a.
Plastic shows …………. property, hence it can be moulded to any shape.
Answer:
Plastic shows plasticity property, hence it can be moulded to any shape.

Question b.
Motor cars are coated with ……… .
Answer:
Motor cars are coated with Teflon.

Question c.
Thermocol melts at ………… °C.
Answer:
Thermocol melts at more than 100 °C (it is about 240 °C).

Question d.
…………….. glass dissolves in water.
Answer:
Alkali silicate or water glass dissolves in water.

2. Who is my partner?

Question a.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Lead glass	a. Plates
2. Bakelite	b. Mattresses
3. Thermocol	c. Electric bulb
4. Optic glass	d. Electric switch
5. Polypropylene	e. Lens

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Lead glass	c. Electric bulb
2. Bakelite	d. Electric switch
3. Thermocol	a. Plates
4. Optic glass	e. Lens
5. Polypropylene	b. Mattresses

3. Answer the following.

Question a.
Thermocol is produced from which material?
Answer:
Thermocol is made from polystyrene which is also a complex thermoplastic substance.

Question b.
Write uses of PVC.
Answer:
PVC or Polyvinyl chloride is used for making bottles, raincoat, pipes, handbags, shoes, electric cable insulation, furniture, ropes, toys, etc.

Question c.
Write the natural or man-made raw material of the following items.
Mattress, beaker, bangle, chair, gunny bag, broom, knife, pen.
Answer:

Items	Natural raw material	Man-made raw materials
Mattress	Cotton, Coir (Jute fibres)	Polypropylene
Beaker	___	Glass (Silicate or borosilicate glass)
Bangle	Gold, silver, lac, copper	Plastic, Glass
Chair	Wood	Plastic (PVC)
Gunny bag	Jute, cotton	Plastic (PVC)
Broom	Plant fibres	Plastic fibres (PVC)
Knife	Metals such as iron	Plastic
Pen	Metals	Plastic

Question d.
Which are the main ingredients of glass?
Answer:
The main ingredients of glass are sand and silica.

Question e.
How the plastic is produced?
Answer:

1. Plastics are derived from natural materials such as natural gas, oil, coal, minerals and plants.
2. The first synthetic plastics were i derived from cellulose, a substance found in plants and trees. This cellulose was heated with chemicals and resulted in a plastic like material.
3. In modern times, the different raw materials are used for making plastics, but most plastics are made from the hydrocarbons present in the natural gas, oil and coal.
4. Plastics are simply chains of like molecules linked together. These chains are called polymers. Thus, many plastics begin with “poly,” such as polyethylene, polystyrene and polypropylene.
5. These polymers are made of carbon and hydrogen and sometimes oxygen, nitrogen, sulphur, chlorine, fluorine, phosphorous or silicon.
6. Plastic is produced in factories by suitable chemical reactions.

4. Distinguish between. 

Question a.
Man-made material and natural material
Answer:

Man-made material	Natural material
1. The man-made materials are obtained from processes in scientific laboratory.	1. Natural materials are obtained from nature.
2. Man-made materials are subjected to rigorous processing to alter the material for serving the intended purpose.	2. Natural materials are subjected to less treatment and processing.
3. Man-made materials are typically much more durable having a very long lifespan.	3. Natural materials have shorter lifespan, because these materials were once alive and so gradually perish over time.
4. Maintaining man-made materials require less care and attention.	4. Maintaining natural materials requires lots of care and continuous attention.
5. Man-made materials can have a negative environmental impact because they are not sustainable. E.g. Glass, plastic, Thermocol, soil, metals, rubber.	5. Natural materials do not have a negative environmental impact because they can be degraded easily. E.g. Cotton, silk, wood.

Question b.
Thermoplastic and Thermosetting plastic:
Answer:

Thermoplastic	Thermosetting plastic
1. The plastic that can be moulded as per our wish is called thermoplastic.	1. The plastic in which a specific shape is given with the help of mould and this shape cannot be changed again on heating is called thermosetting plastic.
2. Thermoplastic substances can be recycled and reused. E.g. PVC – Polyvinyl chloride, PS – Polystyrene, PE – Polyethylene and PP – Polypropylene are types of thermoplastics.	2. Thermosetting plastic cannot be reused again. E.g. Bakelite, Melamine, Polyurethane and polyster are the types of thermosetting plastics.

5. Answer the following in your own words.

Question a.
Explain the effect of following materials on environment and human health.
1. Plastic
2. Glass.
3. Thermocol.
Answer:
1. Plastic:

1. Plastic is non-degradable substance. Hence if thrown in any ecosystem, it remains unchanged for many years.
2. It is one of the worst environmental pollutants as its disposal is a major problem.
3. If thrown in water bodies, it affects the aquatic animals. Many of turtles mistake it for algae and eat the plastic. Eventually such animals die due to choking.
4. In terrestrial environment, the grazing animals like cattle are affected due to plastic.
5. If burnt it emits very toxic gases.
6. In landfill sites, it remains unchanged for thousands of years.

2. Glass:

1. The glass production is carried out at high temperatures of about 1500 °C. This burning emits many hazardous gases like sulphur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, carbon dioxide. These gases cause the greenhouse effect.
2. Moreover, glass being non-degradable, cause pollution.
3. If broken glass pieces or any waste glass material is disposed into aquatic environment, it affects animals and plants.
4. Similarly, glass pieces block the drainages.
5. The waste glass thrown anywhere cause injury to terrestrial fauna.

3. Thermocol:

1. Thermocol contains carcinogenic ingredients in the form of styrene. If there is prolonged contact with thermocol, there is a possibility of blood cancer like leukemia and lymphoma.
2. Thermocol is non-degradable. It cannot be degraded into harmless substances easily.
3. If it is burnt for destruction, it releases toxic gases in atmosphere.
4. The plates and cups used for food, water, tea, etc. are made up of thermocol. This may affect the health. Reheating the food kept in thermocol releases styrene. This styrene may dissolve in that food, causing health problems like cancer.

Question b.
Which measures will you arrange to minimize the environmental problems arising due to non-degradable plastic?
Answer:

1. The use of plastic should be minimum. Reducing the consumption, reusing the same plastic again and again, recycling the used plastic and making some new products from the used plastic are some of the measures that can be adopted.
2. There are attempts to use plastic in making roads. Therefore, plastic is bought with good price at some places.
3. Therefore, instead of disposing of it anywhere, it should be collected and sold in best possible way.
4. The better alternatives for plastic should be adopted.
5. The awareness programmes about misuse of plastic should be arranged so that common man can understand the dangers of using plastic.

6. Write short notes. 

Question a.
Glass production:
Answer:
The general preparation of the glass is as follows:

1. Mixture of sand, soda, lime and small quantity of magnesium oxide is heated in furnace.
2. At 1700 °C sand or silicon dioxide melts.
3. To make the mixture melt at lesser temperature, pieces of discarded glasses are added to it.
4. This addition makes the mixture to melt at lesser temperature of 850 °C.
5. When all the ingredients of mixture are liquified, then again it is heated up to 1500 °C.
6. This heating is immediately followed by cooling.
7. The sudden cooling causes the mixture to become homogeneous, amorphous and transparent instead of crystalline.
8. For variety of glass types, different proportions of ingredients are used for heating.

Question b.
Optic glass:
Answer:

1. Optic glass or optical glass needs to be very clear and transparent as it is used in spectacles, lenses and other devices like microscopes.
2. Optic glasses are produced from the mixture of sand, soda, limestone, barium oxide and boron.

Question c.
Uses of plastic:
Answer:
Plastic, the man-made material is used in various forms in modern age. According to the type of plastic, its uses are different.

I. Thermoplastic materials are used for manufacturing following articles:

1. Polyvinyl chloride or PVC is used to make bottles, raincoat, pipes, handbags,: shoes, electric cable insulation, furniture, ropes, toys, etc.
2. Polystyrene is used in making thermo insulating parts of electric appliances like refrigerators, gears of machines, toys, protective coverings like covers of CD and DVD, etc.
3. Polyethylene (PE) plastics are used for making milk bags, packing bags, flexible garden pipes, etc.
4. Polypropylene (PP) is used in making parts of loudspeakers and vehicles, ropes, mattresses, laboratory appliances, etc.

II. Thermosetting plastic is used in the manufacturing of the following items:

1. Bakelite for making cabinets of radio, T.V., telephones, electric switches, toys, plastic handles of cookers, etc.
2. Melamine for making domestically useful items like cup – saucers, plates, tray, some spare parts of airplane engines, electric and sound insulating coverings, etc.
3. Polyurethane in making surfing boards, small boats, furniture, seats in vehicles, etc.
4. Polyester in fibreglass, toners of laser printers, textile industry, etc.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Make a list of 20 different man-made materials present in your home, school and places around and discuss.
Answer:
Schoolbag, books, computer, table lamp, tube lights, benches, shoes, dress, pencil, pen, tiffin box, water bottle, raincoat, umbrella, medicine tablets, pen drive, chalk, duster, utensils, gas burner, biscuits.

Can you recall?

Question 1.
How many plastic carry bags are brought in your home in a day? What happens to those later on?
Answer:
Till May 2018 about one or two plastic bags were brought in our home every day. But now due to prohibition on plastic bags and other plastic items by the Government, the use of plastic has been drastically reduced. The bags brought at home caused lot of plastic pollution. Plastic is non-biodegradable, thus it always created problem of their disposal.

If dumped in a water body, it can be hazardous for aquatic animals. If thrown in the garbage, plastic articles find their way to landfilling areas. If thrown anyhow plastic may be consumed by stray animals. This causes toxic effects on them. If burnt they emit toxic gases.

Question 2.
How are the used up and thrown away carry bags, water bottles, milk bags recycled?
Answer:
The plastic waste is collected by the kabadiwala or sweepers. They sell these articles to the recycling units. In recycling units, the recycling of some of the plastic items is done. This leads to formation of plastic of low quality which may be used in making some newer plastic items.

Question 3.
Which material is wrapped around the items of glass or similar material during transport to prevent from breaking up?
Answer:
The plastic bubble wrap or thermocol is used to protect fragile items from the shocks and breaks during their transport.

Project:

Question 1.
Collect the information about the plastic used in production of utensils used in microwave oven.

Question 2.
Collect the information about the material used in production of denture. (A set of artificial teeth)

Class 8 Science Chapter 17 Man-made Materials Important Questions and Answers

Try to find it:

Question 1.
The plastic that can be moulded as per our wish is called …………… .
Answer:
The plastic that can be moulded as per our wish is called thermoplastic.

Question 2.
…………… is a type of plastic used for manufacturing artificial teeth.
Answer:
Polyacrylic is a type of plastic used for manufacturing artificial teeth.

Question 3.
Thermocol is a form of a complex material called ……………. .
Answer:
Thermocol is a form of a complex material called polystyrene.

Write whether the following statements are True or False: Rewrite the false statements after correcting:

Question 1.
Plastics are inorganic polymers that show plasticity.
Answer:
False. (Plastics are organic polymers that show plasticity.)

Question 2.
Polythene, PVC are thermosetting plastic materials.
Answer:
False. (Polythene, PVC are thermoplastic materials.)

Question 3.
Plastic is bad conductor of heat and electricity.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Surfing boards are made up of bakelite.
Answer:
False. (Surfing boards are made up of polyurethane.)

Question 5.
Being bad conductor of electricity, glass is used as insulator in electric appliances.
Answer:
True.

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
1. Borosilicate glass	a. Oxide of specific metal.
2. Alkali silicate glass	b. Sand, soda, limestone, barium oxide and boron.
3. Lead glass	c. Sand and soda.
4. Optical glass	d. Sand, soda, limestone and lead oxide.
5. Coloured glass	e. Sand, soda, boric acid and aluminium oxide.

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Borosilicate glass	e. Sand, soda, boric acid and aluminium oxide.
2. Alkali silicate glass	c. Sand and soda.
3. Lead glass	d. Sand, soda, limestone and lead oxide.
4. Optical glass	b. Sand, soda, limestone, barium oxide and boron.
5. Coloured glass	a. Oxide of specific metal.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Bakelite, Melamine, Polystyrene, Polyester.
Answer:
Polystyrene (All others are thermosetting plastic materials, polystyrene is thermoplastic.)

Question 2.
Polyvinyl chloride, Polystyrene, Polypropylene, Polyurethane.
Answer:
Polyurethane (All others are thermoplastic materials, polyurethane is thermosetting plastic.)

Question 3.
Vegetable peels, Cotton bolls, Wooden scraps, Plastic bag.
Answer:
Plastic bag (All others are degradable materials, plastic is non-degradable.)

Question 4.
Teflon, Polyacrylic, Fibreglass, Polyester.
Answer:
Fibreglass (All others are types of plastic.)

Considering the relationship in the first pair, complete the second pair:

Question 1.
Processed glass: Fen glass : : Alkali silicate glass : ………..
Answer:
Water glass

Question 2.
Ferrous oxide: Bluish green glass : : Copper oxide : ……..
Answer:
Red glass

Question 3.
Lens : Optical glass : : Laboratory glassware : ……….
Answer:
Silica glass

Question 4.
Light bulbs, Tubes: Lead glass : : Medicine storing : ………
Answer:
Borosilicate glass

Question 5.
Glass: Mixture of silica and silicate : : Thermocol : ………..
Answer:
Polystyrene.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Degradable and Non-degradable substances:
Answer:

Degradable substances	Non-degradable substances
1. The substances which can be naturally reduced into their inorganic constituents are called degradable substances.	1. The substances that cannot be degraded on their own into their inorganic constituents are called non-degradable substances.
2. Degradable substances are not accumulated in the nature.	2. Non-degradable substances remain accumulated in the nature for a long time.
3. Degradable substances emit foul odour when they are being decomposed.	3. Non-degradable substances may not emit foul odour as they are not degraded. But they make the place look dirty.
4. Usually microorganisms play a part in the degradation process, hence such substances are also called biodegradable. E.g. Vegetables, fruits, wood, cotton or wool fibres, etc.	4. Microorganisms cannot act on non-degradable substances and hence they are also called non-biodegradable substances. E.g. Plastic, thermocol, glass, metals, etc.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Properties of plastic:
Answer:

1. Plastic is non-corrosive.
2. It is non-degradable as it does not decompose.
3. The factors such as humidity, heat, rain, etc. do not affect plastic.
4. Any coloured item can be manufactured from plastic.
5. Plastic shows property of plasticity. Thus it can be moulded into any shape that is needed.
6. Plastic is a bad conductor of heat and electricity.
7. Plastic is light-weight and thus preferred for carrying.

Question 2.
Properties of Glass:
Answer:
The glass becomes soft on heating and thus can be moulded into desired shape.

1. According to ingredients added at the time of preparation of glass, its density changes accordingly.
2. Glass is slow conductor of heat. If a cold glass is quickly heated, it cracks suddenly. Similarly, the warm glass if exposed to sudden cooling, it too cracks.
3. Glass is a bad conductor of electricity. Therefore, it is used as insulating material in electric appliances.
4. Glass is transparent, allowing most of light to pass through it. If there are chromium, vanadium or iron oxides in the glass, large amount of light is absorbed in glass.

Answer the following questions in one sentence only:

Question 1.
What is the use of plastic in healthcare sector?
Answer:
Saline bottles, pouches, blood bags, syringes and medicine bottles are made up of plastic, making plastic irreplaceable in the healthcare sector.

Question 2.
Which material is used in coating of vehicles? Why?
Answer:
Teflon is used for coating the vehicle as it protects the vehicles from scratches.

Question 3.
What is the use of polyacrylic type of plastic?
Answer:
Polyacrylic plastic used for manufacturing lenses and in the manufacture of artificial teeth.

Question 4.
What is 4R principle?
Answer:
The 4R principle is the way of behaviour that prevents or lessens the environmental pollution. The 4Rs are Reduce, Reuse, Recycle and Recover.

Question 5.
What are the eco-friendly options for a plastic bag?
Answer:
Jute bag, cloth bag and reusable bags of any natural materials are the eco-friendly options for the plastic bag.

Question 6.
How is Borosilicate glass produced?
Answer:
Borosilicate glass is produced by melting the mixture of sand, soda, boric acid and aluminium oxide.

Question 7.
When is large amount of light absorbed in the glass?
Answer:
If there are oxides of either chromium, vanadium or iron in the glass, large amount of light is absorbed in it.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
It is harmful to eat food kept in thermocol.
Answer:
Thermocol is made up from polystyrene. It is carcinogenic (cancer causing) substance. When food kept in r thermocol containers is reheated, this , styrene dissolves in it. This may affect the r health of the person who consumes such food. It has been noted that there is a great possibility of blood cancer like leukaemia r and lymphoma if one remains in contact with thermocol for a longer time. Thus, it is harmful to eat food kept in thermocol.

Question 2.
Vessels used to cook food in the microwave oven are made up of plastic.
Answer:
The vessels made from metals cannot be used in the microwave oven. The microwaves cannot penetrate steel and so ‘ can only heat the contents through the open top. Some metals cause sparking with microwaves. Microwave energy is absorbed differently by different materials. Plastics of only certain kind are more suitable to be used in the microwave oven.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
What are the qualities of thermocol?
Answer:

1. Thermocol is modern man-made material made from polystyrene.
2. It can be transformed into liquid state when heated at more than 100 °C temperature. On cooling, it returns to the solid state.
3. Therefore, any desired shape can be given to it.
4. It acts as a good shock-absorber and hence used as a packing material to transport brittle material.
5. It is a bad insulator of heat and hence used for storing fish and other perishable articles in market.

Think about it:

Question 1.
Why are the plastic tanks used for storage of chemicals?
Answer:
Plastic is non-corrosive. It is comparatively non-reactive and it does not decompose. Moreover, the plastic containers are easier for handling. They are lighter and unbreakable. Hence the plastic tanks are used for storage of chemicals.

Question 2.
Why most of domestically useful items are replaced by plastic?
Answer:
Plastic is lighter and unbreakable. The handling thus becomes easier. It is non-corrosive, hence pickles, spices, etc. can be stored in plastic containers. It is cheaper as compared to the metal and glass articles. Thus, it becomes popular with general public. It is easier to wash and maintain the plastic articles. These are some of the reasons of making plastic a domestically useful material.

Collect information:

Question 1.
To prevent the degradation due to sunlight, some materials are stored in which type of bottles?
Answer:

The amber glass or brown coloured glass bottles are used to store the materials that may get degraded due to sunlight. This colour prevents the ultraviolet rays of the sun to enter the bottle and bring about chemical changes in the materials. Especially, for sensitive medicines, brown glass bottles are used.

Question 2.
Which type of glass is used in vehicles to avoid injuries in accidents?
Answer:
Front and rear doors have tempered glass. The windshield has laminated safety glass. Even if the accident takes place the glass pieces do not injure the passengers. Laminated safety glass combines two curved glass sheets and a plastic lamina between the two layers of the glass.

This glass is tough and protective. Tempered glass on the other hand is toughened glass which is processed by controlled thermal or chemical treatments. Upon breaking, the tempered glasses crumble into small granular chunks instead of splintering into sharp glass pieces. This prevents the injuries.

Sketch and label the diagram of glass manufacturing process:

Open-Ended Questions:

Question 1.
Classify and make a chart of the materials used in various items in house. Make additions to that chart with reference to various materials.

Answer:

Question 2.
Make list about use of thermocol in your daily life.
Answer:

1. Decorative items used at the time of festivals.
2. Packing materials.
3. Insulating boxes to keep food warm.
4. Insulating boxes to keep fish in iced condition to prevent decomposition.
5. Thermocol beads in the bean bags.