Class 8

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 History Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Formation of State of Maharashtra Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 14 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 History Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
The State of …………….. was formed on 1 May, 1960.
(a) Goa
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(d) Maharashtra

Question 2.
…………….. put forth the proposal of Samyukta Maharashtra with Mumbai in the Mumbai Municipal Corporation.
(a) G. T. Madkholkar
(b) Acharya Atre
(c) D. V. Potdar
(d) Shankarrao Dev
Answer:
(b) Acharya Atre

Question 3.
…………….. accepted the responsibility as first Chief Minister of Maharashtra.
(a) Yashwantrao Chavan
(b) Pruthviraj Chavan
(c) Shankarrao Chavan
(d) Vilasrao Deshmukh
Answer:
(a) Yashwantrao Chavan

2. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti came to be established.
Answer:

1. The demand for a state of Marathi speaking people of all regions was put forth in the Nagpur Pact in 1953.
2. There was no positive response from the Central Government for formation of Samyukta Maharashtra with Mumbai.
3. The agitation was made severe through strikes, demonstrations, rallies, etc. which were organised from time to time.
4. As the issue of the demand of Marathi speaking people started becoming complicated, discontent spread throughout the state.
5. A meeting was held under the leadership of Keshavrao Jedhe on 6 February, 1956 at Tilak Smarak Mandir in Pune and the Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti was formed.

Question 2.
The role of newspapers was important in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
Answer:

1. The role of newspapers was equally important in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement. They worked to awaken the people.
2. Navyug, Prabhat, Navakal, Sakai, Prabodhan, Kesari are newspapers which played important role.
3. The ‘Maratha’ newspaper by Acharya Atre had a significant role in Samyukta Maharashtra movement.
4. Balasaheb Thackeray took pen name ‘Mavla’ and drew caricatures in ‘Navyug’.
5. Lokshahir Annabhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh and Shahir D. N. Gavankar aroused public awakening on a large scale through their writings.

3. Write short notes:

Question 1.
Samyukta Maharashtra Parishad:
Answer:

1. On 12 May 1946, a resolution was passed regarding Samyukta Maharashtra in the Sahitya Sammelan at Belgaon.
2. On this background, Maharashtra Ekikaran Parishad was convened under the leadership of Shankarrao Dev at Mumbai on 28 July.
3. A resolution was passed that all Marathi speaking regions should be united in one state.
4. It should include the regions of Mumbai, Central provinces Marathwada and Gomantak.

Question 2.
Contribution of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti:
Answer:
Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti f contributed in the following way to form Samyukta Maharashtra.
1. Samyukta Maharashtra movement spread throughout the state and reached in rural areas.
2. Common people also joined the movement spontaneously.
3. When it was clear that Mumbai will not be included in Maharashtra, Samiti held demonstrations to protest and arouse public agitation.
4. The grand success of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti in Lok Sabha, Vidhan Sabha and Mumbai Municipal Corporation in 1957 made it clear that the voters were in favour of Samyukta Maharashtra.
5. The agitations led by Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti during the visit of Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru made the approach of Central Government favourable in the formation of Maharashtra state.

4. Complete the following diagram.

Question 1.

Answer:

Do you Know?

Contribution of Marathi newspapers and Shahirs: In this movement the role of newspapers was important. Prabodhan, Kesari, Sakal, Navakal, Navyug, Prabhat many such newspapers worked for awakening of the people. Acharya Atre started the ‘Maratha’ newspaper which played an important role in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.

Balasaheb Thackeray took up the pen name ‘Mavia’ and drew caricatures to make the movement comprehensive. Lokshahir Annabhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh and Shahir D.N.Gavankar through their writings aroused public awakening on a large scale.

Project:

Collect information about the personalities who greatly contributed to the formation of Maharashtra and prepare a project based on it with the help of your teachers.

Class 8 History Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
………………… organised rallies to protest against the report of JVP Committee.
(a) Sane Guruji
(b) P. K. Atre
(c) Senapati Bapat
(d) Prabodhankar Thackeray
Answer:
(c) Senapati Bapat

Question 2.
…………….. established Dar Commission for forming linguistic province.
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Yashwantrao Chavan
Answer:
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 3.
According to 1953 Pact, Assembly session would be held once in a year at …………….
(a) Pune
(b) Mumbai
(c) Nagpur
(d) Aurangabad
Answer:
(c) Nagpur

Question 4.
Police used lathi charge and tear …………….. gas on the March led by
(a) Bhai Madhavrao Bagal
(b) Comrade Shripad Amrut Dange
(c) S.M. Joshi
(d) Senapati Bapat
Answer:
(d) Senapati Bapat

Question 5.
Acharya Atre started the newspaper …………….. which played an important role in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
(a) Navyug
(b) Prabodhan
(c) Maratha
(d) Navakal
Answer:
(c) Maratha

Name the following:

Question 1.
Demanded reconstruction of a state based on language in 1915.
Answer:
Lokmanya Tilak

Question 2.
Commission which advocated bilingual Mumbai.
Answer:
‘Commission for Reconstruction of States’

Question 3.
Samiti established at Tilak Smarak Mandir, Pune.
Answer:
Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti

Question 4.
The Act passed by the Parliament in April 1960.
Answer:
Mumbai Reorganisation Act.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What was the appeal made by Shankarrao Dev in the meeting held on Kamgar Maidan?
Answer:
Shankarrao Dev appealed to the people in the following words, “We will oppose the separation of Mumbai from Maharashtra up to our last breath.”

Question 2.
What was the suggestion given by the Commission for Reconstruction of States?
Answer:
The Commission for Reconstruction of States suggested creation of bilingual Mumbai State.

Question 3.
What was the resolution proposed by S. M. Joshi on 7 November, 1955 at the meeting of labourers?
Answer:
At the meeting of the labourers on 7 November, 1955 S. M. Joshi proposed a resolution that Samyukta Maharashtra should be created with Mumbai and Vidarbha.

Question 4.
Where was the memorial of 106 martyrs erected? What is it called?
Answer:
The memorial of 106 martyrs was erected in Mumbai near Flora Fountain. It is called ‘Flutatma Smarak.’

Question 5.
Who played an important role in establishing Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti?
Answer:
Acharya P K. Atre, Madhu Dandavate, Prabodhankar Keshav Thackeray, Y. K. Souni played important role in establishing Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti.

Question 6.
Name the lokshahirs who aroused awakening among people during Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
Answer:
Lokshahirs Annabhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh and Shahir D. N. Gavankar aroused public awakening among the people during Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.

Do as Directed:

Complete the following diagram:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Complete the table:

Question 1.

Foundation year	Name of the Commission/Samiti	Name of the President
1. 28 July	……………………………………….	Shankarrao Dev
2. …………………………	Dar Commission	Justice S. R. Dar
3. 29 December, 1943	………………………………………..	Justice Fazal Ali
4. 6 February, 1956	Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti	…………………………….

Answer:

Foundation year	Name of the Commission/Samiti	Name of the President
1. 28 July	Maharashtra Ekikaran Parishad	Shankarrao Dev
2. 17 June, 1947	Dar Commission	Justice S. R. Dar
3. 29 December, 1943	Commission for Reconstruction of States	Justice Fazal Ali
4. 6 February, 1956	Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti	Comrade Shripad Amrut Dange

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Dar Commission:
Answer:

1. The President of Constituent Assembly, Dr. Rajendra Prasad established the Dar Commission on 17 June, 1947.
2. The Commission started the work under the leadership of Justice S. K. Dar to form states on linguistic basis.
3. On 10 December, 1948, the report of Dar Commission was published but the issue remained unsolved.

Question 2.
Commission for Reconstruction of States:
Answer:

1. Indian Government appointed a ‘Commission for Reconstruction of States’ on 29 December, 1953.
2. It was formed under the Chairmanship of Justice Fazal Ali.
3. In the proposal presented by the commission on 10 October, 1955, a creation of bilingual Mumbai State was advocated.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What started the demand for an independent state of Marathi speaking people?
Answer:

1. The demand for an independent Marathi speaking state started before independence.
2. N. C. Kelkar presented the idea that the entire Marathi speaking population should be under one dominion.
3. In 1915, Lokmanya Tilak demanded the reconstruction of a state based on language.
4. An important resolution regarding Samyukta Maharashtra was passed in the Sahitya Sammelan at Belgaon. It began the movement to form Independent state of Marathi speaking people.

Question 2.
Write information on the workers meeting held on 7 November, 1955.
Answer:

1. The struggle of Marathi speaking people for formation of Maharashtra with Mumbai had started.
2. On 7 November, 1955 a meeting of labourers was held.
3. Labour Organisation or Communists, Praja Socialists, Socialists, Peasants and Workers Party, Janasangh, etc. participated in the meeting.
4. Comrade Shripad Amrut Dange was the President of this meeting.
5. S. M. Joshi proposed a resolution to create a Samyukta Maharashtra with Mumbai and Vidarbha.

Question 3.
What were the provisions in the Nagpur Pact?
Answer:
The following provisions were made in the Nagpur Pact:

1. Samyukta Maharashtra should be formed including Western Maharashtra 8 and Vidarbha along with Marathwada.
2. Assurance was given regarding equitable financial provisions for development.
3. Ample finance will be provided for technical and vocational education.
4. Government services will be provided in accordance with the population in the region.
5. Once in a year an Assembly session will be held at Nagpur.

Question 4.
What happened on the day a grand march was taken to Vidhan Sabha?
Answer:

1. For the formation of Samyukta Maharashtra, a grand march was taken to the Vidhan Sabha led by Senapati Bapat.
2. The government declared a ban.
3. The police started lathi charge and used tear gas on the protestors who broke the ban.
4. On the same evening, Comrade Shripad Dange guided a mob of fifty thousand on Kamgar Maidan.
5. To give impetus to the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement, it was further decided to hold one day strike on 21 November, 1955.

Question 5.
Which events took place in the final stages of establishment of Maharashtra state?
Answer:
The following events took place in the final stages of establishment of Maharashtra state:

1. Due to agitation of Samyukta Maharashtra Movement, central government gave consent to the formation of two linguistic states.
2. The Congress President, Indira Gandhi also supported the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
3. In April 1960, the Parliament passed the Mumbai Reorganisation Act.
4. According to this act, Maharashtra State was formed on 1st May, 1960.
5. Pandit Nehru on the occasion of Labour Day made a formal announcement of the formation of Maharashtra State at a special ceremony at Raj Bhavan.
6. Yashwantrao Chavan accepted the responsibility of first Chief Minister of Maharashtra.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Severe response was seen 9, throughout Maharashtra against JVP Committee report.
Answer:

1. The Congress appointed a three ministers committee on 29 December, 1948 to study the conditions of creating linguistic provinces.
2. The report suggested that Congress accepted the concept of linguistic state in principle but the time was not proper for it.
3. Due to this, severe response of the people was seen throughout Maharashtra against JVP Committee report.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
How did the Central Government favour Maharashtra’s movement under the leadership of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti?
Answer:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was going to unveil statue of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj mounted on a horse on Pratapgad on 30 November, 1957.
2. Under the leadership of Bhai Madhavrao Bagal, Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti held huge demonstrations.
3. Leaders like S. M. Joshi, N. G. Gore, Jayantrao Tilak, R K. Atre participated in the protest at Pasarni Ghat and Poladpur.
4. Pandit Nehru became aware of sentiments of the Marathi speaking people.
5. The Congress President Indira Gandhi supported the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
6. Finally, the Central government gave consent for formation of two states-Gujarat and Maharashtra from former Mumbai (Bombay) state

Question 2.
Observe the given picture and identify. Write about his contribution in Samyukta Maharashtra.

Answer:

1. This picture is of Acharya R K. Atre. He made important contribution to Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
2. He played important role in formation of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti.
3. He presented and supported the pro- united Maharashtra Movement through his newspaper ‘Maratha’.
4. He was in the forefront of the demonstrations at Pasarni Ghat and Poladpur during the visit of Prime Minister Pandit Nehru at Pratapgad.

Question 3.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of linguistic reorganisation of states?
Answer:
Advantages:

1. The feeling of unity is very strong among the people speaking common language.
2. It guarantees social security.
3. It facilitates communication between people.
4. It helps in achieving linguistic and cultural unity.

Disadvantages:

1. Linguistic reorganisation may narrow perspective of the people.
2. Excessive pride in one’s language creates hatred towards other language.
3. Learning other languages and enjoying the literature never takes places.
4. It creates hurdles in social and cultural development.

8th Std History Questions And Answers:

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• Europe and India Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Effects of British Rule Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• The Freedom Struggle of 1857 Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Social and Religious Reforms Class 8 History Questions And Answers
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• Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Armed Revolutionary Movement Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Struggle for Equality Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• India Gains Independence Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Fulfillment of Struggle for Independence Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Formation of State of Maharashtra Class 8 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 9 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :
(Andaman and Nicobar, August Kranti, Vinoba Bhave, Sane Guruji, Indian National Congress)

Question 1.
……………….. was the first satyagrahi of individual satyagraha.
Answer:
Vinoba Bhave

Question 2.
The nation wide movement of 1942 is also called ……….. .
Answer:
August Kranti

Question 3.
In November 1943, Japan conquered ………. islands and handed them over to Azad Hind Government.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar

2. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
In November 1939, provincial ministers of Indian National Congress gave their resignations.
Answer:

1. Viceroy Lord Linlithgo declared in 1939 that India had joined the Second World War on the side of England, without consulting the Indian leaders.
2. England claimed that it was fighting to save democracy in Europe.
3. Thereupon, the Congress claimed that if that claim is true then England should grant Independence to India immediately. ’
4. So the provincial ministries of the Indian National Congress resigned in November 1939 as England did not accept this demand.

Question 2.
The Indian National Army had to lay down their arms.
Answer:

1. The Indian National Army fought against the British in adverse circumstances under the leadership of Subhash Chandra Bose.
2. The Imphal Campaign of Indian National Army remained incomplete as the Japanese stopped helping the Indian National Army.
3. In the same period, Japan accepted defeat in the Second World War.
4. On 18 August 1945, Subhash Chandra Bose died in a plane crash.

Under these circumstances, the soldiers of the Indian National Army had to lay down their arms.

Question 3.
The Parallel Government became a source of inspiration to the people.
Answer:
1. During the Quit India Movement, parallel governments were established in many parts of India.
2. It rendered great service by doing work like :

• Opposition to money lenders
• Prohibition of liquor
• Spread of literacy

3. Opposition to caste distinctions, etc. Due to this, the Parallel Government became a source of inspiration for the public.

3. Complete the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Organisation	Founder
Forward Bloc	Subhash Chandra Bose
Indian Independence League	Rash Behari Bose
Toofan Sena	Krantiagrani G.D. alias Bapu Lad

4. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Why did the British Prime Minister send Sir Stafford Cripps to India?
Answer:

1. During the Second World War, England sided with America against Japan.
2. As England was ruling India, there was possibility of Japan attacking India.
3. The Japanese forces came closer to the eastern border of India.
4. It was necessary to have co-operation of India to resist Japanese invasion.

Therefore, the British Prime Minister, Winston Churchill sent Sir Stafford Cripps to India in March 1942.

Question 2.
What kind of reaction was seen during the spread of news of arrest of main leaders of the Indian National Congress?
Answer:

1. Quit India Resolution moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, was passed on 8th August with an overwhelming majority.
2. On the same night, the leaders of the Indian National Congress were arrested.
3. The news of these arrest aroused strong resentment.
4. The angry people took out processions, tried to take control of government offices and attacked jails, police stations and railway stations.
5. School children took out processions and shouted slogan “Vande Mataram”.
6. Even though the police resorted to lathi charge and firing, the people were not afraid. The young and old showed determination and courage.

Question 3.
What appeal did Mahatma Gandhi make in the Quit India session of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
Gandhiji made the following appeal to the people of India during the Quit India session of Indian National Congress at Mumbai:

1. Everyone of you, should from this moment onwards, consider yourself a free man or woman.
2. Everyone should behave like a citizen of free India.
3. Either we shall free India or die in the attempt.
4. Through the appeal he stated that Indians should be ready to make a sacrifice with the feeling of ‘Do or Die’.

Do you Know?

Inspirational account of brave children:

1. Under the leadership of Shirishkumar, school children carried out procession holding the tricolour at Nandurbar in Maharashtra.
2. The slogan of Vande Mcrtaram was given.
3. In the police firing, along with Shirishkumar, Dhansukhlal, Shashidhar, Ghanashyam, Laldas became martyrs.

Let us Know….:

Individual Satyagraha:

1. As the British government was constantly neglecting the demands, the Indian National Congress decided to start anti war propaganda.
2. Instead of a collective movement every person should individually disobey the law. This is called Individual Satyagraha.
3. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first individual Satyagrahi.
4. After him, nearly 25,000 Satyagrahis participated in individual Satyagraha and were imprisoned.

Project:

Question 1.
Prepare a timeline of the events of the struggle of Indian National Army.

Question 2.
With the help of internet collect the pictures of Quit India Movement of 1942 and organise an exhibition on occasion of a national day.

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
Provincial Ministers of …………… resigned in November, 1939.
Answer:
Indian National Congress

Question 2.
Songs of ……………. inspiration during the movement.
Answer:
Sane Guruji

Identify the wrong pair :

Organisation – Founder
1. Azad Dasta – Bhai Kotwal
2. Lai Sena – General Awari
3. Azad Radio – Aruna Asaf Ali
4. Azad Hind Government – Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
Wrong pair: Azad Radio
– Aruna Asaf Ali

Corrected pair: Azad Radio
– Usha Mehta.

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
In 1937 elections, the Indian National Congress gained a majority in ……………
provinces and came to power.
(a) seven
(b) two
(c) eight
(d) three
Answer:
(c) eight

Question 2.
Parallel government was formed by …………… in Satara.
(a) Krantisinh Nana Patil
(b) N.G. Gore
(c) Rashtrasant Tukdoji Maharaj
(d) S.M. Joshi
Answer:
(a) Krantisinh Nana Patil

Question 3.
Netaji founded the …………… in 1943 in Singapore.
(a) Free India Centre
(b) Azad Hind Sena
(c) Parallel Government
(d) Azad Hind Government
Answer:
(d) Azad Hind Government

Question 4.
…………… tried to destroy the railway along with his campaigners in Sindh.
(a) Khudiram Bose
(b) Ashfaqulla Khan
(c) Hemu Kalani
(d) Maganlal Bagdi
Answer:
(c) Hemu Kalani

Question 5.
…………… had formed the Azad Hind Sena with the help of Captain Mohan Singh.
(a) Rash Behari Bose
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Anand Mohan Bose
(d) S.M. Gore
Answer:
(a) Rash Behari Bose

Name the following:

Question 1.
Viceroy who announced India’s involvement in Second World War.
Answer:
Lord Linlithgo

Question 2.
President of Mumbai session of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Question 3.
Leader who put forth Quit India Movement resolution at the Mumbai session of the Congress.
Answer:
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 4.
The outburst of Navy and Air Force on this British warship.
Answer:
Talwar

Question 5.
His songs inspired the National Movement.
Answer:
Rashtrasant Tukdcji Maharaj.

Answer the following in one sentence each:

Question 1.
State the resolution passed by the Congress Working Committee in the Wardha session.
Answer:
The Congress Working Committee at its Wardha session passed the resolution that

• the British rule in India should be ended immediately and
• India be given independence.

Question 2.
What was the warning given by the Congress Working Committee in the Wardha session?
Answer:
The Congress Working Committee had given the warning that if the demand for complete independence was not met, it would launch a non-violent movement for the freedom of India.

Question 3.
Why did the British Government imprison Subhash Chandra Bose?
Answer:
The British Government imprisoned Subhash Chandra Bose because through his speeches he made appeal to the people of India to revolt against the British rule.

Question 4.
What did the British Government realise after the Navy and Air Force revolted?
Answer:
After the revolt of Navy and Air Force, the British Government realised that their rule in India was about to end.

Do as Directed:

Complete the graphical presentation:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

Prepare a Timeline of the events of the struggle of Azad Hind Sena:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes :

Question 1.
Provincial Cabinets :
Answer:

1. According to the Act of 1935, working of the British administered provinces were transferred to the elected representatives.
2. Although not satisfied with the act. Congress contested elections to the Provincial Legislatures of eleven provinces in 1937.
3. Indian National Congress gained a majority in eight provinces.
4. Congress ministries did a lot of useful work for the benefit of the people.
5. As the British government refused their demand of Independence the Congress ministries resigned in November 1939.

Question 2.
Individual Satyagraha :
Answer:

1. As the British government was constantly neglecting the demands the Indian National Congress decided to start anti-war propaganda.
2. Instead of a collective movement they decided every person should individually disobey the law. This is known as Individual Satyagraha.
3. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first Individual Satyagrahi.
4. After him nearly 25,000 satyagrahis participated in individual satyagraha and were imprisoned.

Question 3.
Rash Behari Bose :
Answer:

1. Rash Behari Bose was living in Japan since 1915.
2. He had established the ‘Indian Independence League’ by organizing the Indian patriots living in the South East Asia.
3. Japan conquered the territories of South-East Asia controlled by the British.
4. Rash Behari Bose, with the help of Captain Mohan Singh, formed the Indian

National Army or Azad Hind Sena from the Indian prisoners of war captured by Japan.

Question 4.
Revolt of Indian Navy and Air Force :
Answer:

1. Inspired by the heroics of the Indian National Army, the soldiers on the British warship ‘Talwar’ revolted on 8th February 1946.
2. They hoisted the tricolour flag on the ship and raised slogans against the British Government.
3. The exchange of fire between the rebels and the British army took place.
4. The workers and common people extended their support.
5. To support this uprising, the Air Force from Delhi, Lahore, Karachi, Ambala, Meerut went on strike.
6. The naval soldiers laid down their arms after the mediation by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What work did the Azad Radio Centre do during the 1942 underground movement?
Answer:
During the 1942 underground movement Vitthal Zaveri, Usha Mehta and her companions established a secret transmission centre, ‘Azad Radio’.
The work done:

• News of agitations in the country were broadcast on it.
• Patriotic songs were sung.
• Patriotic speeches were telecast.

This gave inspiration to the agitators during the Quit India Movement.

Question 2.
Explain the significance of the Quit India Movement.
Answer:
1. On 8th August 1942, in the Mumbai session, the Indian National Congress gave the order of ‘Quit India’ to the British government. This was the beginning of a nationwide agitation.
2. To fulfill the objective of independence, lakhs of Indians sacrificed their lives in this movement.
3. The number of people who participated were so large that even all prisons in the country were not enough to contain them.
4. The movement shook the foundation of British rule in India.

Question 3.
State the impact of the events from 1942 to 1946 on the British rule.
Answer:
Many important events took place between 1942 to 1946. The following effects were seen on the British rule :

1. It shook the foundation of British rule in India.
2. The Quit India agitation manifested the strong anti-British feeling of the Indian people.
3. The Army, Navy and Air Force considered to be backbone of the British power revolted against it.
4. The British rulers realised that now their rule will not last long in India.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The plan of federation mentioned in 1935 Act did not materialise.
Answer:

1. The Act of 1935 provided for the formation of a federation of the British administered provinces and the Indian princely states.
2. The working of the British administered provinces were transferred to the Indian representatives.
3. On joining the federation, the princely states would lose their autonomy.
4. So, the proposal of federation did not materialise as the rulers of the princely states refused to join the federation.

Question 2.
The Cripps proposal was rejected.
Answer:

1. The Indian National Congress rejected the Cripps’ proposal because there was no clear mention of the grant of complete independence to India.
2. The Muslim League rejected the Cripps’ proposal as it had no mention of creation of Pakistan.

Question 3.
Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the office of Congress President.
Answer:
1. Subhash Chandra Bose became the President of Indian National Congress twice.
2. He became the President of Congress when Second World War had commenced. He was of the opinion that as England was engaged in war, the Congress should intensify the agitation by taking advantage of this situation.
3. If needed, India should seek the help of the enemies of England.
4. Other senior leaders of the Congress did not agree with this view.
As a result, Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the office of the Congress President.

Question 4.
The British government suspended the punishment of INA officers.
Answer:

1. After surrender of the soldiers of the Indian National Army, the British government charged them with treason.
2. Expert lawyers like Pandit Nehru, Bhulabhai Desai and Tej Bahadur Sapre defended the INA officers.
3. But the military tribunal held them guilty and sentenced them to life imprisonment.
4. There was severe unrest in the minds of the Indian people against the British Government.

So, they had to suspend the punishment given by the military tribunal.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write about the Session of Indian National Congress held in Mumbai in August 1942.
Answer:

1. On 14th July, 1942 the Congress Working Committee passed the Quit India Resolution at Wardha.
2. It warned the British government of launch of a non-violent struggle for India’s independence.
3. With this background, Quit India Session of the Indian National Congress began at Gowalia Tank (Kranti Maidan) in Mumbai on 7th August, 1942.
4. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad presided over this session.
5. The resolution passed at Wardha § session was finally approved in the Mumbai session.
6. On 8th August, Quit India Resolution, moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was passed with an overwhelming majority.
7. Congress decided to launch a nationwide non-violent movement under the leadership of Gandhiji.
8. Gandhiji gave inspiring message of ‘Do or Die’ to the people and appealed them to be ready to sacrifice for the nation.

Question 2.
Give detailed information about Underground Movement.
Answer:

1. At the end of 1942, the young socialist leaders started the Underground Movement.
2. S. M. Joshi, Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia, Jayprakash Narayan were among the many leaders who led the movement.
3. Aruna Asaf Ali, Usha Mehta, Sucheta Kriplani were the women leaders who led the movement.
4. The activists disrupted transport and communication by breakdown of railway routes, cutting telephone lines, blowing up 8 bridges, etc.
5. Hemu Kalani tried to destroy railway carrying British troops and supply, in Sindh province.
6. Groups like Azad Dasta of Bhai Kotwal in Karjat and Lai Sena of General Awari in Nagpur made the government helpless and witless for months.
7. Usha Mehta and Vitthal Zaveri started a secret transmission centre of Azad Radio in Mumbai.
8. Many such centres operated at Kolkata, Delhi and Pune.
9. Krantisinh Nana Patil formed parallel government in Satara.
10. Parallel governments were formed in Midnapore in Bengal, Ballia and Azamgrah in Uttar Pradesh and Purnia in Bihar.
11. Krantiagrani GD (Bapu Lad) established ‘Toofan sena’ at Kundal.

Question 3.
Identify the given picture and write information about the work done by him.

Answer:
The given picture is of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.

1. Subhash Chandra Bose became the President of Indian National Congress twice.
2. He was of the view to intensify the agitation and seek help from the enemies of England during the Second World War.
3. He had difference of opinion with other senior leaders on these points.
4. Therefore, he resigned from the office of the Congress President and formed a party, ‘Forward Bloc’.
5. Subhash Chandra Bose was imprisoned by the British because he made an appeal to the people of India to revolt against the British.
6. He was interned in his house by the British but he managed to escape in disguise and reached Germany in April 1941.
7. He founded the ‘Free India Centre’ in Germany.
8. He made an appeal to the people of India to join in the armed struggle for the independence of India from Berlin radio station.
9. On the invitation of Rash Behari Bose, he went to Japan and led the Indian National Army.
10. He formed the Azad Hind Government in Singapore in 1943.
11. Under his leadership, Azad Hind Army captured the Aarakan province in Myanmar and posts on the eastern border of Assam.
12. Netaji appealed to the people of India : ‘You give me blood and I will give you independence’.
13. On 18 August, 1945 Netaji died in a plane crash.

Question 4.
How do you find the contribution of Shirishkumar to be inspirational?
Answer:

1. Under the leadership of Shirishkumar, the school children took out a procession holding the tricolour flag at Nandurbar.
2. ‘Vande Mataram’ was the slogan given to them.
3. The police fired on them. In the firing Shirishkumar and many other children became martyrs.
4. His sacrifice gives inspiration to us to do work for the society and country.
5. Gaining independence is no more our objective but to keep the environment clean, to maintain unity among people, and collectively solve the problems is our responsibility.
6. As all this is equally challenging we get inspiration from courage and determination of Shirishkumar.
7. Shirishkumar inspires us to do our work fearlessly without being a victim of injustice and oppression.
8. He also inspires us to make sacrifice, have faith in work and determination. 1

8th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Europe and India Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Effects of British Rule Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• The Freedom Struggle of 1857 Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Social and Religious Reforms Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Beginning of Freedom Movement Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Non-co-operation Movement Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Civil Disobedience Movement Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Armed Revolutionary Movement Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Struggle for Equality Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• India Gains Independence Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Fulfillment of Struggle for Independence Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Formation of State of Maharashtra Class 8 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 2 Europe and India Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Europe and India Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Europe and India Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 2 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Europe and India Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
In 1453, the city of was conquered by Ottoman Turks.
(a) Venice
(b) Constantinople
(c) Rome
(d) Paris
Answer:
(b) Constantinople

Question 2.
The Industrial Revolution began in
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Italy
(d) Portugal
Answer:
(a) England

Question 3.
…….. tried to put restrictions on the illegal trade of British.
(a) Siraj-ud-Daulah
(b) Mir Kasim
(c) Mir Jafar
(d) Shah Alam
Answer:
(b) Mir Kasim

2. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Colonialism:
Answer:
1. Exploitation of one country by another and making it into a colony is called Colonialism.
2. On the basis of economic and military strength one country occupies a region of another country and establishes its political supremacy.
3. Many European nations established their colonies in various parts of the continents of America, Asia, Africa and Australia.
4. They grabbed the power by using force to exploit the colonies systematically. This gave rise to Imperialism.

Question 2.
Imperialism:
Answer:

1. Imperialism means a powerful country controls other country by establishing its overall domination.
2. The objective of imperialism is to establish more and more colonies.
3. European countries with strong military power and imperialist aspirations enslaved the countries in Asia and Africa.
4. Imperialism gained momentum after industrial revolution and came to an end in twentieth century.

Question 3.
Age of Renaissance:
Answer:
(1) Renaissance literally means rebirth or revival. In the latter phase of medieval Europe, reformation, religious reform movement and geographical discoveries gained momentum.
(2) It was a comprehensive movement which touched all aspects of human life. The Greek and Roman traditions in art, architecture and philosophy were revived in the Age of Renaissance.
(3) Humanitarianism got great impetus.
(4) Renaissance inspired all round progress and ushered a new era in the history of world.
(5) This developments took place from 13th century to 16th century in Europe. This period is known as the Age of Renaissance.

Question 4.
Capitalism:
Answer:
1. Many traders participated in the competition for trade with Asia after the discovery of the new sea routes to the east.
2. As it was not possible to carry out trade single-handedly, it was decided by the traders to pool their resources to raise capital for trade.
3. Many trading companies like the East India Company were formed.
4. Trade with Oriental countries was very profitable and responsible for economic prosperity.
5. The ruling powers gave protection and trade concessions to these companies.
6. This led to the accumulation of wealth in Europe. This wealth was used as capital for trade and commerce which gave rise to capitalism in Europe.

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Siraj-ud-Daulah was defeated in the Battle of Plassey.
Answer:
1. The officers of the British East India Company misused the trade concessions and built fortification around the factory in Kolkata.
2. Siraj-ud-Daulah captured the factory at Kolkata.
3. This created discontent in England.
4. Robert Clive diplomatically bribed Mir Jafar, Commander in Chief of Nawab’s army and promised to make him Nawab of Bengal.
5. So. the Army of Siraj-ud-Daulah under the command of Mir Kasim did not join the battle against the British at Plassey in 1757 AD.
6. Thus, the British won the battle of Plassey by treachery and deceit.

Question 2.
The European countries felt the necessity of finding new sea routes to Asia.
Answer:

1. The Ottoman Turks captured Constantinople. the capital of Byzantine Empire. in 1453 AD.
2. All land trade routes joining Asia and Europe passed through this city.
3. It stopped the flow of valuable goods from the countries in the east. Therefore, the European countries felt the necessity of finding new sea routes to Asia.

Question 3.
European rulers started giving military protection and trade concessions to the trading companies.
Answer:
1. With the discovery of new sea routes to the east, trade with oriental countries became very profitable. Thus, European trade prospered.
2. Competition for trade began among many European nations.
3. The traders pooled their resources and formed trading companies like the East India Company.
4. As this trade brought economic prosperity, the European rulers started giving military protection and trade concessions to these trading companies.

4. Complete the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Leonardo Da Vinci :

1. A famous personality of the Renaissance period who was well versed in different branches of science and arts.
2. He had mastery over varied subjects such as sculpture, architecture, mathematics, engineering, music, astronomy, etc.
3. His paintings ‘Monalisa’ and ‘The Last Supper’ became immortal.

Let us Know:

Project:

Collect information and pictures about the work of famous painters, writers, scientists during renaissance period with the help of reference books and internet. Present a project on it in the classroom.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Europe and India Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
American colonies organised the army under the leadership of and won against England.
(a) Thomas Jefferson
(b) Robert Clive
(c) George Washington
(d) Johannes Gutenberg
Answer:
(c) George Washington

Question 2.
The British East India Company established its factory at
(a) Kolkata
(b) Cochin
(c) Mumbai
(d) Surat
Answer:
(d) Surat

Question 3.
Siraj-ud-Daulah was defeated because diplomatically bribed Mir Jafar.
(a) Robert Clive
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Answer:
(a) Robert Clive

Question 4.
Tipu Sultan died in the battle of in 1799.
(a) Mysore
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Srirangapatna
(d) Buxar
Answer:
(c) Srirangapatna

Question 5.
The chieftain of rose against the British.
(a) Multan
(b) Bengal
(c) Carnatic
(d) Jhansi
Answer:
(a) Multan

Question 6.
was the first Portuguese sailor who landed on the western coast of India.
(a) Christopher Columbus
(b) Bartolomeu Días
(c) Vasco-da- Gama
(d) Leonardo da Vinci
Answer:
(c) Vasco-da- Gama

Question 7.
England established colonies on the eastern coast of America.
(a) ten
(b) thirteen
(c) eight
(d) seventeen
Answer:
(b) thirteen

Name the following:

Question 1.
Invented printing press
Answer:
Johannes Gutenberg

Question 2.
Empire of Ottoman Turks
Answer:
Byzantine

Question 3.
The Bill which laid limitations on powers of the King in England.
Answer:
Bill of Rights

Question 4.
Mughal Emperor who gave permission to Britishers to establish factory at Surat.
Answer:
Emperor Jahangir

Question 5.
Came to be known as ‘World Factory’.
Answer:
England.

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which period in the history of Europe is known as Period of Renaissance?
Answer:
In the history of Europe, the last phase of medieval period i.e. 13th to century in Europe is known as the Period of Renaissance.

Question 2.
Name the developments that laid the foundation of modern era.
Answer:
The Renaissance, the Reformation and the geographical discoveries laid the foundation of the modern era.

Question 3.
State the significance of the invention of printing press.
Answer:
It became possible to take new ideas, new concepts and knowledge to all the sections of society due to the invention of the printing press.

Question 4.
What was the effect of the Reformation movement in the area of religion?
Answer:
Individual freedom and rationalism gained importance in the area of religion due to the Reformation movement.

Question 5.
State the principles that the French Revolution gave to the world.
Answer:
The French Revolution gave the principles of liberty equality and fraternity to the world.

Question 6.
Why did the British establish East India Company?
Answer:
The British established the East India Company to carry out trade in India.

Question 7.
What was the outcome of the American War of Independence?
Answer:
Due to American War of Independence, a new nation known as the United States of America with a federal government, written constitution and based on the principles of democracy was formed.

Do as Directed: 

1. Complete the concept Map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

2. Arrange the following events in chronological order on timeline:
1. Battle of Srirangapatna
2. Second Anglo-Sikh War
3. Battle of Buxar
4. Battle of Plassey
Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Leonardo-da-Vinci:
Answer:

1. Leonardo-da-Vinci is regarded as an all round personality of the Renaissance period.
2. He was well versed with the different branches of science and art.
3. He had mastery over varied subjects such as sculpture, architecture, mathematics, engineering, music, astronomy, etc.
4. But he became world-famous as a painter.
5. His paintings ‘Monalisa’ and ‘The Last Supper’ became immortal.

Question 2.
Carnatic Wars :
Answer:

1. There was competition among the European nationals to secure monopoly of trading rights in India.
2. Due to this three Cainatic wars were fought between England and France.
3. England defeated France in the third Carnatic War.
4. Alter this, there was no strong European competitor for British East India Company in India.

Question 3.
The Battle of Buxar:
Answer:

1. Mir Kasim was replaced by Mir Jafar when he tried to put restrictions on illegal practices of the British.
2. Mir Kasim, the deposed Nawab of Bengal, Shuja-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Ayodhya and Mughal Emperor Shah Alam formed an affiance.
3. They undertook a campaign to restrain the activities of the British in Bengal.
4. They were defeated by the British in the Battle of Buxar in 1764 in Bihar.
5. The Treaty of Allahabad was signed after the Battle of Buxar. The British secured the right to collect revenue from Bengal province by this treaty.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The period between 18th and 19th century came to be known as ‘Age of Revolutions’.
Answer:
1. The British Parliament passed The Bill of Rights in 1689. It established sovereignty of Parliament and curtailed powers of the King.
2. This gave momentum to the development of Parliamentary Democracy in England.
3.  The thirteen British colonies in America won the War of Independence in 1783.
4. These thirteen colonies established the first federal republic, known as the United States of America.
5. The people of France revolted against the unjust and uncontrolled monarchy and feudalism. They established a Republic.
6. The Industrial Revolution in Europe in the latter part of the 18th century brought revolutionary changes in Europe.
7. These changes had long-lasting effect on the entire world.
8. All these revolutionary events took place during 18th and 19th century period. Hence it is known as the ‘Age of Revolutions’.

Question 2.
England was described as World Factory.
Answer:

1. There were many revolutionary changes in the latter part of the 18th century in Europe.
2. Many technological innovations in Europe gave enormous outputs
3. Goods were produced with the help of machines running on steam and later on electricity. It was the dawn of the age of machines.
4. Though the industrial revolution started in England it gradually spread to other ports of the western world.
5. During this period. England enjoyed industrial prosperity and was described as World Factory.

Question 3.
The British captured Sindh in 1843.
Answer:

1. The British were afraid of Russian aggression on India via Afghanistan.
2. They decided to bring Afghanistan under their control to ensure the safety of their Indian Empire.
3. The province of Sindh was located at the Northwest frontier.
4. All routes to Afghanistan passed through Sindh.
5. Realising its strategic importance, the British captured Sindh in 1843.

Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Write about the Religious Reform Movement.
Answer:

1. The independent intellectuals attacked the old religious ideologies and beliefs of Roman Catholic Church.
2. The Christian priests used to give undue importance to religious rites and practices by taking advantage of the ignorance of the people.
3. They robbed people in the name of religion.
4. The movement which started against this is known as Religious Reform Movement.

Question 2.
What is Intellectual Revolution?
Answer:

1. Due to Renaissance, the European society stepped out of past ignorance and blind faith.
2. The pre-determined customs and traditions came to be seen from a critical point of view.
3. These changes are addressed as Intellectual Revolution.

Question 3.
State the significance of French Revolution.
Answer:

1. The French Revolution was the first event in world history in which the might of the people’s power was witnessed.
2. It had put an end to uncontrolled and unjust monarchy and the feudalism.
3. France became a Republican state. It gave the world principles of liberty, equality and fraternity.
4. The spread of democratic form of government began with the French Revolution.

Question 4.
What were the changes brought about by the Industrial Revolution in the system of production?
Answer:

1. The latter part of 18th century saw many technological innovations in Europe.
2. The production started with the help of machines running on steam.
3. The big factories replaced cottage industries.
4. Handlooms were replaced by machines.
5. New modes of transport like railways and steamer were available.

Question 5.
How did the conflict between Siraj- ud-Daulah and the British start?
Answer:

1. Siraj-ud-Daulah became the Nawab of Bengal in 1756.
2. The British traders misused trade concessions and fortified their factories in Kolkata without seeking permission from the Nawab.
3. So, Siraj-ud-Daulah captured the factory. This was the beginning of conflict between Siraj-ud-Daulah and the British.

Question 6.
Why were the Sikhs defeated in the First Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer:

1. Ranjitsingh, the ruler of Punjab was succeeded by his minor son Duleep Singh.
2. Queen Jindan assumed the reins of administration on behalf of her minor son.
3. Taking advantage of the inability of Queen Jindan to control the officers, the British lured some of them to their side.
4. The Sikhs attacked the British under the impression that the British would invade Punjab.
5. Thus, the Sikhs were defeated in the first Anglo-Sikh war.

Question 7.
What brought an end to the Sikh rule in Punjab in 1849?
Answer:

1. After the First Anglo-Sikh War Duleep Singh remained on throne, but the power rested in the hands of the British.
2. The Sikhs could not accept the growing impact of the British over Punjab.
3. The growing influence of the British led to the revolt by Mulraj, the chieftain of Multan.
4. Thousands of Sikh soldiers participated in this war.
5. The British defeated the Sikhs in the Second Anglo-Sikh war and annexed the whole of Punjab in 1849.

Answer the following questions in detail: (4 marks each)

Question 1.
Give detailed account of Renaissance.
Answer:
The foundation of Renaissance period was laid between 13th century and 16th century in Europe.

1. It revived the Greek and Roman traditions.
2. The changes were seen in the field of art, architecture and philosophy in Europe.
3. Humanitarianism gained great momentum.
4. There was a change in the outlook of treating each other as a human being.
5. Man became the centre of all ideologies instead of religion.
6. The sentiments and emotions of human being found expressions in the art and literature.
7. The reform movement could be found in science and different art forms.
8. Literature was produced in local languages for the better understanding of the people.
9. Renaissance was a comprehensive movement which pervaded all sectors of human life.

Question 2.
Give information about American War of Independence.
Answer:
1. After the discovery of American continent, the imperialist European powers took control of different regions of America and established their colonies.
2. England established 13 colonies on the East coast of America.
3. Initially, England kept nominal domination but later British Parliament laid oppressive restrictions and taxes on the colonies.
4. This created discontent among the people and the colonies revolted.
5. George Washington led the American army in the war against England.
6. The colonies won the war and established the first federal democratic republic, known as the United States of America.
7. USA became the first country in the world to have a written constitution and was based on the principles of Democracy.

Question 3.
What according to you are the advantages of Religious Reform Movement?
Answer:
With changing times we find changes in every field. Religious reforms are part of this process. I feel the following are the advantages of Religious Reforms Movement.

1. Superstitions give way to rational thinking.
2. Priest cannot take advantage of people’s ignorance.
3. People will not indulge in unnecessary rituals.
4. They will engage themselves in constructive work which will help them eventually.
5. Some people take advantage in the name of religion and exploit others. Religious Reforms will stop such malpractices.

8th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Europe and India Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Effects of British Rule Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• The Freedom Struggle of 1857 Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Social and Religious Reforms Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Beginning of Freedom Movement Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Non-co-operation Movement Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Civil Disobedience Movement Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Armed Revolutionary Movement Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Struggle for Equality Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• India Gains Independence Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Fulfillment of Struggle for Independence Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Formation of State of Maharashtra Class 8 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 13 Fulfillment of Struggle for Independence Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 History Chapter 13 Fulfillment of Struggle for Independence Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Fulfillment of Struggle for Independence Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 13 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 History Chapter 13 Fulfillment of Struggle for Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Fulfillment Of Struggle For Independence Question 1.
There were more than six hundred small and big …………….. in India.
(a) states
(b) villages
(c) princely states
(d) cities
Answer:
(c) princely states

Fulfillment Of Struggle For Independence Class 8 Question 2.
All the princely states merged with India except the states of Junagad, ……………. and Kashmir.
(a) Aundh
(b) Jhansi
(c) Vadodara
(d) Hyderabad
Answer:
(d) Hyderabad

2. Explain the following statements with reasons :

Struggle Chapter 13 Question 1.
Junagad merged with India.
Answer:

1. Junagad was a princely state in Saurashtra.
2. The Nawab of Junagad wanted to merge the state with Pakistan.
3. It was opposed by the people vigorously as they wanted the merger with India.
4. Due to this, the Nawab fled to Pakistan and Junagad was merged with India in February, 1948.

13 Fulfillment Of Struggle For Independence Question 2.
The Indian government started police action against the Nizam.
Answer:

1. Hyderabad State Congress passed a resolution for a merger of Hyderabad state with India in July 1947.
2. The Nizam took an anti-India stand and tried for a merger with Pakistan.
3. The Razakar organisation of Kasim Rizvi committed atrocities on Hindus as well as Muslims who supported the democratic movement.
4. The Nizam did not respond to the appeal of the Government of India for peaceful negotiations.
5. At last, the Government of India started police action on 13 September, 1948 and the state of Hyderabad was merged with India.

Class 8 History Chapter 13 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession with India.
Answer:

1. Hari Singh the ruler of Kashmir, had decided to retain the independence of Kashmir.
2. Pakistan was keen to secure the merger of Kashmir with itself.
3. So, Pakistan began to put pressure on Hari Singh for this purpose.
4. At the instigation of Pakistan, the armed intruders attacked Kashmir in October, 1947.

Therefore, Hari Singh signed the ‘Instrument of Accession’ with India.

3. Answer the following in Brief:

Question 1.
Explain the contribution of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in the integration of the Princely States in India.
Answer:

1. The problem of the merger of the princely states was very tactfully handled by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the then Home Minister of India.
2. He convinced the Princes that the merger of their states with India was in their interest.
3. He prepared the ‘Instrument of Accession’, acceptable to all.
4. The Princes accepted the proposal and all the states except Junagad, Kashmir and Hyderabad were merged with India.
5. These three states, too, were merged with India subsequently.
6. Thus, he took a firm stand and solved the issue of merger of princely states.

Question 2.
Explain the contribution of Swami Ramananda Tirth in the struggle for liberation of Hyderabad.
Answer:

1. Hyderabad was the largest princely state in India.
2. The autocratic ruler, Nizam had denied civil and political rights to the people.?
3. In 1938, Swami Ramananda Tirth formed Hyderabad State Congress.
4. As Nizam banned his organisation, a struggle began for getting recognition to Hyderabad State Congress and democratic rights.
5. In July, 1947 a resolution was passed by the Hyderabad State Congress for its merger with India.
6. Swami Ramananda Tirth was assisted by Narayan Reddy and Siraj-ul-Hasan Tirmiji in his efforts.

Project:

Gather information and pictures related to the struggle for liberation of Hyderabad. Organise a Poster Exhibition based on it in the history department.

Class 8 History Chapter 13 Fulfillment of Struggle for Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
Due to the influence of …………….., there was beginning of political awakening among the princely states.
(a) Champaranya Satyagraha
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Non-Co-operation Movement
(d) Quit India Movement
Answer:
(c) Non-Co-operation Movement

Question 2.
Junagadh was a princely state in ……………… .
(a) Kutch
(b) Saurashtra
(c) South Gujarat
(d) East Gujarat
Answer:
(b) Saurashtra

Question 3.
Through ‘Vande Mataram’ movement ……………… participated in the struggle for liberation of Hyderabad.
(a) farmers
(b) workers
(c) students
(d) Nizam’s army
Answer:
(c) students

Question 4.
……………… is celebrated as ‘Marathwada Mukti Din’.
(a) 13 September
(b) 19 December
(c) 2 August
(d) 17 September
Answer:
(d) 17 September

Question 5.
There was significant contribution of ……………… Samaj in the Hyderabad Mukti Sangram.
(a) Arya
(b) Satyashodhak
(c) Brahmo
(d) Prarthana
Answer:
(a) Arya

Question 6.
The youth of Azad Gomantak Dal made an armed attack and liberated the territories of ……………… from Portuguese rule.
(a) Diu and Daman
(b) Goa
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) Chandianagai and Mahe
Answer:
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Question 7.
In 1949, France held a plebiscite in ………………
(a) Mahe
(b) Karaikal
(c) Puducheri
(d) Chandranagar
Answer:
(d) Chandranaga

Question 8.
……………… was an aggressive leader in this struggle for liberation of Goa.
(a) Swami Ramananda Tilth
(b) Govindbhai Shioff
(c) Mohan Ranade
(d) Babasaheb Paianjpe
Answer:
(c) Mohan Ranade

Name the following:

Question 1.
Founder of ‘Razakar’ in Princely state of Hyderabad.
Answer:
Kasim Rizvi

Question 2.
Founder of Hyderabad State Congress.
Answer:
Swami Ramananda Tirth

Question 3
Founder of Goa Congress Committee.
Answer:
Dr. T.B. Cunha

Question 4.
Took a firm stand in solving the issue of Princely States.
Answer:
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Answer the following questions in one sentence :

Question 1.
Which European powers had control over some parts of India after Independence?
Answer:
The Portuguese and French powers had control over some parts of India after Independence.

Question 2.
What are Praja Mandals?
Answer:
People formed organisations like Prajamandals which worked for people’s interests in the princely states and for securing political rights for them.

Question 3.
Which languages were spoken in the princely state of Hyderabad?
Answer:
Telugu, Kannada and Marathi were the languages spoken in the princely state of Hyderabad.

Question 4.
What is ‘Operation Polo’?
Answer:
Indian government started the police action against the Nizam to merge the princely state of Hyderabad with India. It was symbolically called ‘Operation Polo’.

Question 5.
Which organisations were formed by people to secure civil and political rights in princely state of Hyderabad?
Answer:
To secure civil and political rights in Hyderabad princely state, people formed organisations such as Andhra Parishad in Telangana region, Maharashtra Parishad in the Marathwada region and Karnataka Parishad in the Karnataka region.

Do as Directed :

Complete the concept map :

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Show the events during merger of Hyderabad princely states on timeline:

Question 1.

Answer:

Answer the following in Brief :

Question 1.
Write about contribution of Marathwada in the struggle for liberation of Hyderabad.
Answer:
The contribution of Marathwada in the liberation of Hyderabad is as follows :

1. To secure civil and political rights of the people in the region, MaharashtraParishad was formed.
2. Many eminent leaders like Ved Prakash, Govind Pansare, etc. from Marathwada led the Hyderabad liberation struggle.
3. Through ‘Vande Mataram’ Movement many students participated in the movement.
4. Many sacrificed their lives in this historical struggle.
5. The people and leaders of Marathwada had a lion’s share in Hyderabad liberation struggle.

Question 2.
Why was the struggle for independence not over in spite of India gaining independence?
Answer:

1. When India got independence, there were more than six hundred princely states.
2. The French and Portuguese powers too controlled some parts of India.
3. It was essential to merge these regions with India.

Therefore, the struggle for independence continued in spite of India gaining independence.

Question 3.
Write about the contribution of Dr. T. B. Kunha for the liberation of Goa.
Answer:

1. Dr. T. B. Kunha was in the forefront of the struggle to liberate Goa from the Portuguese rule.
2. He worked to bring about awakening among the people against the Portuguese Government.
3. With an objective of carrying out the struggle, he founded the Goa Congress Committee.
4. He founded the Goa Youth League in Mumbai in 1945.
5. He entered Goa in 1946 and was sentenced to eight years imprisonment for the violation of the ban on public speeches.

Explain the following statements with reasons :

Question 1.
Merger of the Princely States was essential.
Answer:

1. When India got independence there were more than six hundred princely states in India.
2. If the princely states had remained independent, India would have been split into hundreds of territorial fragments.
3. The dream of Indian National Congress of undivided India would have remained incomplete.
4. Moreover, the organisations in the princely states had started movements to secure rights.
5. It was necessary to free the people from the autocratic rule in the princely states.
6. Some princely states started carrying out movements for merging with Pakistan.

Question 2.
All India States People’s Conference was formed in 1927.
Answer:

1. There was political awakening among the people of princely states due to influence of non-co-operation movement.
2. Praja Mandals were formed to secure the political rights for the people in the Princely states and to work for their interest.
3. All the Praja Mandals came together and formed an “All India States People’s Conference, in 1927 which gave an impetus to the freedom movement.

Question 3.
Many organisations were formed in the Hyderabad Princely State.
Answer:

1. There were Telugu, Kannada and Marathi speaking regions in princely state of Hyderabad.
2. There was absence of civil and political rights under the autocratic rule of the Nizam.
3. To secure these rights organisations were formed in the princely states of Hyderabad.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Give information about Goa Liberation Movement.
Answer:

1. Portuguese refused to hand over territories under its possession to India.
2. Dr. T. B. Kunha was in the forefront to lead the struggle.
3. He formed the organisation like ‘Goa Congress Committee’ and ‘Goa Youth League’.
4. He worked to bring about an awakening of the people against the Portuguese government.
5. He was arrested and imprisoned in 1946 for violating a ban on public speeches.
6. Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia started a Satyagraha for liberation of Goa.
7. He was deported by the Portuguese as he violated a ban and delivered a public speech at Madgaon in Goa in 1946.
8. The youths of the Azad Gomantak Dal liberated Dadra and Nagar Haveli from the Portuguese rule on 2 August, 1954.
9. The Portuguese rulers committed unlimited tyranny and atrocities on the Satyagrahis sent by Goa Mukti Samiti from Maharashtra in 1954.
10. As the negotiations between the Government and the Portuguese did not succeed, the Indian government unwillingly took the decision of using military force.
11. On 19 December, 1961, Goa was finally liberated from the dominion of the Portuguese.

Question 2.
How was the integration of the French occupied territories brought about?
Answer:

1. Even after the independence of India, the regions of Chandranagar, Puduchcheri, Karaikal, Mahe and Yaman were in the possession of the French.
2. People were keen to merge with India.
3. The Indian Government demanded that these territories should be handed over to it.
4. In 1949, the French-occupied territory of Chandranagar was transferred to India in view of the result of the plebiscite undertaken there.
5. Thereafter, the remaining territories in the French possession were also handed over to India without any problem.

Question 3.
What would have happened if the Princely States would not have merged with India?
Answer:
Had the Princely States remained independent, the following could have been the result :

1. The people in the princely states would never have got freedom and they would have faced injustice.
2. The feeling of unity would have never developed among Indians due to the independent princely states.
3. They would have created trouble in the development of India.
4. Even the boundaries of India would not have remained safe.
5. Injustice on the population, encroachment by the princely states and many other issues would have risen.
6. Thus, It would have threatened the peace and security of India.

8th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Europe and India Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Effects of British Rule Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• The Freedom Struggle of 1857 Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Social and Religious Reforms Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Beginning of Freedom Movement Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Non-co-operation Movement Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Civil Disobedience Movement Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Armed Revolutionary Movement Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Struggle for Equality Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• India Gains Independence Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Fulfillment of Struggle for Independence Class 8 History Questions And Answers
• Formation of State of Maharashtra Class 8 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 Local Time and Standard Time Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Local Time and Standard Time Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Local Time and Standard Time Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 1 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Local Time and Standard Time Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the sentence by selecting the correct option:

Question a.
The earth requires 24 hours for one rotation. In one hour, ……………. .
(a) 5 longitudes will face the sun
(b) 10 longitudes will face the sun
(c) 15 longitudes will face the sun
(d) 20 longitudes will face the sun
Answer:
(c) 15 longitudes will face the sun

Question b.
To calculate the difference between the local times of any two places on the earth, …………. .
(a) the noon time at both the places should be known
(b) the difference in degrees of their longitudes should be known
(c) the difference in standard times of both the places should be known
(d) changes need to be made according to International Date Line.
Answer:
(b) the difference in degrees of their longitudes should be known

Question c.
The difference between the local time of any two consecutive longitudes is …………… .
(a) 15 minutes
(b) 04 minutes
(c) 30 minutes
(d) 60 minutes
Answer:
(b) 04 minutes

2. Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question a.
The local time is decided by the noontime.
Answer:
1. When at a particular place, the sun reaches the maximum height in the sky it is assumed that almost half of the daytime is over and this time is considered 12 noon.

2. The time of a particular place as decided by the overhead position of the sun in the sky is considered as the local time of that place.

3. During the rotation of the earth, when a particular longitude comes exactly in front of the sun, it is considered as noontime (12 noon) on that longitude. This noontime is considered as local time of that longitude.

In this way, the local time is decided by the noontime.

Question b.
The local time at Greenwich is considered to be the International Standard Time.
Answer:

1. The International Standard Time has been decided according to 0° longitude.
2. 0° longitude passes through Greenwich, England.
3. For an international coordination, it is essential to bring compatibility between the standard times of various countries in the world.

For this purpose, the local time at Greenwich is considered to be the International Standard Time.

Question c.
The standard time of India has been decided by the local time at 82°30′ E longitude.
Answer:

1. With respect to the longitudinal extent, 82°30’E longitude passes through the middle of India.
2. The difference between the local time at 82°30’E longitude and the local time at the extreme east and west longitude passing through India is not more than one hour.

Therefore, the standard time of India has been decided by the local time at 82°30’E longitude.

Question d.
Canada has 6 different standard times.
Answer:

1. The longitudinal extent of Canada is between 52°37′ W and 141° W.
2. Thus, the difference between the extreme east and west longitude passing through Canada is of 88 degrees.
3. The difference between the local time at extreme east and west longitude passing through Canada is of 352 minutes i.e. 5 hours and 52 minutes.

Therefore, it is not practically helpful to consider single standard time in Canada. Therefore, for synchronizing the routine activities in the country, Canada has 6 different standard times.

3. Answer in brief:

Question a.
If it is 12 noon at 60° E longitude, then explain what would be the time at 30° W longitude.
Answer:
1. The difference between 60° E longitude and 30° W longitude will be of 90 degrees. (The difference of 60 degrees between 0° and 60° E + the difference of 30 degrees between 0° and 30° W = 90 degrees.)

2. Difference in local time = 90 × 4
= 360 minutes.
= 360 minutes ÷ 60 minutes = 6 hours.
3. Longitudes lying to the east of any longitude are ahead of the time of that longitude while those lying to the west are behind.
4. Therefore, if it is 12 noon at 60° E longitude, then it would be 6 a.m. at 30° W longitude, (behind by 6 hours)

Question b.
How is the standard time of a place determined?
Answer:
1. The local time at the longitude passing through the middle of a country/ place is generally considered as a standard time of that country/place.

2. If the difference between the local time at the extreme east and west longitude passing through a country is less than one or two hours, one standard time is considered for a country. Thus, there exists only one standard time in a country having comparatively less longitudinal (east-west) extent.

3. If the difference between the local time at the extreme east and west longitude passing through a country is more than one or two hours, more than one standard time zones are considered for a country. Thus, there exists more than one standard time zones in a country having comparatively more longitudinal (east-west) extent.

Question c.
A football match being played at Sao Paulo, Brazil started in India at 6 a.m. IST. Explain what would be the local time at Sao Paulo?
Answer:
1. Statement: For any longitude lying to the west of particular longitude, the local time decreases by 4 minutes for every longitude. (Sao Paulo is located to the west of India)

2. The difference between the longitudes of Sao Paulo and India = 127°30’.

3. Difference in local time = 127.5 × 4
= 510 minutes.
= 510 minutes ÷ 60 minutes
= 8 hours 30 minutes.

4. Thus, if it is 6 a.m. at India, it would be 9.30 p.m. of the previous day at Sao Paulo. Therefore, if a football match being played at Sao Paulo, Brazil started in India at 6 a.m. 1ST, the local time at Sao Paulo would be 9.30 p.m. of previous day.

4. Complete the following table:

If it is 10 pm on 21st June at Prime Meridian, write the dates and time at A, B and C in the following table:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question 1.

Answer:

5. Write the situation of place A shown in these diagrams in the boxes below them:

Question 1.
Write the situation of place A shown in these diagrams in the boxes below them
(i) Sunrise
(ii) Midnight
(iii) Noon
(iv) Sunset

Answer:

Let’s recall: 

Question 1.
Why does the duration of day and night keep changing?
Answer:
The duration of day and night keeps changing as the earth is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degrees.

Question 2.
How many longitudes can be drawn on a world map keeping an interval of 1° each?
Answer:
360 longitudes can be drawn on a world map keeping an interval of 10 each.

Question 3.
The apparent movement of the sun from east to west is a result of what?
Answer:
The apparent movement of the sun from east to west is a result of the rotation of the earth from west to east.

Question 4.
What is the direction of the rotation of the earth?
Answer:
The direction of the rotation of the earth is from west to east.

Question 5.
While the earth rotates, how many longitudes face the sun daily?
Answer:
While the earth rotates, 360 longitudes face the sun dally.

Question 6.
At which longitude does the date change?
Answer:
The date changes at 1800 longitude.

Question 7.
How was the time measured in olden days?
Answer:
In olden days, the time was measured with the help of the natural events of sunrise and sunset and the instruments like Ghatikapaatra, sand timer, etc.

Question 8.
In present tunes, what are the instruments used for time measurement?
Answer:
In present times, the instruments like watches, calendars, etc. are used for time measurement.

Activity:

Question 1.
Look for the actual granny’s clock in Shri Acharya Atre’s poem: “Aajiche Ghadyal” (Granny’s clock). Look for this poem on the internet or in reference book.

Question 2.
Find out the velocity of the earth’s rotation in km/hour.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Local Time and Standard Time Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by selecting the correct option:

Question a.
There are …………. time zones in the world.
(a) 360
(b) 24
(c) 100
(d) 365
Answer:
(b) 24

Question b.
Indian Standard Time is …………..
(a) ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 5 hours 30 minutes
(b) ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 3 hours 50 minutes
(c) behind Greenwich Mean Time by 5 hours 30 minutes
(d) behind Greenwich Mean Time by 3 hours 50 minutes
Answer:
(a) ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 5 hours 30 minutes

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question 1.
Mumbai is located at 73° E longitude.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
In India, three standard times exist.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: In India, one standard time exists.

Question 3.
If the difference between two longitudes is of 20 degrees, the difference in their local times will be of four hours.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: If the difference between two longitudes is of 20 degrees, the difference in their local times will be of 1 hour and 20 minutes.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Think about it.
Question a.
What is the maximum number of local times that can there be in the world?
Answer:
The maximum number of local times that can be there in the world is 360.

Question b.
How many longitudes pass the sun in one hour?
Answer:
15 longitudes pass the sun in one hour.

Question 2.
How much time does the earth take to complete one rotation?
Answer:
The earth takes nearly 24 hours to complete one rotation.

Question 3.
What is meant by the local time of a place?
Answer:
When the sun is directly overhead at a particular place, it is considered as noon at that place and that time is considered as a local time of that place.

Solve the following:

1. Try this:

Question A.
Mashad, a town in Iran, is located on the 60° E longitude. When it is 12 noon at Greenwich, calculate the local time of Mashad town.
Answer:
1. Statement: As we move towards the east of the Prime Meridian, the local time increases by four minutes for every longitude. (Mashad is located to the east of Greenwich.)

2. The difference between the longitudes of Greenwich and Mashad = 60°.

3. Difference in local time
= 60 × 4
= 240 minutes.
= 240 minutes ÷ 60 minutes
= 4 hours. ‘

4. Therefore, when it is noon at Greenwich, it would be 4 p.m. at Mashad. (Ahead of Greenwich Mean Time by 4 hours.)

Question B.
Manaus city in Brazil is located on 60° W longitude. What would be the local time at Manaus when it is 12 noon at Greenwich?
Answer:
1. Statement: As we move towards the west of the Prime Meridian, the local time decrease by four minutes for every longitude. (Manaus is located to the west of Greenwich.)

2. The difference between the longitudes of Greenwich and Manaus = 60°.

3. Difference in local time = 60 × 4
= 240 minutes.
= 240 minutes ÷ 60 minutes
= 4 hours.

4. Therefore, when it is noon at Greenwich, it would be 8 a.m. at Manaus. (Behind Greenwich Mean Time by 4 hours.)

2. Can you tell?

Question A.
Mumbai is located at 73° E longitude. Kolkata is located at 88° E longitude. Find the difference between the longitudes of these two cities.
Answer:
Mumbai is located at 73° E longitude. Kolkata is located at 88° E longitude. Therefore, the difference between the longitudes of these two cities would be of (88 – 73 = 15) 15°.

Question B.
If the local time at Mumbai is 3 p.m. then what would be the local time at Kolkata?
Answer:
1. Statement: For any longitude lying to the east of particular longitude, the local time increases by 4 minutes for every longitude.

2. The difference between the longitudes of Mumbai and Kolkata = 15°.

3. Difference in local time = 15 × 4
= 60 minutes.
= 60 minutes -r- 60 minutes = 1 hour.

4. Kolkata is located to the east of Mumbai. Therefore, if it is 3 p.m. at Mumbai, then it would be 4 p.m. at Kolkata. (ahead by 1 hour)

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
Give brief information about the Indian Standard Time.
Answer:
1. The Indian Standard Time (IST) is calculated on the basis of 82°30’E longitude, passing through Mirzapur, near Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh.

2. With respect to longitudinal extent, 82°30′ E longitude passes through the middle of India.

3. When the sun is directly overhead on this longitude, it is considered that it is 12 noon at every place in India. Thus, the local time at 82°30’E longitude is considered as the Standard time of India.

4. The difference between the local time at 82°30′ E longitude and the local time at the extreme east and west longitude passing through India is not more than one hour.

Question b.
Give brief information about Universal Standard Time.
Answer:
1. As the standard time is essential for synchronizing routine activities in a country with comparatively more j longitudinal extent, the universal standard i time is essential for an international coordinating between the countries in the world.

2. For this purpose, the local time at Greenwich (Greenwich Mean Time) in England is considered to be the International/Universal Standard Time (UST).

3. With reference to GMT, the differences in standard times of various countries in the world are calculated.

4. The Indian Standard Time is ahead of GMT by 5 hours and 30 minutes. For example, if it is 12 noon at Greenwich, then it would be 5.30 p.m. in India.

Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question a.
In the countries with larger area, it is convenient to use one standard time instead of more than one local times.
Answer:
1. In the countries with larger area, much difference between the local times at extreme east and west longitude passing through the countries is found.

2. In such countries, if more than one local times are followed, it could lead to lots of confusion and chaos.

3. For example, if more than one local times are followed, it will become difficult to synchronize the timetable of railways, airways, etc. Therefore, in countries with comparatively larger area, it is convenient to use one standard time instead of more than one local times.

Study the following map/ figure/graph and answer the following questions:

1. Can you tell?
Study the figure 1.3 given on page 4 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Between which longitudes does the region experience daytime?
Answer:
The region shown between 90° W and 90° E in the figure experiences daytime.

Question 2.
Which longitudes experience noon and the midnight respectively?
Answer:
0° longitude and 180° longitude experience noon and the midnight respectively.

Question 3.
Edward from New Orleans is on which longitude?
Answer:
Edward from New Orleans is on 90° W longitude.

Question 4.
What is the time at Accra city?
Answer:
It is 12 noon at Accra city.

Question 5.
At the same time, what is Sharad from Patna and Yakaito from Japan doing? What time is it in these cities?
Answer:
At the same time, Sharad is returning home from school and Yakaito from Japan is preparing for the night’s sleep. At the same time, it is 5.30 p.m. at Patna and 9.20 p.m. at Japan.

Question 6.
Select any one longitude. Calculate the local time of the longitudes lying 1° to the west and east of this longitude.
Answer:

1. The selected longitude: 60° E. The local time of the selected longitude is 4 p.m.
2. The local time of the longitude lying 1° to the west of the selected longitude (59° E) will be 3.56 p.m.
3. The local time of the longitude lying 1° to the east of the selected longitude (61° E) will be 4.04 p.m.

2. Can you tell?

Study the figure 1.4 given on page 6 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Considering the longitudinal extent of India, how many longitudes with a difference of 1° can be drawn on a map?
Answer:
Considering the longitudinal extent of India, 29 longitudes with a difference of 1° can be drawn on a map.

Question 2.
By how many minutes do two consecutive longitudes differ?
Answer:
Two consecutive longitudes differ by 4 minutes.

Question 3.
What is the value of degrees of longitude at Mirzapur?
Answer:
The value of longitude at Mirzapur is 82°30′.

Question 4.
If it is 8 a.m. at 82°30′ E, what would be the time in their clocks at the following places: Jammu, Madurai, Jaisalmer, Guwahati.
Answer:
If it is 8 a.m. at 82°30′ E, it would be 8 a.m. in their clocks at Jammu, Madurai, Jaisalmer, Guwahati.
(Note: In India, the time at 82°30′ E is considered as standard time of India and therefore the same time will be considered everywhere in India.)

Question 5.
Though the distance between them is more why doesn’t the standard time differ in these places?
Answer:
In India, the time at 82°30′ E is considered as standard time of India and therefore the same time will be considered everywhere in India. Therefore, though the distance between them is more, the standard time doesn’t differ in these places.

Thought-Provoking Questions:

1. Think about it.

Question 1.
At the poles, sunrise occurs on one equinox and sunsets on the next equinox. If you happen to be at any of the poles during this time, then what would be the route of the sun in the daytime?
Answer:
At the poles, sun rises on one equinox and sets on the next equinox. If we happen to be at any of the poles during this time, then the following would be the route of the sun in the daytime:
(A) North Pole:
1. The sun will rise at the North Pole approximately on March 21.

2. Approximately, from March 21 to June 21, the sun will rise higher in the sky with each advancing day. It will reach the maximum height approximately on June 21. Approximately, from June 21 to September 21, the sun will start sinking towards the horizon in the sky with each advancing day.

3. The sun will set at the North Pole approximately on September 21.

(B) South Pole:
1. The sun will rise at the South Pole approximately on September 21.

2. Approximately, from September 21 to December 21, the sun will rise higher in the sky with each advancing day. It will reach the maximum height approximately on December 21.

3. Approximately, from December 21 to March 21, the sun will start sinking towards the horizon in the sky with each advancing day.

4. The sun will set at the South Pole approximately on March 21.

Question 2.
On which day, would the sun appear at the highest point in the sky?
Answer:

1. On the North Pole, approximately on June 21, the sun would appear at the highest point in the sky.
2. On the South Pole, approximately on December 21, the sun would appear at the highest point in the sky.

2. Use your brainpower:

Question 1.
Tick ✓ the time in the boxes which you can tell without using clock.
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

3. Give it a try.

Question 1.
If it is 8 a.m. in India, what is the time in Greenwich?
Answer:
If it is 8 a.m. in India, it would be 2.30 a.m. in Greenwich.

Question 2.
When it is 2 p.m. in India, in which countries would it be 2 p.m. exactly?
Answer:
When it is 2 p.m. in India, it would be 2 p.m. exactly in Sri Lanka.

Question 3.
When it is 9 a.m. in India, what would be the time at 82°30′ W longitude?
Answer:
When it is 9 a.m. in India, it would be 10 p.m. of the previous day at 82°30′ W longitude.

Question 4.
What would be the time at Prime Meridian when a new day starts at 180° longitude?
Answer:
It would be 12 noon at Prime Meridian when a new day starts at 180° longitude.

4. Think about it.

Question 1.
In which of the following countries, does only one standard time exist? (Mexico, Sri Lanka, New Zealand, China)
Answer:
From the given countries, only one time exists in Sri Lanka, New Zealand and China.

Question 2.
Why does a country having a large latitudinal extent have only one standard time?
Answer:
The places lying on the same longitude have the same local time. Therefore, a country having a large latitudinal extent have only one standard time.

Question 3.
Which discrepancies will emerge if more than one local times, instead of one standard time are followed in a country with huge longitudinal extent?
Answer:
The following discrepancies will emerge if more than one local times, instead of one standard time are followed in a country with huge longitudinal extent:

1. It will become difficult to synchronize the timetable of rail transportation, air transportation, etc. in a country.
2. It will become difficult to synchronize the timings of schools, colleges, banks, libraries, etc. in a country.
3. We will always have to adjust the time in watch as we move from one place to another in a country.

8th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Local Time and Standard Time Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Interior of the Earth Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Humidity and Clouds Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Structure of Ocean Floor Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Ocean Currents Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Land Use Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Population Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Industries Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Map Scale Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Field Visit Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Field Visit Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 10 Field Visit Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Field Visit Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 10 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Geography Chapter 10 Field Visit Textbook Questions and Answers

Question a.
Prepare a questionnaire for a visit to a NGO working for cleanliness of marine beaches.
Answer:
A questionnaire for a visit to a NGO working for cleanliness of marine beaches is as follows :

1. What is the year of establishment of this NGO?
2. What are the aims and objectives of this NGO?
3. Which activities/programmes are carried out for the cleanliness of marine beaches?
4. How are the people from surrounding areas involved in those various activities and programmes?
5. What are the future plans of this NGO?

Field trip:

• Nature: Field trip is an important study method in geography.
• Importance: Field trip helps in understanding various geographical concepts, elements and processes through direct experiences. It helps in understanding the correlation between humans and environment.
• Planning: Planning of field trip includes deciding the aim, place, duration, etc. about the field trip.
• Preparations : Preparations of field trip includes deciding the place of field visit, maintaining essential materials like notebook, pen, pencil, camera, etc., deciding the schedule for field visit, preparing questionnaire, etc.
• Precautions : One should ensure that there is no harm to the environment in any way during field trip /visit.

Report writing:

• Nature : A field report should be written on the basis of information obtained after field visit is complete.
• Basis : The field report can be written on the basis of information gathered from field visit, photographs, maps, informative charts, questionnaire, etc.
• Points : The field report can be written with the help of the following points :
  (a) Introduction
  (b) Presentation of information obtained
  (c) Conclusion, etc.

Field trips help in enhancing the understanding and sensitivity about the historical, economic, social, and cultural facts about the selected field. Report on field visit should be presented in the classroom.

8th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Local Time and Standard Time Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Interior of the Earth Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Humidity and Clouds Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Structure of Ocean Floor Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Ocean Currents Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Land Use Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Population Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Industries Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Map Scale Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Field Visit Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Humidity and Clouds Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Humidity and Clouds Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Humidity and Clouds Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 3 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Humidity and Clouds Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Match the column and complete the chain: 

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. Cirrus	i. Vertical extent in the sky	a. Roaring clouds
2. Cumulonimbus	ii. Higher altitude	b. Floating clouds
3. Nimbostratus	iii. Medium altitude	c. Continuous rainfall
4. Alto-cumulus	iv Low altitude	d. Snowflake clouds

Answer:

‘A’ Column	‘B’ Column	‘C’ Column
1. Cirrus	ii. Higher altitude	d. Snowflake clouds
2. Cumulonimbus	i. Vertical extent in the sky	a. Roaring clouds
3. Nimbostratus	iv Low altitude	c. Continuous rainfall
4. Alto-cumulus	iii. Medium altitude	b. Floating clouds

2. Choose the correct word from the brackets and complete the sentences:
(Options: Cumulonimbus, relative humidity, absolute humidity, condensation, vapor-holding capacity)

Question a.
The ………….. of the air is dependent on the temperature of the air.
Answer:
vapour-holding capacity

Question b.
The amount of vapour in 1 cu.m, of air shows the ………….
Answer:
absolute humidity

Question c.
As …………. is less in the desert areas, the air is dry there.
Answer:
relative humidity

Question d.
……………. type of clouds are indicators of the storm.
Answer:
Cumulonimbus

Question e.
In a free environment, the ………….. of the vapour present in the atmosphere takes place around the dust particles.
Answer:
condensation

3. Differentiate between: 

Question a.
Humidity and clouds:
Answer:

Question b.
Relative humidity and Absolute humidity
Answer:

Question c.
Cumulus clouds and Cumulonimbus clouds
Answer:

4. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Why is the air in a region dry?
Answer:
Due to the low amount of the moisture in the air, the air in a region is I dry.

Question b.
How is humidity measured?
Answer:
1. The amount of water vapour in 1 cu.m, of air is called the absolute humidity.

2. Absolute humidity is measured with the help the following formula:
Absolute humidity
= \(\frac{\text { Mass of water vapour }}{\text { Volume of air }}\)

3. The amount of water vapour present in air expressed as a percentage of the amount needed for saturation at the same temperature is called relative humidity.

4. Relative humidity is measured with the help of the following formula: Relative humidity (%)

Question c.
What are the prerequisites for condensation?
Answer:
High relative humidity and dew point temperature of the air are the j prerequisites for condensation.

Question d.
What is a cloud? Write its types.
Answer:
A. Meaning:
A visible mass of fine particles of ice and water accumulated around the dust particles in the air at high altitude is called a cloud.

B. Types:
The following are the types of clouds:

1. High clouds: Clouds at an altitude of 7000 m to 14000 m are considered as high clouds. Cirrus, Cirro-Stratus and CirroCumulus are high clouds.
2. Medium clouds: Clouds at an altitude of 2000 m to 7000 m are considered as medium clouds. Alto-Stratus and Alto Cumulus are medium clouds.
3. Low clouds: Clouds at an altitude of less than 2000m are considered as low clouds. Strato-Cumulus, Stratus, Nimbostratus, Cumulus and Cumulonimbus are low clouds

Question e.
Which type of clouds give rain?
Answer:
Nimbostratus and cumulonimbus type of clouds give rain.

Question f.
On what does the percentage of relative humidity depend?
Answer:
The percentage of relative humidity depends on the absolute humidity and vapour-holding capacity of the air at a given temperature.

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Clouds float in the sky.
Answer:

1. The condensed water or fine particles of snow accumulate around dust particles at high altitudes leading to formation of clouds.
2. The condensed water or fine particles in the clouds are almost weightless. Therefore, clouds float in the sky.

Question b.
The proportion of relative humidity changes according to altitude.
Answer:
1. The temperature is found to be comparatively high in the areas at sea level. Due to high temperature, moisture-holding capacity of air near sea level is found to be high. Therefore, the humidity of the air at sea level is comparatively high.

2. The temperature is found to be comparatively low in the areas at high altitude. Due to low temperature, moisture-holding capacity of air at high altitudes is found to below. Therefore, the humidity of the air at high altitude is comparatively low. In this way, the proportion of relative humidity changes according to the altitude.

Question c.
Air becomes saturated.
Answer:

1. At certain temperature, the moisture-holding capacity of air gets fulfilled and it becomes equal to the proportion of the moisture present in it.
2. At this state, no more moisture can be absorbed by the air. Thus, air becomes saturated.

Question d.
Cumulus clouds change into cumulonimbus clouds.
Answer:

1. Cumulus clouds are found between 500 m to 6000 m altitude. They are mostly formed due to the vertical flow of the air.
2. Sometimes, the vertical expanse of the cumulus clouds increases and it leads to formation of huge mountain-like cumulonimbus clouds. Thus, cumulus clouds change into cumulonimbus clouds.

6. Solve the following:

Question a.

When the temperature of the air is 30° C, its vapour-holding capacity is 30.37 gms/cu.m., If absolute humidity is 18 gms/cu.m., then what will be the relative humidity?
Answer:
Relative humidity (%)

Question b.
What would be the absolute humidity of air if 1 cu.m, air contains 4.08 gms of vapour at 0° C temperature.
Answer:
Absolute humidity

7. Collect the weather related information from newspapers for the month of July. Relate the difference in the maximum and minimum temperatures with humidity.

Activity:

Question a.
Make a table showing the types of clouds. Use various photographs.
Answer:

Class 8 Geography Chapter 3 Humidity and Clouds Additional Important Questions and Answers

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
Cumulonimbus clouds are the indicators of the pleasant atmosphere.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Cumulonimbus clouds are the indicators of the thunderstorm.

Question b.
The relative humidity is found to be high in desert region.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: The relative
humidity is found to be less in desert region.

Question c.
The high temperature of the air leads to rapid evaporation.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
When the humidity in the air is 0 gm/cu.m. at any temperature, the air is said to be humid.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: When the humidity in the air is o gm/cu.m. at any temperature, the air Is said to be dry.

Question e.
Cirrostratus appears like a bed sheet with wrinkles.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What is evaporation?
Answer:
The process of converting water into steam or water vapour is called evaporation.

Question b.
What is meant by the moisture-holding capacity of air?
Answer:
The capacity of air to hold moisture at a given temperature, is called the moisture-holding capacity of air.

Question c.
What is meant by the saturation of the air?
Answer:
The condition of air at a certain temperature, in which the moisture-holding capacity of air becomes equal to the I proportion of moisture present in it, is called saturation of the air.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
Write in brief about the features of high clouds.
Answer:
Clouds at an altitude of 7000 m to 14000 m are considered as high clouds. High clouds are mainly made up of ice particles. Cirrus, Cirro-Stratus and Cirro-Cumulus are high clouds. The following are the features of high clouds :

1. Cirrus: Cirrus are wispy.
2. Cirro-Stratus: Cirro-Stratus look like bed sheet with wrinkles. A halo is generally seen around these clouds.
3. Cirro-Cumulus clouds: Cirro- Cumulus look like groups of small waves.

Question b.
Write in brief about the features of medium clouds.
Answer:
Clouds at an altitude of 2000 m to 7000 m are considered as medium clouds. Alto-Stratus and Alto-Cumulus are medium clouds. The following are the features of medium clouds :

1. Alto-Stratus : Alto-Stratus are comparatively thin. The sun is visible through these clouds as if seen through a milky glass.
2. Alto-Cumulus : Alto-Cumulus are in the form of layers. They have wave-like structure. They are white in colour and have a grey shade.

Question c.
Write in brief about the features of Strato-Cumulus, Stratus and Nimbostratus.
Answer:
The features of Strato-Cumulus, Stratus and Nimbostratus are as follows :

1. Strato-Cumulus: Strato-Cumulus have layers. These clouds are mostly seen in round clusters. They are white to earthy in colour.
2. Stratus: Stratus are found in layers. They have uniform base. They are ash coloured.
3. Nimbostratus: Nimbostratus have thick layers. They are greyish in colour. They cause continuous rainfall. They are also responsible for snowfall.

Question d.
Write in brief about the features of Cumulus and Cumulonimbus.
Answer:
The features of Cumulus and Cumulonimbus are as follows :
1. Cumulus : Cumulus are found between 500 m to 6000 m altitude. They are mostly formed due to the vertical flow of the air. They have huge size and dome-like shape. They are grey in colour. They indicate pleasant atmosphere. With an increase in the vertical expanse, these clouds turn into cumulonimbus clouds and bring rain.

2. Cumulonimbus : Cumulonimbus appear like huge mountain. They are dense and dark in colour. They have anvil-like shape at the top. They are the indicators of thunder, lightning and storm. They bring rain with storm. Sometimes they also bring hailstones. The raindrops of these clouds are found to be larger in size.

Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question a.
The absolute humidity of air in coastal region is higher than humidity of air in inland areas.
Answer:
1. The rate of evaporation is found to be high in the coastal region. As its effect, the amount of moisture in air in coastal region is found to be high. This results in high absolute humidity of air in coastal region.

2. On the other hand, the rate of evaporation is found to be low in the inland areas. As its effect, the amount of moisture in air in inland regions is found to be low. This results in low absolute humidity of air in inland areas. Thus, the absolute humidity of air in coastal region is higher than humidity of air in inland areas.

Question b.
The absolute humidity of air in equatorial region is higher than humidity of air in polar region.
Answer:
1. Equatorial region receives perpendicular sunrays throughout the year leading to high temperature. High temperature increases the rate of evaporation and this further leads to high absolute humidity of air in equatorial region.

2. Polar regions receive extremely slanted sunrays throughout the year leading to very low temperature. Very low temperature decreases the rate of evaporation and this further leads to very low absolute humidity of air in polar region. Thus, the absolute humidity of air in equatorial region is higher than humidity of air in polar region.

Question c.
Damp air is found in the coastal regions.
Answer:

1. The rate of evaporation is found to be high in the coastal region. As its effect, the amount of moisture in air in coastal region is found to be high.
2. The absolute humidity of the air near coastal region is found to be high. Therefore, damp air is found in the coastal regions.

Question d.
Dry air is found in the inland regions.
Answer:

1. The rate of evaporation is found to be low in inland region. As its effect, the amount of moisture in air in inland region is found to be low.
2. The absolute humidity of the air in inland region is found to be low. Therefore, dry air is found in inland regions.

Differentiate between the following :

Question a.
Densification and Sublimation :
Answer:

Study the following map/figure /graph and answer the following questions:

1. Study the figure 3.7 given on page 20 of the textbook and answer the following questions :

Question a.
What is the maximum diameter of the raindrop?
Answer:
The maximum diameter of the raindrop is 5 mm.

Question b.
Around what does the condensation of the water vapour in the air occur?
Answer:
The condensation of the water vapour in the air occurs around the minute particles of dust or salt in the air.

2. Study the Figure 3.9 given on page 22 of the textbook and answer the following questions :

Question a.
Which type of charge is found at the upper end of the cumulonimbus clouds?
Answer:
Positive charge is found at the upper end of the cumulonimbus clouds.

Question b.
Which type of charge is found at the low end of the cumulonimbus clouds?
Answer:
Negative charge is found at the low end of the cumulonimbus clouds.

Question c.
Which type of charge is found on the land below the cumulonimbus clouds?
Answer:
Positive charge is found on the land below the cumulonimbus clouds.

Use your brainpower!

Find where the symbols given below are used while showing the weather of a place. Write their meanings in the boxes given below:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question a

Answer:

Thought-Provoking Questions:

Think about it.

Question a.
During winters, when you exhale on the glass of your mirror, what happens. If you do this in summer why doesn’t it happen?
Answer:
1. During winters, the moisture-holding capacity of air is low due to low temperature. Therefore during winters, when we exhale on the glass of mirror, the condensation of water vapour present in the exhaled air takes place. As its effect very thin water drops are found on the glass of mirror.

2. During summer, the moisture-holding capacity of air is high due to high temperature. Therefore during summer, when we exhale on the glass of mirror, the water vapour present in the exhaled air gets absorbed in air. Therefore, no water drops are found on the glass of mirror.

Give it a try.

The vapour-holding capacity of 1 cu.m, of air in various temperature is given in the following table.

Calculate the difference in the capacities by observing the following table :
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Question a.

Answer:

Temperature of the air (°C)	Vapour-holding (gm/cu.m3 (gm/cu.m3)capacity	Difference in the capacities (gm/cu.m3)
-5	3.26	—
0	4.85	1.59
5	6.80	1.95
10	9.40	2.60
15	12.83	3.43
20	17.30	4.47
30	30.37	13.07
40	51.12	20.75

Use your brain power!

Question a.
In which season is humidity generally more?
Answer:
Humidity is generally more in monsoon.

Question b.
How does the humidity affect the human body?
Answer:
The rate of respiration and sweating increases due to humidity.

Question c.
Observe how humidity affects the food materials at our home and write about the same.
Answer:
Due to humidity, fungus flourish on food materials at our home and it gets spoiled.

Question d.
Is there any relationship between formation of fungus and humidity?
Answer:
There is a direct relationship between formation of fungus and humidity. Humidity supports the growth of fungus.

Question e.
How is the early or late drying up of clothes related to humidity?
Answer:
As the moisture-holding capacity is found to be high in low humidity air, it leads to early drying up of clothes. As the moisture-holding capacity is found to be low in high humidity air, it leads to late drying up of clothes.

Think about it.

Question a.
What will happen if the temperature of saturated air at 20° C drops to 10° C abruptly?
Answer:

1. If the temperature of saturated air at 20° C drops to 10° C abruptly, the relative humidity of the air will increase abruptly.
2. Rise in the relative humidity will lead to condensation or sublimation of water vapour in the air. This in turn, will lead to precipitation or snowfall.

Open-Ended Question:

Question a.
Explain the effect of humidity on human life.
Answer:

1. High humidity increases the rate of sweating and respiration. This adversely affects the daily functioning.
2. Low humidity with pleasant atmosphere, have favourable effects on the daily routine.
3. High humidity leads to late drying up of clothes and early spoiling of food materials.
4. Low humidity leads to early drying up of clothes and late spoiling of food materials.

8th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Local Time and Standard Time Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Interior of the Earth Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Humidity and Clouds Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Structure of Ocean Floor Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Ocean Currents Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Land Use Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Population Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Industries Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Map Scale Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Field Visit Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Land Use Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Land Use Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Land Use Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 6 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Land Use Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question A.
Mining Is not type of land use.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Mining is a type of land use.

Question B.
There are factories in the Central Business District.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: There are many shops, banks and offices in the Central Business District.

Question C.
In urban areas, the largest area is used for residential purposes.
Answer:
Correct.

Question D.
The village attendant issues the 7/12 extract.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: The village talathi issues the 7/12 extract.

Question E.
In rural areas, residential areas occupy large tracts.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: In rural areas, residential areas occupy small tracts.

Question F.
Extract 7 indicates Record of Rights.
Answer:
Correct.

Question G.
Extract 12 indicates change in ownership.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Extract 12 indicates tracts under cultivation.

2. Give geographical reasons.

Question A.
Land use for public facility is extremely important in urban areas.
Answer:

1. Government provides various services to fulfill the needs of citizens. The land used for fulfilling these needs is known as public utility/ facility area.
2. The lands used for post offices, police stations, public grounds, public schools, public hospitals, etc. are included public facility land use.
3. Land use for public facility increases the’ social welfare. Therefore, land use for public facility is extremely important in urban areas.

Question B.
The record of ownership of non- agricultural land is same as that of agricultural land.
Answer:
1. The record of agricultural land is maintained in the form of 7/12 extract. Similarly the record of ownership of non-agricultural land is maintained in the form of property card.

2. Like 7/12 extract, property card provides details of ownership of land, city survey number, plot number, amount of tax, area of property assessed, right to access, etc. Thus, the record of ownership of non-agricultural land is same as that of agricultural land.

Question C.
A region can be classified as developed or developing on the basis of land use.
Answer:

1. The land used in a particular region for agriculture, grazing, etc. indicates that the region is underdeveloped or developing.
2. The land used in a particular region for commercial purposes, transportation, recreation, etc. indicates that the region is developed. In this way, a region can be classified as developed or developing on the basis of land use.

3. Write answers:

Question A.
Why is agriculture important in rural land use?
Answer:

1. In India, agriculture is the main occupation of most of people in rural areas.
2. In India, farming occupation is very important as it satisfies the need of food grain and provides raw material to industries.
3. The maximum land in rural areas is used for carrying out agricultural activities. Therefore, agriculture is important in rural land use.

Question B.
State the factors affecting land use.
Answer:
(a) The factors affecting rural land use :

1. The factors like climatic conditions, fertility of soil, altitude and slope of land, irrigational facilities, natural resources, government policies, etc. affect rural land use.
2. For example, the land with gentle slope is not used for residential purpose, but is used for step farming.

(b) The factors affecting urban land use :

1. The factors like location of land, natural resources, housing development policies of government, transportation routes, industrialisation, trade and commerce, entertainment facilities, government policies, etc. affect urban land use.

2. For example, the land site near the railway station, market, etc. is mostly used for commercial purposes.

Question C.
Clarify the differences between rural and urban land use.
Answer:
The differences between rural and urban land use are as follows :

1. Land in rural areas is used for limited purposes. On the other hand, land in urban areas is used for many purposes.
2. The pattern of rural land use is comparatively simple. On the other hand, the pattern of urban land use is comparatively complex.
3. Use of land for cultivation is the major form of rural land use. On the other hand, use of land for commercial activities and residence are the major forms of urban land use.

Question D.
Differentiate between 7/12 extract and property card.
Answer:
The differences between 7/12 extract and property card are as follows :

1. 7/12 extract is issued by public revenue department of the government. On the other hand, property card is issued by city survey office of government.
2. 7/12 extract is the land record of ownership and history of ownership of the land in rural areas. Property card is the land record of ownership and history of ownership of the land in urban areas.

Activity:

Question A.
Obtain information about a town close to your village based on the following points and make a presentation in class.
(site, condition. development, land use pattern work)
a. Classify your settlement as rural or urban
b. Note the changes in land use from Central Business District outwards to the periphery in your settlement after consulting elders. Prepare a land use pattern.

Question B.
Study the 7/12 extract or the Property Card in your house and write a note.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 6 Land Use Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct answer:

Question a.
Recreational land use is use of land for …………………
(A) garden
(B) farming
(C) industry
(D) rail route
Answer:
(A) garden

Question b.
Which of the following is a planned city in India?
(A) Seoul
(B) Zurich
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Brasilia
Answer:
(C) Chandigarh

Question c.
Of which city are Bandra, Bhandup, etc. suburbs?
(A) Pune
(B) Nagpur
(C) Nashik
(D) Mumbai
Answer:
(D) Mumbai

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question A.
Government policies affect the land use.
Answer:
Correct.

Question B.
The areas of mixed land use are found in cities.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question A.
What is meant by land use?
Answer:
Land use is the way or purpose for which land in a particular region is used.

Question B.
What is called fallow land?
Answer:
The agricultural land which is temporarily not in use is called fallow land.

Question C.
What is called forest land?
Answer:
The land which is reserved for forest area is called forest land.

Question D.
Which products are obtained from forest areas?
Answer:
The products like firewood, flowers, fruits, gum, grass, honey, etc. are obtained from forest areas.

Question E.
What is called grassland?
Answer:
The land owned by Village Panchayat or the government and which is used for grazing is called grassland.

Question F.
What is meant by commercial land use?
Answer:
Commercial land use is the use of land in urban areas for commercial purpose.

Question G.
What is meant by mixed land use?
Answer:
Mixed land use is the use of land in urban areas for more than one purpose at a time.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question A.
How does the pattern of land use get developed?
Answer:

1. The pattern of land use gets developed through the continuous interactions between man and geographical factors.
2. The interaction between the factors like availability of land, quality of land, human needs, etc. leads to the development of specific pattern of land use.
3. For example, mineral rich land is used for carrying out mining activity.
4. For example, fertile piece of land is used for carrying out farming activity, etc.

Question B.
Write in brief about residential land use in rural areas.
Answer:

1. The density of population is found to be low in rural areas.
2. As population in rural areas is comparatively limited, the residential land use in rural areas is found to be limited.
3. In rural areas, the land close to the areas of main occupations is used for settlements.
4. For example, farmers’ residences are found near farms, fishermen’s settlements are found near coastal areas, etc.

Question C.
Write in brief about features of trAnswer:itional areas.
Answer:
The following are the features of transitional areas:

1. The intermediate areas between rural settlements and urban settlements are known as transitional areas.
2. The blend of rural and urban land use and culture is found in transitional areas.
3. Over time, trAnswer:itional areas are converted into urban areas and they are called suburbs.
4. For example, Bandra, Bhandup, etc. are the suburbs of Mumbai city.

Question D.
Write in brief about property card.
Answer:
The brief information of property card is as follows:

1. Property card is the land record of ownership and history of ownership of the land in urban areas.
2.  It is a land record of non-agricultural land.
3. Property card is issued by city survey office of government.
4. Property cards provide details of city survey number, plot number, amount of tax, area of property assessed, right to access, etc.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question A.
Give information about arable land use and fallow land use in rural areas.
Answer:
The information about arable land : use and fallow land use in rural areas is as follows :
(a) Arable land use :

1. The use of land for cultivation is called arable land use.
2. In India, in 2011, nearly 57 per cent of land was under arable land use.
3. Generally, arable land is owned I individually.
4. The arable land can be classified on the basis of ownership of the land and types of agriculture.

(b) Fallow land use:

1. The agricultural land which is temporarily not in use is called fallow land.
2. Fallow land use is a form of rural land use.
3. To increase the fertility of soil, farmers do not use a part of agricultural land for few seasons.

Question B.
Give information about grassland use and forest land use in rural areas.
Answer:
The information about grassland use and forest land use in rural areas is as follows:
(a) Grassland land use:

1. The land owned by village panchayat or the government and which is used for grazing purpose is called grassland.
2. It is also called pastureland.
3. Mostly, grassland is owned by entire village. Very limited individual ownership of grassland is found.

(b) Forest land use:

1. The land kept reserved for forest area is called forest land.
2. Large trees, bushes, creepers and grass are found in forest land.
3. The forest products like firewood, fruits, flowers, gum, grass, honey, etc. are obtained from forest land.

Question C.
Give information about commercial land use and residential land use in urban areas.
Answer:
The information about commercial land use and residential land use in urban areas is as follows:
(a) Commercial land use:

1. The use of urban land for commercial use is called commercial land use.
2. Many shops, banks and offices are found in commercial land areas.
3. The concept of Central Business District (CBD) has emerged from commercial land use.
4. For example, Fort area or BKC (Bandra Kurla Complex) in Mumbai are the areas of commercial land use.

(b) Residential land use:

1. The use of urban land for residential purpose is called residential land use.
2. Houses and residential buildings are found in residential land areas.
3. The density of population is found to be high in urban areas. As its effect, the percentage of residential land use in urban areas is increasing day by day.

Question D.
Give information about trAnswer:port land use and public utility area in urban areas.
Answer:
The information about transport land use and Public utility area in urban areas is as follows:
(a) TrAnswer:port land use:

1. The use of urban land for providing transportation facilities is called transport land use.
2. The land used for roadways, railways, petrol pumps, vehicle repairing centres, etc. is included in transport land use.

(b) Public utility area:

1. Government provides various services to fulfill the needs of citizens. The land used for fulfilling these needs is known as public utility area.
2. Post offices, police stations, public grounds, public schools, public hospitals, etc. are included in public utility area.

Question E.
Give information about recreational land use and mixed land use in urban areas.
Answer:
The information about recreational land use and mixed land use in urban areas is as follows:
(a) Recreational land use:

1. Recreational land use is a use of urban land for fulfilling the needs of entertainment of people.
2. Public parks, swimming pools, theatres, etc. are included in recreational land use.

(b) Mixed land use:

1. Mixed land use is a use of urban land for fulfilling more than one wants at a time.
2. For example, area used for residential and entertainment purposes.

Question F.
Write about the features of planned cities.
Answer:
The features of planned cities are as follows:
(a) Need:

1. After industrial revolution, unplanned urbanisation occurred on a large scale all over the world.
2. Due to unplanned urbanisation, cities began to develop in a very haphazard manner.
3. People started migrating to cities in search of employment opportunities.

(b) Nature: City which is developed as per the pre-determined and planned layout of land use is called planned city.

(c) Singapore, Seoul from South Korea, Zurich from Switzerland, Washington D.C. from U.S.A., Brasilia from Brazil, Chandigarh, Bhubaneshwar from India are the examples of planned cities.

Question G.
Give information about 7/12 extract.
Answer:
The information about 7/12 extract is as follows:

1. 7/12 is an extract published and given by public revenue department of the government.
2. 7/12 extract gives detailed information of a particular registered land.
3. The register of the revenue department keeps a record of details of ownership rights of family, status of debt and loans, transfer of ownership, areas under different crops etc. related to registered land.
4. Village form no. 7 and Village form no. 12 are combined and 7/12 extract is prepared.
5. These village forms are available with the talathi of every village.
6. The accurate reading of 7/12 extract gives exact idea about ownership of land, tax levied on land, status of loan taken, etc.

Study the following map/figure/graph and answer the following questions:

Can you tell?

Study the Figure and answer the following questions:

Question A.
In which country is the land under forests more?
Answer:
The land under forests is more in Japan.

Question B.
In which country is the land under agriculture more?
Answer:
The land under agriculture is more in India.

Question C.
Considering the two questions above, how will you relate the physiography and climate of India and Japan with their respective land uses?
Answer:
Due to plains and monsoon climatic conditions, the population in India is more. Therefore, agricultural land use is prominent in India. Due to mountainous region and more proportion of precipitation, the forest land use is prominent in Japan.

Question D.
Correlate their land use and development.
Answer:
The land use in India shows comparatively low development. On the other hand, land use in Japan shows comparatively high development.

Question E.
Which land use is found in Japan?
Answer:
The land use like agricultural land use, forest land use, grassland land use, other land use, etc. are found in Japan.

Question F.
Considering the land use in both the countries, make a list of factors affecting land use.
Answer:
Considering the land use in both the countries, lists of factors affecting land use are as follows:
(a) Factors affecting land use in India:

1. Fertility of soil
2. Climatic conditions
3. Natural resources
4. Slope of land, etc.

(b) Factors affecting land use in Japan:

1. Technical advancement
2. Availability of resources
3. Government policies, etc.

Can you tell?

Study the Figure and answer the following questions:

Question A.
What kind of land use is shown in Figure 6.2 and 6.3?
Answer:
Land use shown in Figure 6.2 is agricultural land use and land use shown in Figure 6.3 is non-agricultural land use.

Question B.
Can you tell in which area the property is located?
Answer:
The property shown in Figure 6.2 is located in rural areas and the property shown in Figure 6.3 is located in urban areas.

Can you tell?

Study the Figure and answer the following questions:

Question A.
Which are the land uses of 1990-91 that show decline in 2010-11? What could be reasons for this?
Answer:
Total agricultural land use and other non-agricultural land use of 1990-91 show decline in 2010-11. Increased urbanisation could be reason for this.

Question B.
Which type of land use is the maximum? What would be the impact of this on India’s environment?
Answer:
Agricultural land use is the maximum. It indicates that India is an agrarian country and its environment is comparatively more natural.

Question C.
Can a decline in the area under agriculture equated with food shortage?
Answer:
A decline in the area under agriculture cannot be equated with food shortage. With modern technology, the maximum agricultural food production can be undertaken in limited areas.

Can you tell?

Study the figure and answer the following questions:

Question A.
What is the percentage of land suitable for cultivation?
Answer:
The percentage of land suitable for cultivation is 56.8.

Question B.
What is the percentage of barren land?
Answer:
The percentage of barren land is 8.3.

Question C.
What is the percentage of land under forest in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The percentage of land under forest in Maharashtra is 16.9.

Question D.
What is the percentage of non- agricultural land in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The percentage of non-agricultural land in Maharashtra is 10.2.

Give it a try.

Study the Figure. It shows the satellite images of Mondha Village (Taluka – Hingna, District – Nagpur).

Question A.
Find out the changes in land use pattern over time and write a note.
Answer:

1. The satellite image of Mondha Village in Hingna taluka in Nagpur district shows that agricultural land use in the village has declined from 2010 to 2017.
2. The satellite image of Mondha Village in Hingna taluka in Nagpur district shows that residential land use in the village has increased from 2010 to 2017.
3. Urbanisation, increasing population, etc. factors must be responsible for changes in land use pattern over time in Mondha Village.

Thought Provoking Question:

Think about it.

Question A.
If land is left fallow, or is not in use, then can it be termed as a kind of land use?
Answer:
1. The agricultural land which is temporarily not in use is called fallow land.
2. Fallow land use is a form of rural land use.
3. To increase the fertility of soil, farmers do not use a part of agricultural land for few seasons. After one or two seasons fallow land is again utilized for cultivation. Therefore, if land is left fallow, or is not in use, then it can be termed as a kind of land use.

Open-Ended Question:

Question A.
Write the advantages of planned cities in your own words.
Answer:
The advantages of planned cities are as follows:

1. There will not be a problem of traffic jam in planned cities.
2. The level of pollution will be the minimum in the planned cities.
3. The planned cities will be clean and they will maintain environmental balance.
4. The quality of human life will be superior in planned cities.

8th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Local Time and Standard Time Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Interior of the Earth Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Humidity and Clouds Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Structure of Ocean Floor Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Ocean Currents Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Land Use Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Population Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Industries Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Map Scale Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Field Visit Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Industries Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Industries Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Industries Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 8 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Industries Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Mark ✓ in the box next to the right alternative:
(Note: The answers are given directly.)

Question A.
Which factors among those mentioned below does not directly impact industrial development?
(i) Water [ ]
(ii) Electricity [ ]
(iii) Labour [ ]
(iv) Air [ ]
Answer:
(iv) Air [✓]

Question B.
Which of the following is a small industry?
(i) Machine parts industry [ ]
(ii) Book binding industry [ ]
(iii) Silk industry [ ]
(iv) Sugar industry [ ]
Answer:
(ii) Book binding industry [✓]

Question C.
Which of the following cities is not an IT centre?
(i) Old Delhi [ ]
(ii) New Delhi [ ]
(iii) Noida [ ]
(iv) Bangaluru [ ]
Answer:
(i) Old Delhi [✓]

Question D.
An amount of 2% of the profits have to be utilized for which purpose by industries?
(i) Income tax [ ]
(ii) Corporate social responsibility [ ]
(iii) Goods and service tax [ ]
(iv) Sales tax [ ]
Answer:
(ii) Corporate social responsibility [✓]

2. State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the incorrect Statements.

Question a.
Small and medium industries of a country are harmful to heavy industries.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Small and medium industries of a country are supportive to heavy industries.

Question b.
The level of industrialization is an indicator of the economic development of a country.
Answer:
Correct.

Question c.
The aim of the industrial development corporations is to decentralize industrialization.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
Corporate social responsibility is compulsory for every industries.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Corporate social responsibility is not compulsory for every industries.

3. Answer the following questions in three to four lines.

Question a.
What are the facilities provided by the government to industrial estates?
Answer:
The following are the facilities provided by the government to industrial estates:

1. Government gives concessional rates to the estates for electricity, water and taxes.
2. Estates are also provided piece of land at concessional rates by the government.

Question b.
Write in your words how industrial development impacts national development.
Answer:

1. Industrial development generates employment opportunities.
2. Due to increased employment level, people get jobs and per capita income increases. This further increases the standard of living of people.
3. Industrial development increases the value of the Gross National Product.
4. Industrial development increases the production of various goods. By exporting the surplus goods, country can earn foreign exchange. In this way, industrial development positively impacts national development.

Question c.
Give your opinion in short on the usefulness of corporate social responsibility.
Answer:
1. Corporate social responsibility is responsibility shown by the industrialists by working for the betterment of the society and for conserving environment.

2. Industries making annual profit of more than 5 crores are expected to spend 2% of their profits on some of the following acts:

• Providing educational or health facilities
• Establishing centres for mentally or physically challenged, widows, other needy people
• Developing a particular village or region
• Establishing environmental development centres, etc.

3. Corporate social responsibility increases the welfare of people and so proves beneficial to the society.

Question d.
Mention three features of small industries.
Answer:
Three features of small industries ! are as follows:

1. Small industries require comparatively less amount of inputs like capital, machinery and manpower.
2. Small industries require comparatively less premise for its day-to-day operations.
3. Generally, the goods produced in small industries have local/regional markets.

4. Write detailed answers to the following questions.

Question a.
Explain the factors affecting industrial development.
Answer:
The factors affecting industrial development are as follows:
1. Scientific and technological advancement, quantity and quality of labour, speedy transportation facilities, ready markets, availability of raw materials, government policies, political stability, etc. are factors that influence the industrial development of a nation.

2. For example, dense forest areas, mountainous areas, desert regions have extreme physiographical features. Transport facilities are found to be limited in such regions. Therefore, industrial development is found to be limited in such regions.

3. For example, agriculture is developed on a large scale in the fertile plains and the regions of moderate rainfall. Agriculture provides raw materials to many industries. Therefore, industrial development is found to be high in such regions.

Question b.
State the advantages of the Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation.
Answer:
The advantages of the Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation are as follows:

1. The state government of Maharashtra established Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation (MIDC) on 1st August, 1962.
2. Through MIDC, government has set  up industries in all districts of Maharashtra. MIDC supports the industrial growth and decentralization of industries.
3. Government gives concessional rates to the estates/industries for electricity, water and taxes. Estates/industries are also provided piece of land at concessional rates by the government.
4. MIDC has been playing an important role in generating employment opportunities in all the 36 districts of Maharashtra.
5. MIDC has been playing an important indirect role in increasing the per capita income and standards of living of people in Maharashtra.

Question c.
Explain the importance of I.T. industry.
Answer:
1. Information technology industry includes various components like searching for technical information, obtaining information, analyzing information, compiling information, graphic presentation of information and providing information.

2. Information technology industry provides various types of information through internet on computers, mobiles and other devices. This industry provides information at comparatively less cost, time and efforts.

3. The obtained information can be used for personal, economic, social, cultural, etc. development. India has made rapid progress in this industry.

Question d.
Considering India’s population, the development of industries is a good solution to the problem of unemployment. Explain.
Answer:
1. According to Census, 2011, the population of India was nearly 121 crores.

2. In India, majority of people are engaged in agriculture. In India, agriculture is seasonal in nature. Therefore, the unemployment rate is found to be high in India. Therefore, it is essential to develop industries in India.

3. By developing small industries, unemployed people will get employment opportunities. Small industries will help in providing jobs to less skilled, less educated people.

4. By developing medium and large industries in rural areas, the process of urbanisation can be boosted in villages. It will also restrict migration of people from villages to towns and cities. The employment level in a nation can be raised by developing industries. Thus, considering India’s population, the development of industries is a good solution to the problem of unemployment.

5. Prepare a flow chart for the following statements:

Question a.
The journey of clothes we use from the farm to ourselves.
Answer:

Question b.
Essential factors for the location of any one industry.
Answer:

6. Highlight the differences.

Question a.
Medium industries and heavy industries.
Answer:

Question b.
Agro-based industries and Information technology industries.
Answer:

Projects:

Collect information about any one project undertaken in your village/city under the Corporate Social Responsibility and present it in the class.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Industries Additional Important Questions and Answers

Mark ✓ in the box next to the right alternative:

Question A.
Which of the following is a medium industry?
(i) Sugar industry [ ]
(ii) Textile industry [ ]
(iii) Cement industry [ ]
(iv) Food processing industry [ ]
Answer:
(iv) Food processing industry [✓]

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
Localization of sugar industry is found near Jamshedpur.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Localization of iron and steel industry is found near Jamshedpur.

Question b.
India is predominantly manufacturing country.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: India is predominant¬ly agrarian country. ,

Question c.
Poverty decreases the speed of industrial growth.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What is manufacturing?
Answer:
The process of converting raw materials into finished goods is called manufacturing. ‘

Question b.
What is called factory?
Answer:
A place where raw materials are converted into finished goods is called a factory.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
Mention three features of large industries.
Answer:
Three features of large industries ; are as follows:

1. Large industries require huge amount of inputs like capital, machinery and manpower.
2. Large industries require huge premise for its day-to-day operations.
3. The goods produced in large industries have wide markets.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question a.
Give information about agro-based industries in India.
Answer:
1. India is predominantly agrarian country. Agriculture is the main occupation of majority of people in India.

2. In India, food crops, cash crops, fruits, flowers, vegetables, etc. are cultivated on a large scale. The agricultural produce provides raw material to many industries in India. For example, sugar cane is raw material for sugar industry. Thus many industries in India are agro-based industries. RIES 83

3. The industries processing agricultural products like fruit processing industries, food processing industries, dairy industries, etc. have also flourished in India.

5. Agro based industries play an important role in rural economy by generating employment opportunities in rural areas.

Highlight differences/Distinguish between the following:

Question a.
Small industries and Medium industries.
Answer:

Study the following map/figure/graph and answer the following questions:

Can you tell? 

Study the Figure and answer the following questions :

Question a.
Name the industry at Jamshedpur.
Answer:
The name of the industry at Jamshedpur is Iron and steel industry.

Question b.
Which raw material is required for this industry?
Answer:
Raw material required for this industry is iron, manganese, limestone, coal, etc.

Question c.
From which areas is this raw material obtained?
Answer:
This raw material is obtained from the areas of Jamshedpur, Kulaisila, Gurumahisani, Jgharia, etc.

Question d.
Why is coal used in this industry?
Answer:
Coal is used in this industry as fuel to heat iron to a certain temperature.

Question e.
State with reasons if it would be feasible to set up an iron and steel industry in your district.
Answer:
It would not be feasible to set up an iron and steel industry in our district as there are no reserves of iron ore, manganese, limestone, etc. found in our district.
(Note : Students, here it is assumed that you stay in Thane district. Write answer to j the above question as per the district in which you live.)

Give it a try.

Observe the picture and answer the following questions:

Question a.
In what context is this logo?
Answer:
This logo is about ‘Make in India’ programme.

Question b.
What will be the benefit of this programme?
Answer:
This programme will boost the production of various industries located all over India.

Question c.
What is correlation between this programme and employment?
Answer:
This programme will generate employment opportunities on a large scale.

Question d.
Which are the Navratna industries in India?
Answer:
The Navratna industries in India are as follows :

1. Gas Authority of India
2. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
3. Coal India Limited
4. Indian Oil Corporation Limite
5. National Thermal Power Corporation
6. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation, etc.

Question e.
Why do you think they have been accorded this status of Navratna?
Answer:
Navratna industries have been accorded the status of Navratna to function effectively to fulfill various needs of public.

Show the following details on the outline map of India with index:

Give it a try. (Textbook page 58)

Question a.
Important information technology centres are called IT hubs. Find out with the help of the internet in which cities such hubs have developed and mark them on an outline map of India.
Answer:
Important information technology centres known as IT hubs:

1. Bangaluru
2. Hyderabad
3. Chennai
4. Mumba
5. New Delhi
6. Pune
7. Kolkata
8. Ahmadabad.

Thought-Provoking Questions:

Let’s recall.

1. In Figure, the sequence of two industrial processes has been given. Arrange the pictures in proper sequence and write the sequential number in the boxes given below and answer the following questions:

Questions:

Question a.
Name the two industries.
Answer:
The two industries are:

1. Sugar industry
2. Textile industry.

Question b.
Name the raw material and the finished product of both these industries.
Answer:
The raw material and finished product in sugar industry are sugarcane and sugar respectively. Similarly the raw material and finished product in textile industry are cotton and cloth.

Question c.
How is the raw material converted into the finished product?
Answer:
The raw material is converted into the finished product by processing the raw material at various level.

Question d.
Why is it necessary to convert the raw material into finished goods?
Answer:
The raw material in its original form, cannot satisfy human wants directly. Therefore it is necessary to convert the raw material into finished goods.

2. Study the following figure showing the factors affecting the location of an industry. Taking into account the factors shown in the figure, note in different colours the favourable factors required for (1) Iron and steel (2) Textiles and (3) Sugar industry and answer the following questions:

Questions:

Question a.
For each industry, prepare a list of necessary factors.
Answer:
A list of necessary factors for each industry:

1. Iron and steel industry: Iron ore, manganese, coal, water, etc.
2. Textile industry: Cotton, transportation services, water, electricity, etc.
3. Sugar industry: Sugar cane, water, electricity, etc.

Question b.
For each industry give an explanation for the location suggested by you.
Answer:
1. Iron and steel industry: The raw material of iron and steel industry is bulky in nature. The transportation of this raw material is not feasible. Therefore, the location of iron and steel industry is suggested near mineral field.

2. Textile industry: The raw material of textile industry is cotton. Cotton is light in weight. Therefore, it can be transported easily. Therefore, the location of textile industry is suggested near highway and at a place where labours are available.

3. Sugar industry: The raw material of sugar industry is sugar cane. This raw material is comparatively less durable. Therefore, its transport at a distant location is difficult. Therefore, the location of sugar industry is suggested near the cultivation area.

Question c.
In a similar manner for which other industries can you decide a suitable location?
Answer:
In a similar manner, a suitable location can be decided for the industries like fruit processing industry, cement industry, etc.

Give it a try. 

Study the factors given below and state which industries could develop in these regions:

Question a.
Excellent transport facilities, skilled labours, uninterrupted supply of electricity,
Answer:
Textile industries, vehicle manufacturing industries, fertilizer manufacturing industries, etc. could develop in the regions of excellent transport facilities, skilled labours, uninterrupted supply of electricity.

Question b.
Limestone deposits, cheap labour, uninterrupted supply of water and electricity, increasing urbanisation,
Answer:
Mining industries could develop in the regions of limestone deposits, cheap labour, uninterrupted supply of water and electricity, increasing urbanisation.

Question c.
Fruit orchards, labour, excellent transportation facilities, unlimited water supply, uninterrupted electricity and ready market.
Answer:
Fruit processing industries could develop in the regions of fruit orchards, labour, excellent transportation facilities, unlimited water supply, uninterrupted electricity and ready market.

Use your brainpower! 

Question a.
Identify the industries shown in the pictures given on page 54 of the textbook and state their suitable locations.
Answer:
A. The industries shown in the pictures given on page 54 of the textbook are as follows:

1. Information technology industry
2. Fish canning industry
3. Milk industry.

B. The suitable locations for these industries are as follows:

1. Information technology industry: A place connected with transportation facilities
2. Fish canning industry: A place near coastal region
3. Milk industry: A place near the cattle rearing is practised.

Think about it. 

Examine pictures (A), (B) and (C) given on page 54 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Name the industry shown in picture (A).
Answer:
The name of the industry shown in picture (A) is Papad making industry.

Question b.
What is the difference between the industries shown in pictures (A) and (B)?
Answer:
(A) Industry requires comparatively less amount of capital, manpower, machinery and space. On the other hand, (B) industry requires comparatively more amount of capital, manpower, machinery and space.

Question c.
What is distinctive about the industry in picture (C)?
Answer:
The industry in picture (C) requires capital, manpower, machinery and space on a very large scale.

Question d.
Identify the industry shown in each picture.
Answer:
The industries shown are as follows:

1. Industry shown in picture (A) is Small industry
2. Industry shown in picture (B) is Medium industry
3. Industry shown in picture (C) is Large industry

Question d.
Name some more similar industries.
Answer:

1. Small industries: Cane products and handicraft industry, earthen pot making industry, etc.
2. Medium industry: Fruit processing industry, jaggery making industry, etc.
3. Large industry: Sugar manufacturing industry, fertilizer manufacturing industry, Automobile manufacturing industry, etc.

Give it a try. 

Question a.
Complete the following list with reference to industries:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

Industry	Type	Raw material
1. Manufacture of iron rods	Large industry	Iron, water, electricity, etc.
2. Manufacture of candle	Small industry	Wax, water, mould, etc.
3. Furniture manufacture	Medium industry	Wood, saw, polish, etc.
4. Paper manufacture	Medium industry	Pulp, water, colour, etc.
5. Manufacture of medicines	Large industry	Medicinal chemicals, water, etc.
6. Sugar manufacture	Large industry	Sugar cane, water, electricity, etc.
7. Jaggery manufacture	Medium industry	Sugar cane, water, etc.
8. Agarbatti manufacturing	Small industry	Bamboo sticks, incense powder, etc.
9. Manufacture of cotton cloth	Large industry	Cotton, water, colour, etc.
10. Manufacture of railway engines	Large industry	Iron, steel, glass, etc.
11. Papad making	Small industry	Pulse tour, salt, water, etc.

Can you tell? 

Question a.
Study the factors given in Figure 8.7 given on page 56 of the textbook and classify them as per their advantages and disadvantages in relation to industry:
Answer:
1. Advantages in relation to industry: Employment, Development of agriculture, Population, Stable prices of commodities, Skilled manpower, Improvement in the standard of living, Supply of labour, the Market, More land under irrigation, Development of transport facilities, Communication, Cultural development, Literacy, Boost to urbanization, Ample water, Uninterrupted power supply.

2. Disadvantages in relation to industry: Depletion of forest land, Pollution, Increasing land prices, Slums, Number of migrants, poverty.

Think about it.

Question a.
Talk about the interrelationship between human resource and industry.
Answer:

1. The optimum level and high quality of human resource increases the industrial growth.
2. Shortage and low quality of human resource decreases the industrial growth.

Use your brainpower!

Question a.
Which type of industries can stem the flow of people towards urban areas?
Answer:
Large industries can stem the flow of people towards urban areas.

Question b.
Where is it necessary to establish these industries?
Answer:
It is necessary to establish these industries in rural areas.

Think about it. 

Question
If you become an industrialist, which of the following would you do?:

1. Only make profits
2. Start a second industry from the earlier one as a supplementary industry
3. Will spend some amount for the society after the deduction of tax
4. Provide help for the creation of new industrialist.

Answer:
If become industrialist, will do the following:

1. Start a second industry from the earlier one as a supplementary industry
2. Will spend some amount for the society after the deduction of tax
3. Provide help for the creation of new industrialist.

Open-Ended Question:

Use your brainpower! 

Question 1.
Which industries could be profitably set up in your surrounding area/locality?
Answer:
As fruits like mangoes, jackfruits, cashew nuts are largely grown, the fruit processing industries could be profitably set up in our surrounding area/locality.
(Note: Students here it is assumed that you live in Sindhudurg district of Maharashtra.
Write answer to the above question as per the district in which you live.)

8th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Local Time and Standard Time Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Interior of the Earth Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Humidity and Clouds Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Structure of Ocean Floor Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Ocean Currents Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Land Use Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Population Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Industries Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Map Scale Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Field Visit Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Map Scale Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 9 Map Scale Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Map Scale Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 9 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Geography Chapter 9 Map Scale Textbook Questions and Answers

1. 

Map Scale Std 8 Question a.
Classify maps showing the following areas into small scale or large scale:
(1) Building (2) School (3) Country of India (4) Church (5) Mall (6) World map (7) Garden (8) Dispensary (9) Maharashtra state (10) The north sky at night.
Answer:
The classification of maps showing the given areas is as follows:
(A) Small scale maps:

1. Country of India
2. World map
3. Maharashtra state
4. The north sky at night.

(B) Large scale maps :

1. Building
2. School
3. Church
4. Mall
5. Garden!
6. Dispensary.

Map Scale Class 8 Geography Question b.
There are two maps with respective scales of 1cm = 100 m and 1cm = 100 km. Give well reasoned answer as to which of them would be a large scale map and which a small scale map. Recognize the types of maps.
Answer:
A. Out of the two maps with respective scales of 1 cm = 100 m and 1 cm = 100 km, a map with respective scale of 1 cm = 100 m would be a large scale map.
B. Reasons :

1. 1 metre is equal to 100 centimetres and 100 metre is equal to 10000 centimetres.
2. Thus, the value of the given verbal scale (1cm = 100 m) is 1 : 10000 in numerical terms (scale).
3. A map having a numerical scale of 1 : 10,000 or less than it is called large scale map. Therefore, 1cm = 100 m would be a large scale map.

C. Types of maps :

1. Maps of villages, church, agricultural fields, etc. are the large scale maps.
2. Maps of state, country, continent, world, etc. are the small scale maps.

2. Using a map of India from the atlas measure straight Line distance between the following cities and complete the table below.

Question a.

Answer:

Cities	Distance on a map	Actual distance
1. Mumbai to Bangaluru	0.98 cm	980 km
2. Vijaypura to Jaipur	2 cm	2000 km
3. Hyderabad to Surat	0.9 cm	900 km
4. Ujjain to Shimla	1.14 cm	1140 km
5. Patna to Raipur	0.75 cm	750 km
6. Delhi to Kolkata	1 cm	1000 km

3. 

Map Scale Std 8 Questions And Answers Question a.
The distance between two points A and B on the ground is 500 m. Show this distance on paper by a line of 2 cm. Express the map scale by any one method and mention it.
Answer:

Question b.
Convert verbal scale of 1cm = 53 km to a numerical scale.
Answer:

1. 1 kilometre is equal to 100000 centimetres. Therefore, 53 kilometres is equal to 5300000 centimetres.
2. Therefore, the verbal scale of 1 cm = 53 km can be converted to a numerical scale as – 1 : 5300000.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 9 Map Scale Question c.
Convert numerical scale of 1 : 10000000 to a verbal scale in the metric system.
Answer:

1. 100000 centimetres is equal to 1 kilometre. Thus, 10000000 centimetres is equal to 100 kilometres.
2. Therefore, numerical scale of 1 : 10000000 to a verbal scale in the metric system can be converted as 1 cm = 100 km.

4. Help them, using road and railway maps of the state of Maharashtra. Use the scale given in the maps.

Std 8 Geography Chapter 9 Map Scale Question a.
Ajay wants to arrange a family trip. Beed-Aurangabad-Dhule-Nasik Mumbal-Pune-Solapur-Beed. He wants to visit tourist places along this route. The cost of the vehicle is Rs 12/- per km. What would be the approximate cost of travel?

Map Scale Questions And Answers Question b.
Saloni has been asked to organize a trip by her teacher. She has selected Nagpur Chandrapur-Nanded-Washim-Akola Malkapur. What would be the total coverage in kilometers?

Geography Class 8 Chapter 9 Question c.
Vishawasrao is transporting goods in a vehicle from Alibag (district Raigad) to Naldurg (district – Osmanabad). How many km. will he be covering aproximately for a to and fro travel?

Projects:

Map Scale Questions Question a.
Measure the length and breadth of your school. Prepare a sketch according to scale. Show different parts of your school on the sketch.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Question b.
With the help of google maps find the distance between your village and your neighbouring village. Represent all the three methods of map scale on paper.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 9 Map Scale Additional Important Questions and Answers

Mark ✓ the box next to the right alternative:
(Note: The answers are given directly.)

Question a.
Which of the following factor’s map will be a large scale map?
(a) Temple [ ]
(b) State [ ]
(c) Nation [ ]
(d) Continent [ ]
Answer:
(a) Temple [✓]

Question b.
Which of the following scale indicates small scale map?
(a) 1 : 100 [ ]
(b) 1 : 1000 [ ]
(c) 1 : 10000 [ ]
(d) 1 : 100000 [ ]
Answer:
(d) 1 : 100000 [✓]

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What is verbal scale?
Answer:
A scale in which distances are expressed with the use of words indicating measurement is called verbal scale.

Question b.
What is numerical scale?
Answer:
A scale in which distances are expressed as ratio is called numerical scale.

Question c.
What is linear scale?
Answer:
A scale in which distances are expressed by drawing graphical scale is called linear scale.

Question d.
What is large scale map?
Answer:
A map in which a particular part of ground covers comparatively more area is called large scale map.

Question e.
What is small scale map?
Answer:
A map in which a particular part of ground covers comparatively less area is called small scale map.

Write short notes on:

Question a.
Verbal scale.
Answer:
1. A scale in which distances are expressed with the use of words indicating measurement is called verbal scale.
2. For example, 1cm = 100 km.

3. In verbal scale, the word indicating measurement on the left hand side indicates the distance between any two points on a s map. On the other hand, the word indicating 1 measurement on the right hand side! indicates the ground distance between those two points.

4. When the map is reduced or enlarged by taking its photo copy, the verbal scale on the original map does not change.

Question b.
Numerical scale.
Answer:

1. Numerical scale: A scale in which distances are expressed as ratio is called numerical scale.
2. For example, 1:10000. It is also known as representative fraction.
3. In numerical scale, the same measuring unit is used for the figures on the left hand side and right hand side. However, no words are used to indicate this measuring unit.
4. In numerical scale, number 1 on the left hand side indicates the distance between any two points on a map. On the other hand, the number 10000 on the right hand side indicates the ground distance between those two points.
5. When the map is reduced or enlarged by taking its photo copy, the numerical scale on the original map does not change.

Question c.
Linear scale.
Answer:

1. A scale in which distances are expressed by drawing graphical scale is called linear scale.
2. For example,
   
3. Compass or blade of grass is used if the ruler is not available for the measurement.
4. A thread is used for measuring the curved distances between two points shown in a map.
5. When the map is reduced or enlarged by taking its photo copy, the linear scale drawn on the original map changes as per the changing size of the map.

Highlight differences /Distinguish between the following:

Question a.
Large scale map and Small scale map.
Answer:

Question b.
Numerical scale and Linear scale.
Answer:

Study the following map /figure/graph and answer the following questions:

Study the Figure and answer the following questions:

Question a.
How much is the ground distance between Mumbai and Gondia?
Answer:
The ground distance between Mumbai and Gondia is approximately 810 kilometres.

Question b.
How much is the distance between Satara and Sangli on a map?
Answer:
The distance between Satara and Sangli on a map is approximately 1.5 centimetres.

Thought-Provoking Question:

Think about it. 

Question a.
What is the need to use map scale? Think about it and write a paragraph.
Answer:

1. If the map scale is not mentioned in a map, it will become difficult to know the ground (actual) distance between any two points shown in a map.
2. Map scale is important element of a map. It facilitates map reading.
3. If the map scale is mentioned in a map, it will become very easy to understand the ground (actual) distance between any two points shown in a map.

Open-Ended Question:

Question a.
Which of the following scale will you prefer to use: (a) Verbal scale (b) Numerical scale (c) Linear scale?
Answer:

1. Different measuring units are used in different countries of the world. Due to linguistic differences, particular verbal scale or linear scale may not be used with ease in all the countries.
2. Numerical scale is a global scale. It can be used universally. Therefore, we will prefer numerical scale.

8th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• Local Time and Standard Time Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Interior of the Earth Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Humidity and Clouds Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Structure of Ocean Floor Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Ocean Currents Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Land Use Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Population Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Industries Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Map Scale Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers
• Field Visit Class 8 Geography Questions And Answers