Class 6

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 Geography Chapter 1 Question Answer The Earth and the Graticule Maharashtra Board

Class 6 Geography Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule Question Answer Maharashtra Board

The Earth and the Graticule Class 6 Questions And Answers

A. Place a tick mark (✓) against the correct option:

Question 1.
What term is used for the imaginary east-west horizontal lines on the earth?
(i) Meridians
(ii) International Date Line
(iii) Parallels
Answer:
Parallels

Question 2.
What is the shape of the meridians?
(i) Circular
(ii) Semicircular
(iii) Points
Answer:
Semicircular

Question 3.
What do the parallels of latitude and meridians of longitude together form on the globe?
(i) Angular distance
(ii) Hemisphere
(iii) Graticule
Answer:
Graticule

Question 4.
How many parallels are there in the northern hemisphere?
(i) 90
(ii) 89
(iii) 91
Answer:
90

Question 5.
Which circles form the eastern and western hemispheres?
(i) 0° parallel and 180° meridian
(ii) 0° Prime Meridian and 180° meridian
(iii) North and South Polar circles
Answer:
0° Prime Meridian and 180° meridian

Question 6.
Which circle appears as a point on the globe?
(i) Equator
(ii) North/South Pole
(iii) Prime Meridian
Answer:
North/South Pole

Question 7.
How many places on the earth may be located on 45° N parallel?
(i) One
(ii) Many
(iii) Two
Answer:
Many

B. Observe a globe and examine the following statements. Correct the wrong ones:

Question 1.
Parallels of latitude lie parallel to the Prime Meridian,
Answer:
Wrong: Parallels of latitude lie parallel to the equator.

Question 2.
All parallels of latitude converge at the equator.
Answer:
Wrong: All meridians of longitude converge at the poles.

Question 3.
Parallels and meridians are imaginary lines.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
8° 4′ 65″ N is a north meridian.
Answer:
Wrong: 8° 4′ 65″ N is a north parallel.

Question 5.
Meridians are parallel to each other.
Answer:
Wrong: Latitudes are parallel to each other.

C. Find the correct graticule out of the following and put a tick mark against it.

Answer:
Figure (a) is correct.

D. Answer the following:

Question 1.
How will you express the latitude and longitude of the North Pole?
Answer:
The latitude of the North Pole would be 90°N. All the meridians of longitudes pass through the North Pole. So the North pole would be 0° longitude.

Question 2.
How much is the angular distance between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn?
Answer:
The angular distance between the tropic of Cancer and tropic of Capricorn is 23°30′ + 23°30′ = 47°

Question 3.
Using a globe, write down the names of the countries through which the equator passes.
Answer:
The countries through which the equator passes are Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Sao tome and Principe, Gabon, Republic of the Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia and Kiribati.

Question 4.
Write down the main uses of the graticule.
Answer:
Graticules help us to determine the locations on the earth. In the modern age, Geographical Information Systems, Global Positioning System, Google Maps, Wikimapia, Bhuvan of ISRO also make use of graticules.

E. Complete the following table:

Characteristics	Parallels of latitude	Meridians of longitude
Shape
	Size of each parallel is different
Distance		Distance between two meridians is larger on the equator and the same decreases towards the Poles.

Answer:

Characteristics	Parallels of latitude	Meridians of longitude
Shape	Circular	Semicircular
Size	Size of each parallel is different	Size of each meridian is same
Distance	Distance between two parallels is the same everywhere	Distance between two meridians is larger on the equator and the same decreases towards the Poles.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule Textbook Questions and Answers

Think a little!

Question 1.
A game of reading the meridians on the world map is going on. Shaheen and Sanket are asking each other to locate places on specific meridians and are making notes of the same. Shaheen asks Sanket to locate Wrangel Island on 180° meridians. Sanket could locate the island in the map but both are confused while making a note of it. They are puzzled whether to write 180° E or 180° W? What would be the precise answer? Please help them. Can we use a similar logic with reference to 0° meridian as well?
Answer:
The 0° and the 180° meridians lie opposite to each other and form a circle around the earth. This circle divides the earth in the eastern and western hemisphere. Shaheen and Sanket can write the Wrangled island to be loacted on 180° meridian.

Do it yourself!

Use figure 1.4 of the geography textbook:

In the upper portion of the circle, at the centre X, draw angles of 30°, V₁ X K₁ and V₂ X K₂; K₁ and K₂ being the points on the circle. Draw an ellipse joining K₁ and K₂.
In the lower half of the circle, mark angles of 60° and name the points on the circle as P₁ and P₂.

Question 1.
Draw an ellipse joining P₁ and P₂.
Answer:

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Is the distance between K₁ K₂ and P₁ P₂ the same?
Answer:
No, the distance between K₁ K₂ and P₁ P₂ are not the same.

Question 2.
Compare the distances XK₁ and XP₂. Are these distances the same or are they different?
Answer:
Yes, the distances are the same.

Question 3.
Now compare the ellipses you have drawn. Which is the larger ellipse? Why?
Answer:
The ellipse through K₁ and K₂ is larger than the ellipse through P₁ and P₂ . This is because the distance between K₁ K₂ is greater than the distance between P₁ P₂.

Observe the picture (fig) on page 5 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Let the line AM be 0°.
Draw the line MB. Measure the angle it makes with the line AM and write it near B. Note the semicircle that passes through B and joins the North and South Poles. Trace it.
Now join MC. Measure ∠AMC and write it next to C. Draw a semicircle that passes through ‘C’ and joins the North and South Poles.
Draw a line that passes through point A at 0°, and joins the North and South Poles.

Answer:
∠AMB = 70°
∠AMC = 85°

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
How many parallels and meridians can be drawn on a globe at an interval of 10°?
Answer:
19 parallels and 36 meridians can be drawn on a globe at an interval of 10°.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 1 The Earth and the Graticule Textbook Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
A miniature model of the earth is called a _____.(ball, globe, sphere)
Answer:
globe

Question 2.
The location of any place on the earth is determined with reference to the ______ of the earth. (poles, circle, centre)
Answer:
centre

Question 3.
The _______ is considered as 0° parallel.(equator, poles, circles)
Answer:
equator

Question 4.
The ______ bisects the earth into north and south parts. (poles, equator, circles)
Answer:
equator

Question 5.
One can draw _____ parallels on the earth at the interval of 1°. (90,181,360)
Answer:

Question 6.
The 0° meridian is known as the _____. (Central meridian, Equator, Prime Meridian)
Answer:
Prime Meridian

Question 7.
Each degree is divided into 60 ______.(minutes, hours, seconds)
Answer:
minutes

Question 8.
One can draw _____ meridians each at a distance of 1°. (90,181, 360)
Answer:
360

Question 9.
All meridians are _______ in size.(unequal, equal, uneven)
Answer:
equal

Question 10.
Exact location of a place on the earth can be located using ______.(equator, latitude and longitude, Prime Meridian)
Answer:
latitude and longitude

Question 11.
The distance between any two adjacent parallels is _______ on the surface of the earth. (111 km, 102 km, 44 km)
Answer:
111 km

Question 12.
The parallels and meridians on the globe form a net that is called a ______.(latitude,graticule, longitude)
Answer:
graticule

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Different parallels	Distance between meridians
(1) Poles	(a) 111 km
(2) Tropic of Cancer	(b) 102 km
(3) Polar Circles	(c) 0 km
(4) Equator	(d) 44 km
(5) Meridians	(e) 360
	(f) 1°

Answer:
1 – c
2 – b
3 – d
4 – a
5 – e

Place a tick mark (✓) against the correct option:

Question 1.
Which meridian is considered as the Prime Meridian?
(i) 0°
(ii) 80°
(iii) 90°
Answer:
0°

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What are parallels of latitudes?
Answer:
Ellipses that are created at some angular distance from the centre of the earth and are parallel to one another are called parallels of latitudes.

Question 2.
How many parallels are there in the northern hemisphere?
Answer:
There are 90 parallels in the northern hemisphere.

Question 3.
Which circle divides the earth in the eastern and western hemisphere?
Answer:
The Prime Meridian divides the earth in the eastern and western hemisphere.

Question 4.
What is the distance between any two adjacent parallels on the surface of the earth?
Answer:
The distance between any two adjacent parallels on the surface of the earth is 111 km.

Question 5.
What is a graticule?
Answer:
The parallels and meridians on the globe form a net that is called a graticule.

Question 6.
What is used to determine the location on the earth?
Answer:
Latitude and longitude is used to determine the location on the earth.

Write the full forms of:

Question 1.
GIS
Answer:
Geographical Information System

Question 2.
GPS
Answer:
Global Positioning System

Question 3.
IRNSS
Answer:
Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System

Question 4.
ISRO
Answer:
Indian Space Research Organisation

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Parallels and meridians are imaginary lines on the earth.
Answer:
Parallels and meridians can be drawn on a globe though not on the earth. That is why parallels and meridians are imaginary lines on the earth.

Question 2.
Geographers developed a miniature model of the earth in the form of a globe.
Answer:
Oceanic waters, uneven nature of the land, forest, innumerable islands of different sizes and buildings make it impossible to draw lines on the earth. In order to overcome this difficulty, geographers developed a miniature model of the earth in the form of a globe.

Question 3.
Latitude and longitudes are expressed into degree, minutes and seconds.
Answer:
To locate the places within the distance of 111 km exactly, the unit degree is divided into smaller units. Degrees are divided into minutes and seconds.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of the term ‘equator’.
Answer:

• The equator is considered as 0° parallel.
• It is the largest parallel and great circle.
• It bisects the earth into two equal hemispheres viz, the northern and southern hemisphere.

Question 2.
What are Poles of the earth?
Answer:
On the globe and also on the earth, at the north and south ends of the earth’s axis, Poles appear as points. These are called the North Pole and the South Pole respectively.

Observe a globe and examine the following statements. Correct the wrong ones:

Question 1.
Parallels of latitude lie parallel to the Prime Meridian,
Answer:
Wrong: Parallels of latitude lie parallel to the equator.

Question 2.
All parallels of latitude converge at the equator.
Answer:
Wrong: All meridians of longitude converge at the poles.

Question 3.
Parallels and meridians are imaginary lines.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
80° 4′ 65″ N is a north meridian.
Answer:
Wrong: 80° 4′ 65″ N is a north parallel.

Question 5.
Meridians are parallel to each other.
Answer:
Wrong: Latitudes are parallel to each other..

6th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• The Earth and the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Let us Use the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Weather and Climate Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Temperature Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Importance of Oceans Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Rocks and Rock Types Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Energy Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Occupations Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Rocks and Rock Types Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 Geography Chapter 7 Question Answer Rocks and Rock Types Maharashtra Board

Class 6 Geography Chapter 7 Rocks and Rock Types Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Rocks and Rock Types Class 6 Questions And Answers

B. Which of the following monuments are built in igneous rock?
(1) The Taj Mahal
(2) Fort Raigad
(3) The Red Fort
(4) Ellora Sculpture
Answer:
Ellora Sculpture

C. Find the differences between:

Question 1.
Igneous and sedimentary rocks
Answer:

Igneous rocks	Sedimentary rocks
(i) Igneous rocks are rocks formed by cooling and solidifying of molten materials. (ii) Igneous rocks are hard and homogeneous. (iii)  Examples: Basalt, pumice	(i) Rocks that are formed through deposition and compaction of sediments, especially rock particles transported by rivers, glaciers, wind, etc., are called sedimentary rocks. (ii) Sedimentary rocks are generally brittle and light weight. (iii) Examples: Sandstone, limestone, shale, corals

Question 2.
Sedimentary and metamorphic rocks
Answer:

Sedimentary rocks	Metamorphic rocks
(i) Rocks that are formed through deposition and compaction of sediments, especially rock particles transported by rivers, glaciers, wind, etc., are called sedimentary rocks.	(i) Rocks are formed due to the process of metamorphosis are called metamorphic rocks.
(ii) One may find fossils in sedimentary rocks. (iii) Sedimentary rocks are brittle and light weight. Examples: Shale, corals	(ii) Metamorphic rocks do not contain fossils. (iii) Metamorphic rocks are heavy and hard. Examples: Marble, slate

Question 3.
Igneous and metamorphic rocks
Answer:

igneous rocks	Metamorphic rocks
(i) Igneous rocks are rocks formed by cooling and solidifying of molten material. (ii) Igneous rocks are hard and homogeneous. (iii) Examples: Basalt, pumice	(i) Rocks formed due to the process of metamorphosis are called metamorphic rocks. (ii) Metamorphic rocks are heavy and hard. (iii) Examples: Gneiss, slate

D. Which types of rocks are predominantly found at the following locations?
(1) Central Maharashtra
(2) South Konkan
(3) Vidarbha
Answer:

Locations	Types of rocks
(1) Central Maharashtra	(a) Basalt
(2) South Konkan	(b) Laterite and granite
(3) Vidharbha	(c) Basalt, granite and sedimentary rocks

Activity:

Collect rock specimens from your surroundings and also during your travels. Classify them with the help of your teacher. Make a small museum of rocks for your school and place your specimens there. Keep a note of the place from where you have collected them. (See a specimen
display on page 65.)

Visit the historical sites in your surroundings, e.g., hill forts, masonry dams, land forts, bastions, wadas, temples, mosques, etc. and observe with the help of your teacher, the rock used for their construction.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 7 Rocks and Rock Types InText Questions and Answers

Do it yourself!

From the hills, river-beds or the land in your vicinity, collect rock specimens of different types, shapes, colours, etc. Observe the rock specimens and note down the following.

Question 1.
Place where the rock was found:
Answer:
Sahyadri mountain (Basalt)

Question 2.
Colours of the rock:
Answer:
Dark-black colour.

Question 3.
Spots on the rock and their colour:
Answer:
Dark grey to black.

Question 4.
Weight of the rock (estimated, heavy/light):
Answer:
Heavy.

Question 5.
Hardness of the rock, (hard/ brittle/medium):
Answer:
Hard.

Question 6.
Structure of the rock, (uniform grains/layers/ hollowness):
Answer:
Uniform grains.

Question 7.
Porosity of the rock, (porous/non-porous):
Answer:
Non-porous.

Observe the pictures given below and answer the questions:


Question 1.
What is the hill in ‘A’ made up of?
Answer:
Hill in ‘A’ is made up of soils and rocks.

Question 2.
What is being done in B’?
Answer:
In ’B’, the process of digging is shown. The land is dug and the rocks and soil that is extracted is loaded in to a truck.

Question 3.
What do we see in ‘C’?
Answer:
In ‘C’ we see pebbles and rocks of different types, shapes, colours, etc.

Question 4.
Is there any relationship between the three things shown above?
Answer:
Yes, these are all pictures of naturally occurring processes on land leading to rock and soil formation.

Question 5.
For what purpose do we use the things shown in A and C?
Answer:
We use things shown in A and C for construction purposes; coloured pebbles are used for decoration.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
What rock was used for building the forts in Maharashtra? Why?
Answer:
Igneous rocks were used for building the forts in Maharashtra as they are hard, homogeneous and heavy.

Question 2.
Find the meaning of this line from a famous Marathi poem:
राकट देशा, कणखर देशा. दगडांच्या देशा
Answer:
The poet through this line conveys the message that our land is made up of hard rocks. We are a powerful entity and nothing can pose a threat to our Motherland. We can understand all odds.

Similarly like our terrains which are strong, the people of our country are also strong and invincible, incapable of being conquered.
We have imbibed the value of resilience and courage and the ability to withstand all challenges from our terrain.

What will you do?

Ajit is interested in sculpting. He wants to prepare a sculpture of Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam.
He cannot decide which rock he should use for this, igneous, sedimentary or metamorphic? What will be your advice?
Answer:
I would advise him to use a metamorphic rock like marble. Due to the translucent nature of the marble, it will give the sculpture a glow. Properties like softness and easy availability makes the metamorphic rock, marble an ideal choice. These rocks are heavy and hard. Hence, they are ideal for making sculptures.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 7 Rocks and Rock Types Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the bracket:

Question 1.
Rocks are a mixture of different minerals formed by natural processes in the _____. (lithosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere)
Answer:
lithosphere

Question 2.
There are ______ types of rocks according to their formation process. (four, three, five)
Answer:
three

Question 3.
When the molten material, known as magma within the crust and lava on the surface, cools down, it solidifies giving rise to ____ rocks. (Sedimentary, Igneous, Metamorphic)
Answer:
Igneous

Question 4.
We get fossils in ______ rocks. (Sedimentary, Igneous, Metamorphic)
Answer:
Sedimentary

Question 5.
The Maharashtra plateau and the Sahyadris are formed out of _______ rocks. (Sedimentary, Igneous, Metamorphic)
Answer:
Igneous

Question 6.
______ is a major example of igneous rocks. (Shale, Basalt, Corals)
Answer:
Basalt

Question 7.
Water percolating through rocks dissolves the soluble minerals leading to ________ of rocks, (weathering, compaction, increased porosity)
Answer:
weathering

Question 8.
_______ is a sedimentary rock. (Basalt, Sandstone, Pumice)
Answer:
Sandstone

Question 9.
The study of _______ provide information about life in that period. (metamorphosedrocks, Igneous rocks, fossils)
Answer:
fossils

Question 10.
_______ gets metamorphosed when it undergoes heavy pressure, and intense heat. (Coal,,Peat, Silica)
Answer:
Coal

Question 11.
_______ rock is found in the eastern parts and in South Konkap. (Granite,.Marble,Pumice)
Answer:
Granite

Question 12.
________ activity is concentrated in South Konkan and eastern Maharashtra. (Fishing, Mining, Construction)
Answer:
Mining

Question 13.
_____ is referred to as primary rocks. (Igneous rock, Sedimentary rock, Metamorphic rocks)
Answer:
Igneous rock

Question 14.
________ is a major example of igneous rock. (Basalt, Pumice, Sedimentary)
Answer:
Basalt

Question 15.
______ rocks are ‘formed due to compaction of material. (Metamorphic, Sedimentary, Igneous)
Answer:
Sedimentary

Question 16.
_________ rocks are heavy and hard. (Sedimentary, Metamorphic, Igneous)
Answer:
Metamorphic

Question 17.
When coal gets metamorphosed into ______ , its price increases. (garnet, diamond, opal)
Answer:
diamond

Question 18.
______ is found in South Konkan Maharashtra. (Granite, Laterite, Basalt)
Answer:
Laterite

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Igneous rocks	(a) brittle and light weight
(2) Sedimentary rocks	(b) heavy and hard
(3) Metamorphic rocks	(c) hard and homogeneous

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

Complete the tabular form:

Original Rock	Metamorphosed Rock
Granite	_________
Basalt	__________
_________	Marble
Coal	___________
Sand Stone	__________
_________	Slate

Answer:

Original Rock	Metamorphosed Rock
Granite	Gneiss
Basalt	Amphibolite
Limestone	Marble
Coal	Diamond
Sand Stone	Quartizte
Shale	Slate

Name the following:

Question 1.
Two major rock-forming minerals:
Answer:
Silica, aluminium.

Question 2.
Hard and homogeneous rocks:
Answer:
Igneous rocks.

Question 3.
Two sedimentary rocks:
Answer:
Shale, corals.

Question 4.
Rocks which does not contain fossils:
Answer:
Metamorphic and Igneous rock

Question 5.
One use of diamonds:
Answer:
Ornament making.

Question 6.
One activity which leads to increased pressure and heat in that region:
Answer:
Volcanic eruption.

Question 7.
Rock found in South Konkan:
Answer:
Laterite.

Question 8.
Rocks that formed by metamorphosis:
Answer:
Metamorphic rocks.

Question 9.
Two metamorphosised rocks:
Answer:
Marble, Slate.

Question 10.
Two igneous rocks:
Answer:
Granite and Basalt.

State whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
The properties of rocks depend on their constituent minerals and their proportion alone.
Answer:
False.

Question 2.
Silica is a rock forming mineral.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
One may find fossils in Igneous rocks.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Weathering of rocks leads to its disintegration or decomposition.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Sedimentary rocks are hard and homogeneous.
Answer:
False

Question 6.
Maharashtra has large reserves of mineral wealth.
Answer:
False

Question 7.
The Maharashtra plateau and the Sahyadris are formed out of igneous rocks.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Most of the hill forts in Maharashtra do not have lakes or elephant yards.
Answer:
False

Question 9.
One can easily see layers in the sedimentary rocks.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Sedimentary rocks are generally heavy weight.
Answer:
False

Question 11.
Metamorphic rocks do not contain fossils.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
Metamorphic rocks are brittle and lightweight.
Answer:
false

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
What are rocks?
Answer:
Rocks are a mixture of different minerals formed by natural processes in the lithosphere. Rocks are found on land surface and also below it.

Question 2.
What do the properties of rocks depend on?
Answer:
The properties of rocks depend on the constituent minerals and their proportion as well as on the formation process. Silica, aluminium, magnesium and iron are the major rock-forming minerals.

Question 3.
What are the three types of rocks?
Answer:
Igneous rocks, Sedimentary rocks and Metamorphic rocks are the three types of rocks.

Question 4.
What are Igneous Rocks?
Answer:
When the molten material, known as magma within the crust and lava on the surface cools down, it solidifies giving rise to igneous rocks.

Question 5.
What information does the study of fossils provide?
Answer:
Study of fossils provide information about the life in the olden period.

Question 6.
Write any two characteristics of metamorphic rocks.
Answer:
Metamorphic rocks are heavy and hard.

Question 7.
When does coal get metamorphosed?
Answer:
When coal undergoes heavy pressure and intense heat it gets metamorphosed.

Question 8.
When does the price of coal increase?
Answer:
The price of coal increases when it gets metamorphosed into diamonds.

Question 9.
What is referred to as primary rocks?
Answer:
Rocks are formed out of the material from the interior of the earth, these are referred to as primary rocks.

Question 10.
What is called fossils?
Answer:
The buried remains of dead animals or plants embedded in the rocks and preserved petrified form are called fossils.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Igneous rocks are also referred to as primary rocks.
Answer:
As Igneous rocks are formed out of the material from the interior of the earth, these rocks are also referred to as primary rocks.

Question 2.
Most of the hill forts in Maharashtra have lakes or elephant yards.
Answer:
(i) Hillforts in Maharashtra are old quarry sites from which stone or other materials have been extracted for the construction of the fort and other buildings.

(ii) In the pits and dugouts left behind after rock extraction, water was allowed to accumulate and these lakes, banks, etc., were created.

(iii) Therefore, most of the hill forts in Maharashtra have lakes or elephant yards.

Question 3.
Weathering of rocks occurs.
Answer:

• Due to continuous variations in temperature, rocks develop cracks.
• Similarly, the water percolating through rocks dissolves the soluble minerals.
• This leads to the weathering of rocks.

Question 4.
One may find fossils in sedimentary rocks.
Answer:

• One can easily see layers in sedimentary rocks.
• While layers are getting deposited, the remains of the dead animals or plants get buried in these layers at times.
• Therefore, one may find fossils in sedimentary rocks.

Question 5.
Changes in nature, as well as the chemical composition of the original rocks, is witnessed.
Answer:

• Volcanic activity and other earth movements constantly take place on the earth.
• While these are occurring, the igneous and sedimentary rocks in that region are subjected to tremendous pressure and heat.
• This leads to changes in nature as well as the chemical composition of the original rocks.

Question 6.
Maharashtra does not have a large reserve of mineral wealth.
Answer:
Maharashtra does not have a large reserve of mineral wealth due to the thick and extensive layers of basalt rocks.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What leads to the development of sedimentary rocks?
Answer:

• Due to continuous variations in the temperature, rocks develop cracks.
• Similarly, the water percolating through rocks dissolves the soluble minerals leading to the weathering of rocks.
• They get disintegrated or decomposed i.e. reduced to pieces.
• These rock particles get transported by rivers, glaciers, wind, etc. towards low lying area and are deposited there.
• One after the other, layers of sediments gets deposited in this way.
• The upper layers exert heavy pressure on the lower layers.
• This leads to compaction of materials and development of sedimentary rocks.

Question 2.
How are Metamorphic rocks formed?
Answer:

• Volcanic activity and other earth movements | constantly take place on the earth.
• While these are occurring, the igneous or sedimentary rocks in that region are subjected to tremendous pressure and heat.
• This leads to changes in the nature as well as the chemical composition of original rocks.
• The crystals in the original rock gets recrystalized, the rock gets metamorphosed.
• The rocks formed through such a process are ! called Metamorphic rocks.

Question 3.
How is sand that flows in a river formed? Collect some information about where the sand comes from.
Answer:

• Moving streams are so powerful that it can wear away soil rocks.
• Rocks on higher land get eroded due to the strong current of the streams and they in turn get carried away into the sea.
• Silt too is brought down from the mountain top from where the streams originate.
• Most of the sand in the river is silt carried by the streams and the weather material from inland rocks transported by the streams.
• The moving of soil and rock with the stream, termed as erosion can be summed up as the cause of sand formation in a river.

6th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• The Earth and the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Let us Use the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Weather and Climate Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Temperature Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Importance of Oceans Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Rocks and Rock Types Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Energy Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Occupations Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 Geography Chapter 6 Question Answer Importance of Oceans Maharashtra Board

Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Importance of Oceans Class 6 Questions And Answers

A. Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Shell, fish, crab, ship
Answer:
ship

Question 2.
Arabian Sea, Mediterranean Sea, Dead Sea, Caspian Sea
Answer:
Dead Sea

Question 3.
Sri Lanka, India, Norway, Peru
Answer:
Sri Lanka

Question 4.
Southern Ocean, Indian Ocean, Pacific Ocean, Bay of Bengal
Answer:
Bay of Bengal

Question 5.
Natural gas, salt, gold, manganese
Answer:
Natural gas

B. Write the answers:

Question 1.
Which items does man get from the oceans?
Answer:
Salt, fish, shells and other products, minerals like iron, lead, cobalt, sodium, manganese, chromium, zinc, mineral oil and natural gas are the items man gets from oceans.

Question 2.
Why It is economic to carry out transport by water ways.
Answer:

• Waterways is a cost-effective, fuel efficient and relatively more environment friendly means of transportation.
• Large scale transport of goods can be carried out with the help of ships, trawlers, boats, etc. at a low cost.
• So it is economic to carry out transport by waterway.

Question 3.
Why There is a difference in the climate of regions close to the oceans and regions far away from the oceans.
Answer:
(i) The oceans influence the climatic condition of a place. Coastal areas are cooler and wetter than regions away from the ocean.

(ii) There is a difference in the maximum and minimum temperature with the difference being less in coastal region (nearness to the sea) while it is more in the region far away from the sea (continentality).

(iii) The temperature in coastal areas remains equable due to the mixing of vapour released through evaporation of water from these water bodies into air. This vapour absorbs and stores the heat released from the land.

Question 4.
Which continents are located along the coast of the Pacific Ocean?
Answer:
Asia, Australia, North America and South America are the continents located along the coast of the Pacific Ocean.

Activity:

Colour the different oceans on an outline map of the world and prepare an index for the map. (See inside front cover, figure B.)

Project:

Group work: Make five groups. Each group should collect some information and pictures of one ocean. With the help of the information collected, each group should make a poster and make presentation.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans InText Questions and Answers

Think a little!

Question 1.
Where does the water flowing through the rivers go in the end?
Answer:
The water flowing through the rivers goes into the oceans in the end.

Question 2.
Are there volcanic eruptions in the seas?
Answer:
Yes, volcanic eruptions take place in the seas.

Question 3.
What would have happened if man had not discovered sea routes?
Answer:

• If there were no sea routes, we would lose out on the most economic option of transportation.
• Large scale transport of goods would become inconvenient.
• International trade too would suffer.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Where did all this water on the earth come from?
Answer:
While some scientists believe that water was created due to the impact of comets there are others who believe that Earth’s waters have existed since the birth of planet earth.

Find out:

Question 1.
Collect information about how a natural pearl is formed.
Answer:

• Natural pearls form when an irritant- usually a parasite and not the proverbial grain of sand – works its way into an oyster, mussel, or clam.
• As a defense mechanism, a fluid is used to coat the irritant.
• Layer upon layer of this coating called ‘nacre’ is deposited until a pearl is formed.

Question 2.
Which oceanic organism develops in it?
Answer:
The oceanic organism oyster develops in it.

Question 3.
In which sea is it found in India?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea.

What will you do?

Question 1.
Different marine animals like the blue whale, turtle, starfish, etc. appear before you in your dream and complain to you. They say, “You humans are not allowing us to live properly. You throw the waste and chemicals that you do not want into our house. The youngsters in our house are falling ill due to this. Some are getting killed. You must think about this situation and remove the pollution from the seas.” Now tell what you will do.
Answer:
“Environmental problems begin with people as the cause and end with people as the victims.” Different ways to remove pollution from sea are:

• Creating awareness amongst people.
• Organising a clean-up operation.
• Insisting that government take steps to prevent marine pollution caused due to waste disposal.
• Following the principle of recycling waste and proper treatment of sewage before its disposal into water bodies.
• Generating a sense of responsibility amongst the citizens.

Can you do it?

Question 1.
Sameer and Sania are playing a game of showing the waterways on a map of the world. Their routes are going in opposite directions. One of the following the eastern route while the other is making a route that takes to the west.

From Mumbai port some goods are to be taken to London in UK. On a map of the world, show at least two such routes with a pencil.
Write down the names of the ports of different nations that fall on the route followed by each.

Ports on the route followed by Sameer:

Answer:

• JNPT – India
• Nish tun – Yemen
• Salal – Oman
• Port of Berbera – Somalia
• Port of A1 Qusayr – Egypt
• Port of Said – Egypt Suez
• port – Egypt
• Port of Tenes – Algeria
• Port of Tunis – Tunisia
• Port of Bone facia – France
• Port of Aguilas – Spain
• Port of Adra – Spain
• Port of Gibraltar – Gibraltar
• Port of Sines – Portugal
• Swange Pier – UK
• Whitstable harbour – UK
• Purfleet Thames Terminal – UK
• Port of London – UK

Ports on the route followed by Sania:

• Port of Mergui – Myanmar
• Port of Ramong – Thailand
• Port of Krueng Raya – Indonesia, etc.

Question 2.
Which of the routes you feel is shorter? That of Sameer’s or Sania’s?
Answer:
Sameer’s route is shorter.

Question 3.
Which oceans does one have to pass through if one follows Sameer’s route or Sania’s route?
Answer:
If one follows Sameer’s route one has to pass through the Indian Ocean and North Atlantic Ocean. If Sania’s route is taken she has to pass through the Pacific and North Atlantic Ocean.

Question 4.
What are Panama and Suez? For what purpose were they constructed?
Answer:

• Panama and Suez are the canals in the sea built for commercial purpose.
• It helped in saving time, money and energy and gave a fillip to international trade due to the shorter distance and easy accessibility.

Question 5.
Have they been used in Sameer’s and Sania’s routes?
Answer:
Yes, Suez Canal is used in Sameer’s route while Panama Canal is used in Sania’s route.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill the blanks choosing the correct alternatives from the brackets:

Question 1.
The ______ includes all the water bodies like oceans, seas, rivers and their tributaries, lakes, reservoirs and also ground water that exist on the earth.
(lithosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere)
Answer:
hydrosphere

Question 2.
Total global water 97.7% is contained in ______ (lakes, oceans, seas)
Answer:
oceans

Question 3.
The ocean with an area 166,240,977 sq. km is the _______ ocean. (Indian, Atlantic, Pacific)
Answer:
Pacific

Question 4.
All rivers flowing from mountains or hilly areas finally meet in the ________.(lakes, seas, oceans)
Answer:
oceans

Question 5.
Salinity is expressed in terms of ______.(mils, ml, gms)
Answer:
mils

Question 6.
The average salinity of oceanic water is _______.(80%, 332%, 35%)
Answer:
35%

Question 7.
The salinity of the Dead Sea is _____.(332 %, 35%, 60%)
Answer:
332 %

Question 8.
About ________ of the surface of the earth is occupied by water. (90%, 95%, 70.8%)
Answer:
70.8%

Question 9.
Salt as a substance is obtained by constructing ______. (sea bed, salt pan, river bunds)
Answer:
salt pan

Question 10.
________ is conducted on a much higher scale as compared to the other modes of transport. (Water transport, Air transport, Road transport)
Answer:
Water transport

Question 11.
Pollution of _________ water is caused due to oil spills. (river, lake, oceanic)
Answer:
oceanic

Question 12.
Winds blowing due to pressure difference in the belts is called ______. (planetary winds, oceanic winds, minerals)
Answer:
planetary winds

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Oceans	The area in sq. km
(1) Pacific	(a) 20,327,000
(2) Atlantic	(b) 73,426,163
(3) Indian	(c) 166,240,977
(4) Southern	(d) 13,224,479
(5) the Arctic	(e) 86,557,402

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – b
4 – a
5 – d

Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Pearls, corals, diamonds, medicinal plants
Answer:
diamonds

Question 2.
Spain, Norway, Japan, India
Answer:
India

Question 3.
Blue whale, sea turtles, seerfish, dolphins
Answer:
seerfish

Name the following:

Question 1.
Water bodies which are a part of the . hydrosphere.
Answer:
Oceans, seas, rivers and their tributaries, lakes, reservoirs, ground water.
Question 2.
Percentage of global waters contained in oceans.
Answer:
97.7%

Question 3.
Two aquatic animals found in the ocean.
Answer:

• Microscopic planktons
• Huge whales

Question 5.
Places where volcanic eruptions occur.
Answer:

• Land
• Ocean

Question 6.
Two minerals obtained from the sea.
Answer:

• Phosphates
• Sulphates

Question 7.
Two uses of marine animals.
Answer:

• Production of fertilisers
• Production of pharmaceuticals

Question 8.
Two countries with coastline which largely depends on the sea for their livelihood.
Answer:

• Seychelles
• Mauritius

Question 9.
The controller of global temperature and source of rains.
Answer:
Oceans.

Question 10.
The beginning and end of the water cycle takes place here.
Answer:
Oceans.

Question 11.
Two minerals obtained from the ocean floor.
Answer:

• Cobalt
• Sodium

Question 12.
Precious items obtained from the seas.
Answer:

• Pearls
• Corals

Question 13.
Mode of transport used for large scale transportation of goods.
Answer:

• Ships
• Trawlers

Question 14.
Two actions by man which has lead to large scale pollution in oceanic waters.
Answer:

• Oil spills
• Exploitative fishing

Answer the following in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What happens when aquatic animals die?
Answer:
When aquatic animals die, their remains accumulate in the oceans.

Question 2.
What enters the ocean with the rain water?
Answer:
Sediments from eroded lands, trees and bushes flowing with water, dead remains, etc. enter the ocean with the river water.

Question 3.
What happens when the dead remains in the ocean decompose?
Answer:
When the dead remains in the oceans decompose it releases various minerals and salts in the ocean water.

Question 4.
Where do we find maximum salinity?
Answer:
The Dead Sea is known to have the maximum salinity of 332%.

Question 5.
How is salt obtained?
Answer:
Salt as a substance is obtained by constructing salt pans in the coastal areas.

Question 6.
Which is one of the ancient occupations of human beings and what is the major purpose of his activity?
Answer:
Fishing is one of the ancient occupation and the major purpose of this activity is to obtain food.

Question 7.
How does the earth get rainfall?
Answer:
The oceans have a vast expanse, therefore huge amounts of vapour get created and this process goes on continuously and from this vapour the earth gets rainfall.

Question 8.
How is pollution caused in oceanic water?
Answer:
In order to fulfill his requirements, man undertakes many activities that lead to the production of huge amounts of different types of waste materials which cause pollution.

Question 9.
Write anyone cause of pollution of oceanic waters.
Answer:
Cutting of mangroves forests in coastal areas is one of the main cause of pollution in oceanic waters.

Question 10.
How does oceanic pollution affect the aquatic animals?
Answer:
Due to oceanic pollution many aquatic animals are under the threat of being extinct. For example, the blue whale, some types of sea turtles, dolphins, etc.

Question 11.
Which items does man get from the oceans?
Answer:
Salt, fish, shells and other products, minerals like iron, lead, cobalt, sodium, manganese, chromium, zinc, mineral oil and natural gas are the items man gets from oceans.

Question 12.
Which continents are located along the coast of the Pacific Ocean?
Answer:
Asia, Australia, North America and South America are the continents located along the coast of the Pacific Ocean.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
The ocean water is saltier than drinking water.
Answer:

(i) In drinking water, the proportion of salts is quite low. Water from oceans and seas has a greater amount of salt. Hence it tastes salty.

(ii) Volcanic eruptions leads to increase in the level of salts and minerals in ocean water.

(iii) Volcanic eruptions takes place in the oceans. During volcanic eruptions different minerals, ashes, salts and gases are added to the water. This increases the level of salts and minerals in ocean water.

(iv) Due to continuous evaporation of oceanic water, the proportion of salt increase.

Question 2.
The temperature in coastal areas remains equable.
Answer:

(i) In regions close to the oceans, seas or large reservoirs, there is not much of a difference in the temperature throughout the day.

(ii) The main reason for this is the mixing of vapour released through evaporation of water from these water bodies into air.

(iii) This vapour in the air absorbs and stores the heat released from the land.

(iv) Hence, the temperature in coastal regions remain equable.

Question 3.
It is economic to carry out transport by water ways.
Answer:

• Waterways is a cost-effective, fuel efficient and relatively more environment friendly means of transportation.
• Large scale transport of goods can be carried out with the help of ships, trawlers, boats, etc. at a low cost.
• So it is economic to carry out transport by waterway.

Question 4.
There is a difference in the climate of regions close to the oceans and regions far away from the oceans.
Answer:
(i) The oceans influence the climatic condition of a place. Coastal areas are cooler and wetter than regions away from the ocean.

(ii) There is a difference in the maximum and minimum temperature with the difference being less in coastal region (nearness to the sea) while it is more in the region far away from the sea (continentality).

(iii) The temperature in coastal areas remains equable due to the mixing of vapour released through evaporation of water from these water bodies into air. This vapour absorbs and stores the heat released from the land.

Question 5.
Oceans act as the controller of global temperature.
Answer:

(i) Winds move the oceanic water in the form of currents.

(ii) Ocean currents move from the equatorial region to polar regions and from polar regions to the equatorial region.

(iii) This leads to the redistribution of heat on the earth.

(iv) The cold currents moving towards the equatorial region making the temperature of coastal areas in that zone milder whereas the warm currents coming in the colder region cause the temperature in coastal areas to rise. Hence, the oceans act as the controller of global temperature.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What are planetary winds?
Answer:

• Equatorial regions receives perpendicular sunrays.
• As a result these areas get more heat whereas the polar regions receive highly slant rays.
• This differential heating creates imbalance in the temperature of air in different parts leading to formation of belts of high and low pressure on earth.
• Winds blow1 due to the pressure differences in these belts. These winds are called Planetary Winds.

Question 2.
Write in brief about oceanic transport.
Answer:

• Oceans have provided us the most economic option of transportation.
• Large scale transportation of goods is carried out with the help of ships, trawlers, boats, etc.
• International trade is carried out on a large scale using waterways.
• Countries like Spain, Norway, Japan have a good coastline due to which goods are transported by ocean routes, making these countries important.

Question 3.
How do ocean currents aid water transport?
Answer:

• Ocean currents are quite important in water transport.
• As far as possible water transport is carried out along ocean currents.
• They accelerate the speed of the ships and also save fuel to a considerable extent.

Question 4.
List the causes that lead to large scale pollution of oceanic water.
Answer:
The causes that lead to large scale pollution of oceanic water are:

• Oil spills.
• Releasing the waste produced in the coastal cities into the seas.
• Materials thrown out from ships.
• Exploitative fishing.
• Cutting of mangrove forests in coastal areas.
• Disasters caused by the water mines.
• Sewage released by industries and cities.
• Excavation carried out in the seas.

Do it yourself!

Question 1.
Calculate the difference between the mean maximum and minimum temperature and write in the last column

Place	Country	Mean Max. Temp. °C	Mean Min. Temp. °C	Range of Temperature
Beijing	China	18.4	08.4	10
Istanbul	Turkey	18.0	10.0	08		_______
Madrid	Spain	19.0	09.0	10
New York66	United States	16.3	08.3	08		________
Denver	United States	16.2	02.2	14
Kabul	Afghanistan	14.7	05.2	09.5		________
Baghdad	Iraq	30.4	14.7	15.7

Question 2.
Highlight the rows for the places having a range of temperatures over 10°C with red colour, other rows in blue colour (Refer the above table)
Question 3.
Find the locations of these places from an atlas. (Students activity)
Question 4.
Which places are closer to the oceans? Tell whether the range of temperature at these
places is l ess or more?
Answer:
Istanbul and New York are closer to the oceans. These places which are closer to the oceans have lesser range of temperature.

Question 5.
What might be the main reason leading to differences in the temperature range in different places?
Answer:
The main reason leading to differences in temperature range in different places is because of the location of the place on the planet earth. Other factors like latitude, altitude, atmosphere, ocean currents, planetary winds etc. too have their impact.

Question 6.
In which thermal zone are all these places located?
Answer:
All these places are located in the temperate thermal zone.

Question 7.
Which places are fai away from the oceans?
Do these places have a greater or smaller temperature range?
Answer:
Istanbul, Denver, Kabul and Baghdad are far away from the ocean as these places have a greater temperature range.

Question 8.
Mention the places having the smallest and greatest temperature ranges.
Answer:
Istanbul and New York have the smallest temperature range while Baghdad has the greatest temperature range.

Question 9.
Draw a graph for the above data. Use a proper colour scheme.
Answer:

6th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• The Earth and the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Let us Use the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Weather and Climate Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Temperature Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Importance of Oceans Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Rocks and Rock Types Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Energy Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Occupations Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Human Occupations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 Geography Chapter 10 Question Answer Human Occupations Maharashtra Board

Class 6 Geography Chapter 10 Human Occupations Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Human Occupations Class 6 Questions And Answers

A. Select the correct option:

Question 1.
Serving as a ______ is a tertiary type of occupation.(bus conductor, veterinary doctor, brick kiln worker)
Answer:
bus conductor

Question 2.
In the tropical areas, we mainly see ________ occupations. (primary; secondary, tertiary)
Answer:
primary

Question 3.
Amol’s Granny sells papads and pickles. This is a _______ occupation. (primary, secondary, tertiary)
Answer:
secondary

B. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The type of occupation determines a person’s
income.
Answer:
(i) Occupation is a job, a person’s role in society wherein a regular activity is carried out for income.

(ii) Certain occupations bring greater economic benefits to the society and the nation at large while certain occupations bring relatively less economic benefits.

(iii) Similarly some occupations require higher level of knowledge and skill while some can be carried out with little or no skill or expertise. Person’s income is proportionate to the economic benefit his occupation brings with it and the land of his knowledge and skill. So the type of occupation determines a person’s income.

Question 2.
Primary occupations are associated with developing countries while tertiary, with developed countries.
Answer:
(i) Countries which are developing have low income as they are in a state of development and their main source of income comes from production carried out in primary sector.

(ii) Developed countries are rich with high income and so they practice tertiary occupation. They have enough money to invest in business which creates tertiary occupations which requires huge investment.

Question 3.
Quaternary occupations are not commonly seen.
Answer:
Quaternary occupations are occupations which require special knowledge, skills and expertise. This sectorevolves in well-developed countries and requires skilled workforce apart from sufficient money to invest in fields like IT, research and development, quality testing, etc.

Activity:

• Visit a secondary occupation in your area.
• Gather information related to that occupation
• using the following points and note it down.
• Name of the occupation
• Raw material used
• Source of raw material
• Finished product
• Market for finished product
• Tertiary occupations required in it.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 10 Human Occupations InText Questions and Answers

Look at the figure and answer the following questions:




Question 1.
What are the cows and buffaloes in picture A doing?
Answer:
The animals, cows and buffaloes are grazing in the pasture, i.e. land covered with grass and other low plants.

Question 2.
What is being obtained in picture B?
Answer:
Milk is being obtained in picture B.

Question 3.
What is happening at the Milk Collection Centre in picture C?
Answer:
Milk is being filled for storage and sold at the milk collection centre.

Question 4.
In picture D, what is being transported? Where could the tanker be going?
Answer:
Milk is being transported to the milk processing centre. The tanker is on the truck

Question 5.
Which products are seen in picture E? From what have these products been made?
Answer:
Curd, ghee, butter, cheese and shrikhand are the products seen in picture E and these products have been made from milk.

Question 6.
What else is happening in picture E?
Answer:
In picture E, person is testing the quality of the prepared milk products.

Question 7.
Out of the products shown in picture F, which products do you use?
Answer:
I use all the products shown in picture F as milk products are high on nutrients and good for health.

Question 8.
What would be main difference between milk and milk products?
Answer:
Milk is a beverage obtained from nature, directly from different animals. While milk products are obtained by processing milk into different products.

Question 9.
Do these products perish quickly like milk?
Answer:
No, they have a longer life unlike milk.

Look at the figure and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which of these activities is undertaken to obtain a product from nature?
Answer:
Obtaining milk from the cow is the activity undertaken to obtain a product from nature.

Question 2.
How long does this product last?
Answer:
If refrigerated it will last for about five days to one week.

Question 3.
In which picture is the product obtained from nature being collected?
Answer:
In picture C, the product obtained from nature is being collected.

Question 4.
Which service did the milk producer get through this activity?
Answer:
Transport and unloading of milk, a tertiary service is the service which the milk producer received.

Question 5.
Where is milk being taken? What happens to the milk thereafter?
Answer:
The milk is being taken to the milk processing centre for processing milk to make milk products.

Question 6.
What milk products are seen in the picture?
Answer:
Ghee, butter, cheese, shrikhand are the products seen in the picture.

Question 7.
Who inspects these products?
Answer:
A food inspector, a person with special skill and expertise inspects these products.

Question 8.
What does the shopkeeper do with these products?
Answer:
The shopkeeper sells these products to the consumer.

Question 9.
Which of these products are perishable and which are non- perishable?
Answer:
All are the products, even after proper storage will deteriorate and perish over a period of time.

Question 10
Will the price and weight of these products be same as that of the milk?
Answer:
The price and weight of these products will be higher after processing. These products will be more durable and its quality too will be enhanced and so their price will be also higher.

Use your brainpower!

Question 1.
Milk is available at ₹ 40 per litre while dahi at ₹ 60 per kg and paneer at ₹ 200 per kg. If both are obtained from milk, why is there so much difference in their prices?
Answer:
Milk is being processed, obtained from nature and made it into different products. These products are more durable. Their quality its enhanced and therefore their price is higher.

Answer the following questions based on the pie charts:

Question 1.
Which country has more manpower engaged in primary occupation?
Answer:
Bangladesh.

Question 2.
Which country has more manpower engaged in secondary occupation?
Answer:
Turkey.

Question 3.
Which country has more manpower engaged in tertiary occupations?
Answer:
United Arab Emirates.

Question 4.
Which country has almost equal manpower engaged in all the occupations?
Answer:
Turkey.

Think a little!

Who am I?

Question 1.
Who examines us when we fall ill?
Answer:
Doctor

Question 2.
Who checks our examination papers?
Answer:
Teacher

Question 3.
Who prepares the designs of buildings?
Answer:
Architect

Question 4.
Who produces machines and looks after their maintenance and repairs?
Answer:
Engineer

Observe figure and answer the questions related to sugar production:



Question 1.
Classify the occupations from primary to quaternary
Answer:

Primary	Secondary	Tertiary	Quaternary
Harvesting of sugarcane	Sugarcane being collected at factory	Transport of sugarcane	Quality check
	Processing of sugarcane juice	Sacks of sugar being canned	Inspection and maintenance of machinery in the factory
	Sugar production	Sale of goods

Question 2.
Which raw material is used in the secondary occupation?
Answer:
Sugarcane is the raw material used in the secondary occupation.

Question 3.
Which is the finished product obtained in the secondary occupation?
Answer:
Sugar is the finished product obtained in the secondary occupation.

Question 4.
What are the services in tertiary occupations?
Answer:
Transport of sugarcane, sacks of sugar being carried and sales of goods are the services in tertiary occupations.

Question 5.
Which picture is related to a quaternary occupation? Can you name the occupation?
Answer:
Picture G is related to a quaternary occupation. The occupation is quality testing.

Think and discuss:

What effect does nature have on our occupations? Think a little. Give a thought to the following issues. Discuss them in the class. Write two paragraphs about it.

• There have been no rain at all (drought).
• A storm strikes
• There was an earthquake.
• Untimely rains
• Good rains
• Excessive rains and floods
• All of a sudden, a volcano erupts
• A tsunami hits.

Answer:
Primary occupations like agriculture can be totally disrupted if there are no rains or excessive rains while good rains will usher with good agricultural output. When we receive good agricultural yield it will have a positive input on all secondary occupations which rely on agriculture. It will bring about all-round growth in both agricultural and industrial sector.

Natural calamities like storms, earthquake, volcanoes and tsunami can have adverse impact on various occupations. It can bring all the primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary occupations to a standstill. Occupations related to production, storage, distribution, etc. will be greatly affected as rescue and rehabilitation of the people and reconstruction of the damaged caused, becomes a priority.

Do it yourself!

Question 1.
Which occupations are found in your area?
Answer:
I live in Maharashtra and occupations like textile manufacture, manufacture of sugar, pharmaceutical, petrochemicals, electronics, automobiles, engineering services, food processing, etc. are practised here.

Question 2.
Which occupation is practised on a large scale?
Answer:
Sugar manufacturing is an occupation which is practised on a large scale.

Question 3.
Find the reason behind it.
Answer:
Advantageous location of Maharashtra, progressive government policies, availability of raw material, i.e. sugarcane, good infrastructure and above all the ownership given to farmers in sugar factories are the reasons why this occupation is practised on a large scale.

Question 4.
Both human and natural factors affect occupations. Can you find those factors?
Answer:
Development of industries, availability of technical know-how and skilled manpower, existing labour laws and government policies pertaining to occupations development of infrastructure are the human factors that affect occupations.
Climate, terrain of a region, fertility of soil, susceptibility to natural calamities, availability of raw materials, etc. are the natural factors which affect occupations.

Question 5.
Obtain information about the damage caused to the environment through different occupations.
Answer:
Pollution of the environment in all its form – air, water, soil and land, deforestation, soil erosion, depletion of the ozone layer, etc. are some of the damages caused due to different occupations practised.

While practising occupations we should be careful not be cause of hazardous air emissions, land contamination leading to soil pollution, marine and coastal pollution caused due to untreated waste water, etc. Sustainable development, let us remember should be the need of the hour.

Visit a secondary occupation in your area gather information related to that occupation using the following points and note it down:
Answer:

Name of the occupation	Pharmaceutical manufacturing.
Raw material used	Animal extracts, herbal extracts, additives like glaze, talc, etc. and chemical substances.
Sources of raw material	From different parts of India, some raw materials are imported from other countries.
Finished products	Medicine and other pharma products.
Market of finished products	National and international markets including US, UK, Australia, Russia, Germany, etc.
Tertiary occupations	Transport of goods, loading and unloading of goods and sale of goods.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 10 Human Occupations Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following statements by choosing the correct options:

Question 1.
Occupations which are dependent on nature are called _______ occupations. (secondary, primary, tertiary)
Answer:
primary

Question 2.
Processed products are ________.(non-perishable, more durable, less durable)
Answer:
more durable

Question 3.
Occupations dependent on primary occupations are called ______ occupations. (primary, secondary, quaternary)
Answer:
secondary

Question 4.
The occupations which provide complimentary services to the other two occupations are called _________ occupations. (tertiary, secondary, primary)
Answer:
tertiary

Question 5.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in _______ activities are considered to be developed countries. (primary , secondary, tertiary)
Answer:
tertiary

Question 6.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in primary activities are considered to be _____ countries. (developed, developing, under developed)
Answer:
developing

Question 7.
transactions decide the country’s ______.(production, occupation, manpower)
Answer:
primary

Arrange the following in proper order:

• Selling milk products in the market.
• Obtaining milk and selling milk.
• Processing milk at milk processing centres.
• Rearing of domestic animals.
• Making ghee, butter, cheese, shrikhand, paneer, milk powder, etc.

Answer:

• Rearing of domestic animals.
• Obtaining milk and selling milk.
• Processing milk at milk processing centre.
• Making ghee, butter, cheese, shrikhand, paneer, milk powder, etc.
• Selling milk products in the market.

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Animal husbandry and fishing	(a) secondary occupation
(2) Processing of milk	(b) tertiary occupation
(3) Transport of goods	(c) quaternary occupation
(4) Quality testing of product	(d) primary occupation
(5) Transaction of the country	(e) economic transactions
	(f) production

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – b
4 – c
5 – f

Name the following:

Question 1.
Any two products obtained after processing milk at milk processing centre:
Answer:

1. Butter
2. Cheese

Question 2.
Any two animals domesticated by man:
Answer:

1. Cow
2. Buffalo

Question 3.
Occupation which is directly dependent on nature:
Answer:
Primary occupations.

Question 4.
Occupations dependent on primary occupations:
Answer:
Secondary occupations.

Question 5.
Occupations which provide complementary services to primary and secondary occupations:
Answer:
Tertiary occupations.

Question 6.
Occupations like sale of goods
Answer:
Tertiary occupations or service occupations

Question 7.
Occupations which requires special expertise:
Answer:
Quaternary occupations.

Question 8.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in tertiary activities:
Answer:
Developed countries.

Question 9.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in primary activities:
Answer:
Developing countries.

Complete the table:

Occupations	Definition	Examples
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary

Answer:

Occupations	Definition	Examples
Primary	Occupation which directly depend on nature are called primary occupations.	Farming, animal husbandry, mining, foresting, fishing.
Secondary	Occupations dependent on primary occupations are called secondary occupations.	Food processing, manufacturing, construction.
Tertiary	Occupations which provide complementary services to primary and secondary occupations are called tertiary occupations.	Transport of goods, commercial services, loading and unloading goods, sale of goods.
Quaternary	The occupations which requires special expertise and special skills are called quaternary occupations.	Quality testing of food products, inspection and maintenance., IT.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Why does man undertake various activities?
Answer:
Man undertakes various activities to satisfy his need.

Question 2.
How are activities undertaken by man classified?
Answer:
Activities undertaken by man are classified on the basis of their nature and the products they yield.

Question 3.
Where are raw materials supplied to the industries often obtained from?
Answer:
Raw materials supplied to the industries are often obtained from nature.

Question 4.
Which occupations require special skills and expertise?
Answer:
Quaternary occupations requires special skills and expertise.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Why are the prices of processed milk products higher?
Answer:

• Milk obtained from nature is processed and made into different products which involves high cost.
• These products are more durable.
• Their quality too is enhanced.
• Therefore their price is also higher.

Question 2.
Explain the term “Service occupation”.
Answer:

• The occupations which provide complementary services to the other two occupations, i.e., primary and secondary occupations are tertiary occupations.
• These occupations are complementary i.e., supportive to all other occupations.
• These occupations are called as service occupation e.g., transport of goods, loading and unloading of goods and sale of goods, etc.

Question 3.
A person testing the quality of a product is practising a quaternary occupation. Elaborate.
Answer:

• To test the quality of a product, a person must have some special skills.
• This service is not an ordinary one but the one which requires special expertise.
• Such services which requires special skills and expertise are called quaternary occupations.

Question 4.
How can we decide the extent of the country’s development?
Answer:

• Different occupations are practised in different countries of the world.
• Through these occupations, economic transactions occur within a country and between various countries.
• These transactions decide the country’s production of various goods and their national income.
• This, in turn, is used to decide the extent of a country’s development.

Question 5.
What decides the country’s annual income?
Answer:
Different occupations are practised in different countries of the world through which economic transactions occur within country and various countries which decide the country’s production of various goods and their annual income.

I can do this!

Question 1.
Answer:

Name different occupations

Primary occupation Secondary occupation Tertiary occupation Quaternary occupation

Differences

Primary occupations are those occupations which are dependent on nature, e.g. Agriculture. Occupations dependent on primary occupations are called secondary occupations, e.g. Food processing. Those occupations which provide complementary services to primary and secondary occupation are called tertiary occupations, e.g. Sale of goods. While occupation which requires special skills and expertise are called quaternary occupation, e.g. Quality assurance.

Question 2.
Classify the occupations from primary to quaternary.
Answer:

Primary occupations	Secondary occupations	Tertiary occupations	Quaternary occupations
Farming, mining, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing	Manufacturing, construction, food processing	Commercial services, transport of goods, loading and unloading of goods, sale of goods	Research and development, IT, quality assurance, inspection and maintenance

6th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• The Earth and the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Let us Use the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Weather and Climate Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Temperature Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Importance of Oceans Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Rocks and Rock Types Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Energy Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Occupations Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Temperature Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 Geography Chapter 5 Question Answer Temperature Maharashtra Board

Class 6 Geography Chapter 5 Temperature Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Temperature Class 6 Questions And Answers

A. Where am I?

Question 1.
The isotherm 0°C runs in my surroundings:
Answer:
Northern Asia/Northem Canada.

Question 2.
The mean annual temperature is 25°C around me:
Answer:
Central Africa.

Question 3.
The mean annual temperature around me is 10°C:
Answer:
Northern Europe/Central Asia/USA.

B. Who am I?

Question 1.
I connect places of equal temperature.
Answer:
Isotherm.

Question 2.
I am useful for measuring the correct temperature.
Answer:
Simple thermometer.

Question 3.
I get heated due to the land or water near me.
Answer:
Air.

Question 4.
Land and water gets heated due to me.
Answer:
Sunrays.

C. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain with a diagram, the effect of the spherical shape of the earth on the temperature at different latitudes.
Answer:

• Due to the spherical shape of the earth and the resultant curvature of the surface, sunrays occupy a larger or a lesser area.
• Equatorial regions which receive straight rays of the sun occupy less space and heat received is more.
• Polar regions receive slant rays of the sun occupy larger space but the heat received is less.

Question 2.
What is the relation between the latitudinal extent and temperature of a region?
Answer:

• 0° and 23° 30′ North and South perpendicular rays. Temperatures are higher throughout the year.
• 23° 30′ and 66° 30′ North and South receive extreme slant rays. Temperatures are moderate.
• 66° 30′ and 90° North and South receive extreme slant rays. Temperatures are very low.

Question 3.
What makes the isotherms run zigzag over continental areas?
Answer:
Isotherms run zigzag over continental areas because the temperature is influenced by its physical set up and height above the mean sea level on the continent.

Activity:

• Use the thermometer in your school and note the daily temperature on a display board.
• For two weeks, take down in your notebook, the information regarding weather given in the daily newspapers. Discuss your notes in the classroom.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 5 Temperature InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Find the range of temperature at Mumbai, Nagpur and Srinagar. Draw bar graphs for the same.
Answer:
Annual Range of temperature in °C

Region	Min. temperature	Max. temperature
Mumbai	20.5	32
Nagpur	22	44
Srinagar	2.5	24

Answer the following questions with the help of figure:

Question 1.
What is the tube of the thermometer fixed on ?
Answer:
The tube of the thermometer is fixed on a mount.

Question 2.
What substance is used in the thermometer tube?
Answer:
Mercury or alcohol is used in the thermometer tube.

Question 3.
What do the figures on the scale indicate?
Answer:
The figures on the scale indicate temperature scale.

Question 4.
In which different units is the temperature measured?
Answer:
The temperature shows Celsius and Fahrenheit.

Question 5.
What season does the temperature in the figure indicate?
Answer:
The figure indicates summer season.

How will the rays fall between:

Question 1.
0° and 23° 30′ North and South?
Answer:
Perpendicular rays.

Question 2.
23° 30′ and 66° 30′ North and South?
Answer:
Slant rays.

Question 3.
66° 30′ and 90° North and South?
Answer:
Extreme slant rays.

What will you do?

You stay at ‘Man’ in Satara district. Your Grandma stays at Vengurla in Sindhudurg district. During Diwali, you often visit Vengurla. You like the sea coast there. The warm air of that region attracts you because you are freed from the dry air and scratching cold of your place. This time Grandma is suffering from asthma. Doctors have advised her to stay at a place which has a drier climate. What should you do?
Answer:

• Humid air is heavier than dry air, thus a person suffering from asthma finds it difficult to breathe in humid air.
• So, I will take my grandma to my place at Man’ in Satara district, as the air is dry in this region.

Think a little!

Question 1.
Will it be alright if water or oil is used in the thermometer?
Answer:
Water or oil cannot be used in a thermometer because they have a very high freezing part due to the lower temperature upto 30°C cannot be shown.

Question 2.
Where is the temperature of your district headquarters recorded?
Answer:
The temperature of the district headquarters is recorded in the district meteorological department.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Which season would be the best for visiting the following places and why? Goa, Chikhaldara, Chennai, Darjeeling, Ellora, Agra.
Answer:
Goa, Chennai, Ellora and Agra in the winter season. Chikhaldara and Darjeeling in the summer season.

Question 2.
Tell if the following statement is right or wrong. Give reasons.
In order to understand the climate of a region, the latitudinal extent is more useful than the longitudinal extent.
Answer:
The above statement is right.
In order to understand the climate of a region, the latitudinal extent is more useful because the earth is divided into three temperature zones depending on the amount of heat received from the equator to the North and South Poles.

Observe the map. Name the coastal areas that will experience changes in temperature. Give the reason for this.

Answer:
(i) West coast of North America : The California current moving from the Northern frigid zone to the torrid zone will reduce the temperature at this coast.

(ii) East coast of North America : The Gulf stream current flowing towards the northern frigid zone will increase the temperature at this coast.

(iii) West coast of Europe : The North Atlantic current flowing towards the Northern frigid zone will increase the temperature at this coast

Class 6 Geography Chapter 5 Temperature Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks wish the right alternative given in the bracket:

Question 1.
The main factor which influences the distribution of temperature is ______. (ocean current, longitude, latitude)
Answer:
latitude

Question 2.
______gas can hold heat within itself in the atmosphere. (Carbon dioxide, Oxygen, Hydrogen)
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

Question 3.
Isotherms are fairly parallel to the latitudinal line in the _____ hemisphere. (Northern, Western, Southern)
Answer:
Southern

Question 4.
Nagpur receives _______ climate. (extreme, equable, moderate)
Answer:
extreme

Question 5.
When an ocean current flows from the frigid to the torrid zone, it _____ the temperature of the coast in the torrid zone. (increase, reduces, equal)
Answer:
reduces

Question 6.
Isotherms are lines that connect places with the ______ temperature after avoiding the effect of the height, (different, same, moderate)
Answer:
same

Question 7.
Substance used in a thermometer tube is _____ (water, mercury, oil)
Answer:
mercury

Question 8.
The freezing point of mercury is _______°C. (-39, -49, -59)
Answer:
-39

Question 9.
The freezing point of alcohol is _____ °C. (-110, -120, -130)
Answer:
-130

Question 10.
Air temperature is measured in _______ (Celsius, Fahrenheit, Grams)
Answer:
Celsius

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Factor	Isoline
(1) Height	(a) Isotherm
(2) Temperature	(b) Isohyet
(3) Pressure	(c) Contour
(4) Rainfall	(d) Isobar
(5) Planktons	(e) Food for fishes
	(f) Ocean current

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – d
4 – b
5 – e

Give one word for the following sentences:

Question 1.
The sunrays which occupy less area.
Answer:
Perpendicular.

Question 2.
The sunrays which occupy larger area.
Answer:
Slant.

Question 3.
The climate in coastal areas.
Answer:
Equable.

Question 4.
The climate in continental areas.
Answer:
Extreme.

Question 5.
Food for fishes.
Answer:
Plankton.

Question 6.
Main factor responsible for influenceing the distribution of temperature.
Answer:
Latitude.

Question 7.
Measuring daily temperature.
Answer:
Thermometer.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Temperature zones on the earth:
Answer:
Torrid zone, temperate zone and frigid zone.

Question 2.
Lines drawn on a map by joining all the points having the same value:
Answer:
Isolines.

Question 3.
Two cold currents:
Answer:
Canaries and Peruvian current.

Question 4.
Two warm currents.:
Answer:
Equatorial and Brazil current.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What is diurnal range of temperature?
Answer:
The difference in maximum and minimum temperature of a day is called diurnal range of temperature.

Question 2.
What factors leads to horizontal currents in the ocean?
Answer:
Horizontal currents develop in the ocean due

difference in temperature
density of water and
winds.

Question 3.
What is the advantage of the convergence of warm and cold current?
Answer:
The convergence of warm and cold current favours the growth of plankton.

Question 4.
What are isolines?
Answer:
Lines drawn on a map by joining all the points having the same value are called isolines.

Question 5.
Where is the distance between the isotherms parallel?
Answer:
The distance between the isotherms are parallel from South Pole to the Tropic of Capricorn.

Question 6.
Which factors lead to diversity in the climate of different regions?
Answer:
The factors which lead to diversity in the climate of different regions are nearness to the sea, continentality, height above the mean sea level and physical level.

Question 7.
What is an annual range of temperature?
Answer:
The difference in the mean temperatures of summer and winter is called an annual range of temperature.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
There is unequal distribution of heat received from the Sun.
Answer:
The unequal distribution of heat received from the Sun is because:

• The earth is spherical in shape.
• The rays which fall on the equator are straight, occupy less area and give more heat.
• The rays which fall on the curvature i.e., on the polar regions are slant rays which occupy large area and give less heat.

Question 2.
The temperature near the sea level is higher and it decreases in the mountainous region.
Answer:

• Firstly, the sea water gets heated by the rays of the sun.
• The absorbed heat is later radiated into the atmosphere.
• So, the layer of air close to the surface gets heated.
• This heat gets transferred vertically to the adjacent upper layers of air.
• Therefore, the temperature near the sea level is higher and it decreases at the mountainous region.

Question 3.
In the coastal areas, as compared to continental areas, the temperature of air is lower during the day but warmer at night.
Answer:

• There is difference in the heating and cooling of land and water.
• The air over the land gets heated faster and also cools rapidly.
• The air over the water gets heated slowly and also loses the heat in a slower manner.
• The temperature of air is lower during the day but warmer at night, in the coastal areas when compared to continental areas.

Question 4.
Greenhouse gases lead to increasing temperature of the earth.
Answer:

• Some gases in the atmosphere like carbon dioxide and water vapour can hold the heat within themselves for a long period of time.
• Due to the gases, the temperature of air in the atmosphere increases.
• Thus, greenhouse gases lead to increasing temperature of the earth.

Question 5.
Regions, where warm and cold currents converge, are favourable for the growth of fisheries.
Answer:

• Regions, where warm and cold currents converge, are favourable for the growth of planktons.
• Planktons are the food for fishes.
• Fishes travel here in large numbers.
• They breed in warm waters and increase the number of fishes.
• Therefore, regions where warm and cold currents converge favour the growth of fisheries.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Explain the movement of ocean currents from equator to the polar region.
Answer:
Due to temperature differences, both upward and horizontal currents develop in the ocean. Besides temperature differences, factors like winds and differences in the density of water also give rise to horizontal currents. These ocean currents flow from the equator to the polar region and from the polar region to the equator.

Question 2.
Explain the effect of the ocean current flows from the frigid to the torrid zone.
Answer:
When an ocean current flows from the frigid to the torrid zone, it reduces the temperature of the coasts in the torrid zone. When a current flows from the torrid to the frigid zone, it increases the temperature of the coasts in the frigid zone.

I can do this!

Question 1.
Identify the temperature zones.
Answer:
There are three temperature zones namely torrid, temperate and frigid zones.

Question 2.
Tell the factors influencing temperature.
Answer:
Factors influencing temperature are latitude, winds, nearness to the sea, continentality, vegetation cover, cloud cover, physical set up, height above sea level and industrialisation.

Question 3.
Describe the global distribution of temperature with its characteristics.
Answer:
The isotherms in the southern hemisphere are fairly parallel to the latitudinal lines. From South Pole to the Tropic of Capricorn the distance between these lines is almost equal. As the proportion of land in the southern hemisphere is limited, temperatures in these parts are largely influenced by latitude.

In the northern hemisphere, the distance between these lines varies. In this hemisphere, the proportion of land is comparatively greater. This affects the distribution of temperature. These effects are seen in the form of variations in the distance between the isotherms and curved nature of these lines.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of a thermometer.
Answer:
A vacuum glass tube is filled with mercury or alcohol is mounted on a wooden board. There are two temperature scales showing Celsius and Fahrenheit.

6th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• The Earth and the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Let us Use the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Weather and Climate Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Temperature Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Importance of Oceans Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Rocks and Rock Types Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Energy Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Occupations Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 11 Ancient India and the World Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 History Chapter 11 Question Answer Ancient India and the World Maharashtra Board

Class 6 History Chapter 11 Ancient India and the World Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Ancient India and the World Class 6 Questions And Answers

1. Name the following:

Question 1.
Places where articles made in Rome were found.
Answer:
Kolhapur and Arikamedu in Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
A new style of art emerged during the Kushana period in India.
Answer:
Gandhara style of art.

Question 3.
The language of the books Mahavansa and Deepvansa.
Answer:
Pali language.

Question 4.
A country to which Buddhism had spread in the ancient period.
Answer:
Sri Lanka.

2. Think and expand/elaborate:

Question 1.
Indian culture had an impact on southeast Asia.
Answer:

• Indian culture had a deep impact on the art and cultural life of southeast Asia.
• Dance-dramas based on stories from Ramayana and Mahabharata are popular in Indonesia even today.
• In later years, temples of Lord Shiva and Vishnu were also built there.

Question 2.
The spread of Buddhism in China became easier.
Answer:

• In the first century CE, the Ming emperor of China invited the Buddhist bhikkhus Dharmarakshaka and Kashyapmatanga to China.
• The Bhikkhus translated many Indian Buddhist texts into Chinese language.
• This made the spread of Buddhism in China easier.

3. What would you do if you are encouraged in your favourite hobby ?
Answer:
If someone encouraged me, it will make me very happy and boost my self-confidence. Thus I will further expand my horizon by gaining more knowledge and enhancing my hobby.

4. Describe a picture:

A picture of the Gandhara style sculpture on a stupa in Hadda, Afghanistan is given in this chapter. Observe it and write about it.

5. Find out more about:

Question 1.
The Gandhara style of art.
Answer:
Under the influence of the Greek art of sculpture, a new form of art emerged in India during the Kushana period. It is called Gandhara school of art. In the Gandhara, art school images of Gautam Buddha were mainly carved in Gandhara.

Question 2.
The Silk Route.
Answer:
Chinese silk was in great demand in India. Merchants in ancient India supplied Chinese silk to western countries. The land route by which the silk trade was carried on was called the silk route. Some ancient places in India were connected to this route. The Chinese Buddhist Bhikkhus also came to India through this silk route.

6. Mark the countries of Southeast Asia mentioned in the chapter on an outline map.

Activity:

Obtain information about a form of art of your choice and present it in your class.

Class 6 History Chapter 11 Ancient India and the World Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
People of the Harappan civilisation had developed trade relations with the countries of the ______.
(a) north
(b) west
(c) south
Answer:
(b) west

Question 2.
________ had spread to Afghanistan and to many countries of Central Asia.
(a) Zoroastrianism
(b) Jainism
(c) Buddhism
Answer:
(c) Buddhism

Question 3.
The writings of the Greek historians introduced India to the ______ world.
(a) western
(b) eastern
(c) central
Answer:
(a) western

Question 4.
Under the influence of the Greek art of sculpture, a new form of art emerged in India during the ____ period.
(a) Gupta
(b) Kushana
(c) Vakataka
Answer:
(b) Kushana

Question 5.
In the Gandhara art school images of _______ were mainly carved.
(a) Gautam Buddha
(b) Vardhaman Mahavir
(c) Guru Nanak
Answer:
(a) Gautam Buddha

Question 6.
The early coins that were minted in India were also like _________ coins.
(a) Sri lanka
(b) Chinese
(c) Greek
Answer:
(c) Greek

Question 7.
The excavations at Arikamedu in Tamil Nadu have also brought to light many articles made in ______.
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Rome
(c) China
Answer:
(b) Rome

Question 8.
______was an important port in Egypt.
(a) Funan
(b) Kolhapur
(c) Alexandria
Answer:
(c) Alexandria

Question 9.
Beside Indian goods, the _______ also conveyed Indian philosophy and science to Europe.
(a) Chinese
(b) Arabs
(c) Greeks
Answer:
(b) Arabs

Question 10.
The concept of ‘__________ ‘ is one of India’s major contributions to the world.
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) mathematics
Answer:
(a) zero

Question 11.
Sanghamitra carried a branch of the _________ tree to Sri Lanka.
(a) Banyan
(b) Bodhi
(c) Pipal
Answer:
(b) Bodhi

Question 12.
There was a great demand in India for Sri Lankan _________ and other precious stones.
(a) diamonds
(b) rubies
(c) pearls
Answer:
(c) pearls

Question 13.
The wall paintings in Sigiriya caves bear a resemblance to the paintings in the _______ caves.
(a) Ellora
(b) Ajanta
(c) Nashik
Answer:
(b) Ajanta

Question 14.
Right from the ancient times, India and __________ had established trade and cultural relations.
(a) China
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rome
Answer:
(a) China

Question 15.
Emperor Harshavardhan had even sent an ambassador to the _______ court.
(a) Greek
(c) Roman
(c) Chinese
Answer:
(c) Chinese

Question 16.
Chinese _______ was known as .’Chinanshuka’ and was in great demand in India.
(a) pearls
(b) diamond
(c) silk
Answer:
(c) silk

Question 17.
Merchants in ancient India supplied Chinese silk to _______ countries.
(a) eastern
(b) western
(c) northern
Answer:
(b) western

Question 18.
The land route by which the silk trade was carried on, was called the ________.
(a) Silk Route
(b) Trade Route
(c) Horse Route
Answer:
(a) Silk Route

Question 19.
The Chinese Buddhist bhikkhus Fa-hien and Yuan Chwang also came to ______ through this silk route.
(a) Nepal
(b) Rome
(c) India
Answer:
(c) India

Question 20.
The bhikkhus translated many Buddhist texts into the _____ language.
(a) Chinese
(b) Japanese
(c) Prakrit
Answer:
(a) Chinese

Question 21.
People of Funan knew ______ language.
(a) Marathi
(b) Chinese
(c) Sanskrit
Answer:
(c) Sanskrit

Question 22.
Indian culture had a deep impact on the art and cultural life of ________ Asia.
(a) Southeast
(b) Southwest
(c) Northeast
Answer:
(a) Southeast

Question 23.
Dance-dramas based on stories from the two Indian epics are popular in ______ even today.
(a) China
(b) Indonesia
(c) Japan
Answer:
(b) Indonesia

Question 24.
In the later years, ______ of Lord Shiva and Vishnu were also built.
(a) caves
(b) muttas
(c) temples
Answer:
(c) temples

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What has India exchanged with the outside world?
Answer:
Having developed trade relations, India began economic and cultural exchange with the outside world.

Question 2.
Who introduced India to the western world?
Answer:
The writings of the Greek historians introduced India to the western world.

Question 3.
Besides Indian goods, what did the Arabs convey to Europe?
Answer:
Besides Indian goods, the Arabs also conveyed Indian philosophy and science to Europe.

Question 4.
Who were sent to Sri Lanka to spread Buddhism?
Answer:
King Ashoka sent his son Mahendra and daughter Sanghamitra to Sri Lanka to spread Buddhism.

Question 5.
Who introduced the Bodhi tree to Sri Lanka?
Answer:
Sanghamitra carried a branch of the Bodhi tree to Sri Lanka.

Question 6.
What is similar between the caves at Ajanta and Sigiriya?
Answer:
The wall paintings at Sigiriya bear resemblance to the paintings in the Ajanta caves.

Question 7.
What provides information about the dose relations between India and Sri Lanka?
Answer:
The Sri Lankan Buddhist works ‘Dipavamsa’ and ‘Mahavamsa’ provide information about the close relations between India and Sri Lanka.

Question 8.
Who sent an ambassador to the Chinese court?
Answer:
Emperor Harshavardhan sent an ambassador to the Chinese court.

Question 9.
What gave an impetus to the spread of Buddhism in China?
Answer:
The Bhikkhus translated many Indian Buddhist texts into Chinese Language. This gave an impetus to spread of Buddhism in China.

Question 10.
In the later years, which temples were built in South-Asian countries?
Answer:
the later years, temples of Lord Shiva and Vishnu were built in south-asian countries.

Elaborate:

Question 1.
Alexandria was an important port in Egypt?
Answer:
The Arab merchants carried Indian goods up to Alexandria. From there, they were sent to the countries in Europe. Besides Indian goods, the Arabs also conveyed Indian philosophy and science to Europe. The concept of ‘zero’ is one of India’s major contribution’ to the world . It was the Arabs who introduced this Indian concept to Europe.

6th Std History Questions And Answers:

• The Indian Subcontinent and History Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Sources of History Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• The Harappan Civilization Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• The Vedic Civilization Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Religious Trends in Ancient India Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Janapadas and Mahajanapadas Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• India during the Maurya Period Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• States after the Maurya Empire Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Ancient Kingdoms of the South Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Ancient India: Cultural Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Ancient India and the World Class 6 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 5 Religious Trends in Ancient India Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 History Chapter 5 Question Answer Religious Trends in Ancient India Maharashtra Board

Class 6 History Chapter 5 Religious Trends in Ancient India Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Religious Trends in Ancient India Class 6 Questions And Answers

1. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The principle of ______ is very important in Jainism.
(a) justice
(b) casteism
(c) non-violence
Answer:
(c) non-violence

Question 2.
An extraordinary feature of Gautam Buddha’s personality is his ______ for all living beings.
(a) compassion
(b) satisfaction
(c) anger
Answer:
(a) compassion

2. Answer in short:

Question 1.
What were the teachings of Vardhaman Mahavir?
Answer:
Vardhaman Mahavir taught the people that the greatness of man does not depend on his vama, but on his excellent conduct.

Question 2.
Which famous quotes of Gautam Buddha have you read here? What value does it uphold?
Answer:

• One of the famous quotes of Gautam Buddha is that ‘Even the little quail can chirp freely in her nest’, this quote depicts the values of freedom and equality of his preaching.
• Gautam Buddha preached that like men, women too had the right to their own upliftment.

Question 3.
What virtues are emphasized in Judaism?
Answer:
Judaism emphasizes justice, truth, peace, love, compassion, humility, charity, ethical speech and self-respect.

Question 4.
What are the teachings of Christianity?
Answer:

• According to the teachings of Christianity, we are all brothers and sisters.
• We should love everyone even our enemies.
• We should forgive those who err or go wrong.

Question 5.
What are the teachings of Islam?
Answer:

• The teachings of Islam is that Allah is eternal, absolute, all powerful and merciful.
• The purpose of human existence is to worship Allah.
• The Quran Sharif provides guidance as to how man should behave in life.

Question 6.
What is at the core of Parsee thinking?
Answer:
At the core of Parsee thinking are three main principles of conduct, namely, good thoughts, good words and good deeds.

3. Write notes on:

Question 1.
Aryasatya
Answer:
There are four truths at the root of all human affairs. They are called noble truths or Aryasatyas.

• Dukha (suffering): There is suffering in the world.
• The cause of suffering: There is a cause of suffering
• Dukkha – nivaran: It is possible to end suffering.
• Pratipad: Pratipad means the ‘way’ that leads to the end of suffering.

Question 2.
Panchasheel
Answer:
Gautam Buddha asked people to follow five rules called Panchasheel.

• Stay away from killing animals.
• Stay away from stealing.
• Stay away from unethical conduct.
• Stay away from telling lies.
• Stay away from intoxicants.

4. Put the following in the proper place in the chart of the Five Great Vows and the Three Jewels.

• Ahimsa
• Samyak Darshan
• Satya
• Asteya
• Samyak Jnan
• Aparigraha
• Samyak Charitra
• Brahmacharya

Answer:

Five Great Vows	Three Jewels
(1) Ahimsa	(1) Samyak Darshan
(2) Satya	(2) Samyak Jnan
(3) Asteya	(3) Samyak Charitra
(4) Aparigraha
(5) Brahmacharya

5. Give reasons:

Question 1.
Why was the name ‘Jina’ given to Vardhaman Mahavir?
Answer:
Vardhaman Mahavir was called Jina or the Conqueror because the joy derived from physical comforts and the discomforts felt due to undesired things had no impact whatsoever on him.

Question 2.
Why did Gautam Buddha came to be called the Buddha?
Answer:
Gautam Buddha has attained knowledge of human life in its entirety. That is why he came to be known as the ‘Buddha’.

Activity:

• Collect the information about and the pictures of various festivals.
• Visit the prayer houses of different religions and describe the precincts in the classroom.

Class 6 History Chapter 5 Religious Trends in Ancient India Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
Towards the end of the Vedic period, the minute details of yajna rites acquired ________ importance.
(a) undue
(b) least
(c) much needed
Answer:
(a) undue

Question 2.
A person’s social position was decided by the ______ into which he was born rather than by his achievements.
(a) ashrama
(b) varna
(c) Kula
Answer:
(b) varna

Question 3.
Jainism is one of the ancient _______ in India.
(a) topic
(b) religions
(c) civilization
Answer:
(b) religions

Question 4.
Vardhaman Mahavir is the _______ Tirthankar in the jain religious tradition.
(a) 24th
(b) 25th
(c) 26th
Answer:
(a) 24th

Question 5.
The principle of is very important in Jainism.
(a) justice
(b) casteism
(c) non-violence
Answer:
(c) non-violence

Question 6.
Vardhaman Mahavir was born in ________, a part of Vaishali.
(a) Kundagram
(b) Gaya
(c) Nepal
Answer:
(a) Kundagram

Question 7.
Vardhaman Mahavir left his house and all comforts for the attainment of ______.
(a) non-violence
(b) knowledge
(c) God
Answer:
(b) knowledge

Question 8.
He attained enlightenment after twelve and a half years of rigorous _______.
(a) tapa
(b) exercise
(c) good health
Answer:
(a) tapa

Question 9.
Vardhaman is said to be _______ because he had the resilience, the courage to conquer all passions.
(a) victorious
(b) saint
(c) Mahavir
Answer:
(c) Mahavir

Question 10.
The _______ held by the Tirthankar to preach to people was known as ‘samavasaran’.
(a) procession
(b) meeting
(c) assembly
Answer:
(c) assembly

Question 11.
Among the teachings of Mahavir, Anekantavada is considered to be very _____ in the quest for truth.
(a) honest
(b) important
(c) nice
Answer:
(b) important

Question 12.
In the Vedic tradition, the doors of knowledge had slowly been closed to ________.
(a) women
(b) men
(c) children
Answer:
(a) women

Question 13.
Gautam Buddha was the founder of ________.
(a) Christianity
(b) Buddhism
(c) Zoroastrianism
Answer:
(b) Buddhism

Question 14.
Gautam Buddha delivered his first sermon at _______ near Varanasi.
(a) Harappa
(b) Sarnath
(c) Lumbini
Answer:
(b) Sarnath

Question 15.
Pratipad means the ‘way’ that leads to the end of ________.
(a) suffering
(b) life
(c) preach
Answer:
(a) suffering

Question 16.
Gautam Buddha created a sangha of bhikkhus to ______ his religion.
(a) stretch
(b) reach
(c) preach
Answer:
(c) preach

Question 17.
People of all varnas and castes could _________ Buddhisms.
(a) reject
(b) embrace
(c) obey
Answer:
(b) embrace

Question 18.
An extraordinary feature of Gautam Buddha’s personality is his _______ for all living beings.
(a) compassion
(b) satisfaction
(c) anger
Answer:
(a) compassion

Question 19.
The tolerance preached by Gautam Buddha is a _____ principle not only for the Indian society but for all mankind even today.
(a) strict
(b) guiding
(c) aggressive
Answer:
(b) guiding

Question 20.
In the ancient period, new religious trends and thoughts went on ______ in India.
(a) emerging
(b) submerging
(c) revolting
Answer:
(a) emerging

Question 21.
Religions like Judaism, Christianity, Islam and Zoroastrianism also took ______ in the Indian society.
(a) stem
(b) branches
(c) root
Answer:
(c) root

Question 22.
A Jewish prayer house is known as ________.
(a) Temple
(b) Church
(c) Synagogue
Answer:
(c) Synagogue

Question 23.
_______ is a religion founded by Jesus Christ.
(a) Hinduism
(b) Christianity
(c) Judaism
Answer:
(b) Christianity

Question 24.
According to the teachings of Christianity there is only ______ God.
(a) three
(b) two
(c) one
Answer:
(c) one

Question 25.
The ________ is the holy book of Christianity.
(a) Geeta
(b) Bible
(c) Avesta
Answer:
(b) Bible

Question 26.
A Christian prayer house is known as ______.
(a) Synagogue
(b) Agyari
(c) Church
Answer:
(c) Church

Question 27.
The Quran Sharif provides guidance as to how a man should ______ in life.
(a) behave
(b) sing
(c) evolve
Answer:
(a) behave

Question 28.
Since ancient times there have been ______ relations between India and Arabia.
(a) friendly
(b) trade
(c) unfriendly
Answer:
(b) trade

Question 29.
The prayer house of ________ is known as a mosque or masjid.
(a) Christians
(b) Muslim
(c) Parsees
Answer:
(b) Muslim

Question 30.
The sacred text of the Parsee or Zoroastrians is the _______.
(a) Bible
(b) Quran
(c) Avesta
Answer:
(c) Avesta

Question 31.
The ______ came to India from the Pars or Fars province of Iran.
(a) Parsees
(b) Muslims
(c) Hindus
Answer:
(a) Parsees

Question 32.
Zarathushtra or Zoroaster was the _______ of the Parsees.
(a) priest
(b) founder
(c) follower
Answer:

Question 33.
_______ is the name of the Zoroastrian God.
(a) Allah
(b) Ahur Mazda
(c) Ram
Answer:
(b) Ahur Mazda

Question 34.
The elements of fire and water are very important in the _______ religion.
(a) Zoroastrian
(b) Judaism
(c) Hinduism
Answer:
(a) Zoroastrian

Question 35.
The sacred fire burns in the temples which is known as _______.
(a) Church
(b) Mosque
(c) Agyaris
Answer:
(c) Agyaris

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Vardhaman Mahavir	(a) Buddhism
(2) Gautam Buddha	(b) Synagogue
(3) Jesus Christ	(c) Jainism
(4) Zoroastrianism	(d) Quran Sharif
(5) Judaism	(e) Christianity
(6) Islam	(f) Agyari

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – e
4 – f
5 – b
6 – d

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
How was a person’s social position decided?
Answer:
In the latter vedic period, a person’s social position was decided by the vama into which he was bom rather than by his achievements.

Question 2.
What led to the establishment of new religions?
Answer:
Many people realized that every person is free to find ways of his own upliftment and this led to the establishment of new religions.

Question 3.
Where was Vardhaman Mahavir born?
Answer:
Vardhaman Mahavir was born in Kundagram, a part of Vaishali in the state of Bihar.

Question 4.
After how long did Vardhaman Mahavir attain enlightenment?
Answer:
Vardhaman Mahavir attained enlightenment after twelve and a half years of rigorous tapa.

Question 5.
What did Jainism lay stress on?
Answer:
Jainism laid great stress on good conduct.

Question 6.
How do we know that equality was practised in Jainism?
Answer:
The assembly held by the Tirthankar to preach to people (samavasaran) was based on equality. People of all varnas had entry to it, hence we know that equality was practised in Jainism.

Question 7.
What is Aparigraha?
Answer:
Man tends to accumulate property due to greed. Aparigraha means not hoarding or accumulating anything in this way.

Question 8.
State the quotes of Vardhaman Mahavir that lay emphasis on his teachings.
Answer:
‘Love all living things’, ‘Have mercy and compassion’, and ‘Live and let live’ are quotes that lay emphasis on his teachings.

Question 9.
Where was Gautam Buddha bom?
Answer:
Gautam Buddha was bom at Lumbini in Nepal.

Question 10.
Give the names of Gautam Buddha’s parents.
Answer:
Gautam Buddha’s father’s name was Shuddhodana and mother’s name was Mayadevi.

Question 11.
When did Gautam Buddha recieve enlightenment?
Answer:
On Vaishakha Purnima, when Gautam Buddha was sitting in deep meditation under a pipal tree at Uruvela, near the city of Gaya in Bihar, he attained ‘Bodhi’ – enlightenment or the highest knowledge.

Question 12.
Where did Gautam Buddha deliver his first sermon?
Answer:
Gautam Buddha delivered his first sermon at Samath near Vamasi.

Question 13.
In which language did Gautam Buddha preach?
Answer:
Gautam Buddha preached in the people’s language, Pali.

Question 14.
What does Pratipad mean?
Answer:
Pratipad means the ‘way’ that leads to the end of suffering.

Question 15.
What was extraordinary about Gautam Buddha’s personality?
Answer:
Compassion for all living beings was an extra ordinary feature of his personality.

Question 16.
Which religions took root in Indian society?
Answer:
Religions like Judaism, Christianity, Islam and Zoroastrianism took root in the Indian society.

Question 17.
What is a Jewish prayer house called?
Answer:
A Jewish prayer house is called a synagogue.

Question 18.
Who founded Christianity?
Answer:
Christianity is a religion founded by Jesus Christ.

Question 19.
What is the sacred book of the Christians called?
Answer:
The sacred book of the Christians is called ‘the Bible’.

Question 20.
What is the prayer house of the Christians called?
Answer:
The prayer house of the Christians is called ‘a Church’.

Question 21.
What is the holy book of Islam called?
Answer:
The holy book of Islam is called the Quran Sharif.

Question 22.
What is the prayer house of Islam called?
Answer:
The prayer house of Islam is known as a mosque or masjid.

Question 23.
What is the sacred text of Parsees called?
Answer:
The sacred text of the Parsees is the ‘Avesta’.

Question 24.
Why are the Zoroastrians called Parsees?
Answer:
The Zoroatrians came to India from the Pars or Fars province of Iran, therefore they are called as Parsees.

Question 25.
What is the name of the Zoroastrian God?
Answer:
The Zoroastrian god is called the ‘Ahur Mazda’.

Question 26.
What is the prayer house of the Zoroastrians called?
Answer:
The prayer house of the Zoroastrians is called the Agyari.

Answer in short:

Question 1.
State the principle of Tri-ratnas as taught by Vardhaman Mahavir.
Answer:
Tri-ratnas are the three jewels or the three principles taught by Vardhaman Mahavir.

• Samyak Darshan or Right faith.
• Samyak Jnati or Right knowledge.
• Samyak Charitra or Right conduct.

Question 2.
What is sangha?
Answer:

• Gautam Buddha created a sangha of Bhikkhus and Bhikkhunis to preach his religion.
• These followers where those who gave up their domestic life and entered the sangha.
• They travelled on foot like the Buddha to preach Dhamma to the people.

Question 3.
How did Gautam Buddha explain the concept of equality?
Answer:

• Gautam Buddha announced the freedom based on vama.
• He refused the discrimination based on vama.
• No one is greater or smaller by birth, says Buddha.
• He stressed that greatness depended on one’s behaviour or conduct.

Question 4.
Who came to spread Christianity to India?
Answer:

• St. Thomas, one of the twelve disciples of Christ, came to Kerala in the first century of the Christian era.
• He established a church at Pallayur in Trichur district in 52 CE.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Why is Vardhaman said to be Mahavir?
Answer:
Vardhaman is said to be ‘Mahavir’ because he had the resilience, the courage to conquer all passions.

Question 2.
Why did Mahavir preach in Ardhamagadhi?
Answer:
Mahavir spoke in Ardhamagadhi, a people’s language, to make it easy for the people to understand his preachings.

Question 3.
Why is Buddha’s teachings termed as dhamma-chakka-pavattan?
Answer:
Buddha delivered his first sermon at Sarnath near Varanasi. His teaching in the first sermon are termed dhamma. He set in motion the wheel of dhamma in this sermon. Therefore this event is called dhamma – chakra.

6th Std History Questions And Answers:

• The Indian Subcontinent and History Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Sources of History Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• The Harappan Civilization Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• The Vedic Civilization Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Religious Trends in Ancient India Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Janapadas and Mahajanapadas Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• India during the Maurya Period Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• States after the Maurya Empire Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Ancient Kingdoms of the South Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Ancient India: Cultural Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Ancient India and the World Class 6 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 10 Ancient India: Cultural Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 History Chapter 10 Question Answer Ancient India: Cultural Maharashtra Board

Class 6 History Chapter 10 TAncient India: Cultural Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Ancient India: Cultural Class 6 Questions And Answers

1. Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Make a list of ancient Indian universities.
Answer:
The ancient Indian universities are Takshashila, Vamasi, Valabhi, Nalanda, Vikramshila and Kanchi.

Question 2.
Make a list of the Indian goods that were in demand in foreign countries.
Answer:
Indian goods like fine textiles, ivory, precious stones, spices, beautifully made earthen ; pottery were in great demand in foreign countries.

2. Name the following:

Question 1.
Epics and poetic composition of ancient India.
Answer:
Epics Silappadhikaram and Manimekhalai and Arsha epics Ramayana and Mahabharata and Paumchariya a poetic work are composition of ancient India.

3. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The epic Ramayana was composed by rishi
(a) Vyas
(b) Valmiki
(c) Munni
Answer:
(b) Valmiki

Question 2.
The science of Indian medicine is called
(a) Ayurveda
(b) Homeopathy
(c) Alopathy
Answer:
(a) Ayurveda

Question 3.
Thousands of students could live at the University.
(a) Kanchi
(b) Takshashila
(c) Nalanda
Answer:
(c) Nalanda

4. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Explain what is meant by ‘Tipitaka’.
Answer:
Tipitaka is a Buddhist religious text written in Pali. It contains three categories of texts.

• Sutta Pitaka
• Vinay Pitaka
• Abhidhamma Pitaka

Question 2.
What is the message of the Bhagwad Gita?
Answer:

• The Bhagwad Gita tells us that each one of us should do our duty without expecting rewards.
• It also says that the path of devotion to God is open to all.

Question 3.
What aspects does Ayurveda take into account?
Answer:
Ayurveda is a very old traditional Indian medical science. Ayurveda not only seeks to understand the symptoms, diagnosis and treatment of an illness but also takes into account the prevention of the illness.

Question 4.
What is meant by Sangham Literature?
Answer:
Sangham means a gathering of learned men. The literature that is compiled in such gathering is known as Sangham literature.

5. Discuss:

Question 1.
Art and architecture of the Mauryan and Gupta period.
Answer:

• Indian architecture reached its peak during the Mauryan and the Gupta periods.
• The stone pillar erected by Emperor Ashoka at various places are excellent examples of Indian sculpture.
• The stupa at Sanchi and cave sculptures at Karla, Nashik, Ajanta, Ellora, etc. show that the same tradition advanced even further.

6. What would you do ?

Question 1.
How would you obtain information about Ayurvedic medicine and use it in your day to day life?
Answer:
I will try to get information about Ayurveda from different literature that is available either in bookstores or on internet. I will try to deal with minor ailments like cough, cold, acidity, aches and pains in day to day life through ayurvedic stores. I will try to improve my health in order to prevent ailments by taking ayurvedic medicines to improve my immunity.

Question 2.
On a trip to a historical site, your friend in writes his name on the structure.
Answer:
When on a trip to a historical site, I see my friend write his name on the structure, I will gently tell him the importance of historical monuments and also how the ancient Indians must have built it with lots of effort, without modern technology and equipment. Thus invoking respect for the ancient fellow Indians is my friend. Also telling him how proud we Indians should be of their art and talents.

7. Observe the picture of the stupa at Sanchi and obtain more information about it.

Answer:
Sanchi is an outstanding specimen of Buddhist art and architecture. The Sanchi stupa is one of the best preserved early stupa in central India. The Sanchi stupa is surrounded by a railing with four carved gateways facing in all four directions. An interesting characteristic about Sanchi stupa is that Lord Buddha has been symbolically represented by footsteps, wheels, thrones, etc. rather than by his own image. The Sanchi stupa is one of the most wonderful structures of ancient India.

Activity:

• Obtain information from the elders in your family, about some special buildings in your neighbourhood.
• Visit some historical buildings, memorials in your neighbourhood and write a note about the history you learn from the visits there.

Class 6 History Chapter 10 Ancient India: Cultural Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
______ means a gathering of learned men.
(a) Pitaka
(b) Sangham
(c) Shreni
Answer:
(b) Sangham

Question 2.
The Agamgranthas are a collection of the teachings of ________.
(a) Guru Nanak
(b) Gautam Buddha
(c) Vardhaman Mahavir
Answer:
(c) Vardhaman Mahavir

Question 3.
Vimalsuri has told the story of ____ in Paumchariya a poetic work in Prakrit.
(a) Rama
(b) Harishchandra
(c) Buddha
Answer:
(a) Rama

Question 4.
Tipitaka is written in ______.
(a) English
(b) Pali
(c) Hindi
Answer:
(b) Pali

Question 5.
_______ women composed gathas about their own experience.
(a) Illiterate
(b) Housewives
(c) Learned
Answer:
(c) Learned

Question 6.
The Bhagwad Gita, which is a sacred text of the Hindu, is a part of the ______.
(a) Ramayana
(b) Arthashastras
(c) Mahabharata
Answer:
(c) Mahabharata

Question 7.
Adi Shankaracharya lived during the ______ century CE.
(a) seventh
(b) eighth
(c) ninth
Answer:
(b) eighth

Question 8.
Kautilya wrote the ______.
(a) Arthashastra
(b) Raghuvansha
(c) Brahmasutras
Answer:
(a) Arthashastra

Question 9.
Patanjali wrote _______.
(a) Kumarsambhava
(b) Upanishads
(c) Mahabhashya
Answer:
(c) Mahabhashya

Question 10.
‘Ramayana’ and ‘Mahabharata’ are the two _______ epics of ancient India.
(a) Arsha
(b) Modern
(c) Classical
Answer:
(a) Arsha

Question 11.
Arsha means _______ by rishis or sages.
(a) sung
(b) reported
(c) composed
Answer:
(c) composed

Question 12.
The main character of Ramayana is ________.
(a) Shri Ram
(b) rishis
(c) Kautilya
Answer:
(a) Shri Ram

Question 12.
Mahabharata has been composed by the sage ______.
(a) Kautilya
(b) Vyas
(c) Adi
Answer:
(b) Vyas

Question 14.
India has an ancient tradition of telling a ____ through songs, music and dance.
(a) story
(b) moral
(c) fairytale
Answer:
(a) story

Question 15.
_______ composed by Pandit Vishnusharma is an excellent example of narrative literature.
(a) Champak
(b) Chandamama
(c) Panchatantra
Answer:
(c) Panchatantra

Question 16.
________ was carried out by sea as well as land routes.
(a) Trade
(b) Travel
(c) Study
Answer:
(a) Trade

Question 17.
The concept of stitching clothes was introduced in India during the ______ period.
(a) Vakataka
(b) Kushana
(c) Satavahana
Answer:
(b) Kushana

Question 18.
Jeevaka was a well known ______ at the court of king Bimbisara.
(a) clown
(b) minister
(c) vaidya
Answer:
(c) vaidya

Question 19.
_______ were the first to use the numerals 1 to 9 and zero.
(a) Chinese
(b) Nepalese
(c) Indians
Answer:
(c) Indians

Question 20.
The scientist Aryabhatta wrote the book Aryabhatiya which included many formulae for ______ operations.
(a) mathematical
(b) scientific
(c) medical
Answer:
(a) mathematical

Question 21.
Aryabhatta was also an ________.
a) scientist
(b) astronomer
(c) astrologer
Answer:
(b) astronomer

Question 22.
________ was an important city on the ancient indian trade route.
(a) Nalanda
(b) Vikramshila
(c) Takshashila
Answer:
(c) Takshashila

Question 23.
Emperor Harshavardhan made generous donations to ________University.
(a) Nalanda
(b) Vikramshila
(c) Takshashila
Answer:
(a) Nalanda

Question 24.
Vikramshila University was established by king _______ in the eighth century CE.
(a) Harshavardhan
(b) Dharmapal
(c) Ashoka
Answer:
(b) Dharmapal

Question 25.
During the Pallava dynasty, ________ in Tamil Nadu emerged as an important centre of education.
(a) Nalanda
(b) Valabhi
(c) Kanchi
Answer:
(c) Kanchi

Question 26.
The stone pillars erected by Emperor Ashoka at various places are excellent examples of Indian ________.
(a) sculpture
(b) drawing
(c) photography
Answer:
(a) sculpture

Question 27.
_______ architecture developed during the in South India.
(a) Pillar
(b) Temple
(c) Statue
Answer:
(b) Temple

Question 28.
The art of making ______ images of deities emerged during the period of the Pallavas.
(a) copper
(c) gold
(c) bronze
Answer:
(c) bronze

Question 29.
The ______ pillar at Mehrauli near Delhi is evidence of the advanced knowledge of metallurgy of the ancient Indians.
(a) iron
(b) gold
(c) bronze
Answer:
(a) iron

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
In which languages was the ancient Indian literature written?
Answer:
Ancient Indian literature was written in Sanskrit, Ardhamagadhi, Pali and Tamil languages.

Question 2.
What variety was included in the ancient Indian literature?
Answer:
Ancient Indian literature included varieties like religious literature, treatises on grammar, epics, plays, stories, etc.

Question 3.
What does ‘Sangham’ mean?
Answer:
Sangham means a gathering of learned men.

Question 4.
Name two prominent Sangham epics.
Answer:
The two prominent epics are ‘Silappadhikarm’ and Manimekhalai’.

Question 5.
What do we learn from the Sangham literature?
Answer:
From the Sangham literature we learn about the political and social life in south India during the period.

Question 6.
Name the three important religious texts.
Answer:
The important religious texts are Agamgranth, Tipitaka and Bhagwad Gita.

Question 7.
In which languages are the Jain Agamgranth written?
Answer:
The Jain Agamgranthas are written in the Prakrit languages of Ardhamagadhi, Shaurseni and Maharashtri.

Question 8.
What does Agamgranthas contain?
Answer:
Agamgranthas are a collection of the teachings of Vardhaman Mahavir.

Question 9.
Give the literary work of Haribhadrasuri.
Answer:
Haribhadrasuri’s literary work Samaraichchakaha is well known.

Question 10.
What does Sutta Pitaka contain?
Answer:
Sutta Pitaka includes texts of Gautam Buddha’s teachings or sermons.

Question 11.
What instructions are given in Vinay Pitaka?
Answer:
The Vinay Pitaka gives the rules of behaviour which bhikkhus and bhikkhunis in the Bauddha Sangha should follow in their day- to-day lives.

Question 12.
Which is the sacred text of the Hindus?
Answer:
The Bhagvad Gita is the sacred text of the Hindus.

Question 13.
Who wrote the Arthashastra?
Answer:
Kautilya wrote the Arthashastra.

Question 14.
What is Ashtadhyayi?
Answer:
Ashtadhyayi is a treatise in grammar written by the grammarian Panini.

Question 15.
Name the two Arsha of ancient India.
Answer:
Ramayana and Mahabharata are the two ‘Arsha’ epics of ancient India.

Question 16.
What does ‘Arsha’ mean?
Answer:
Arsha means composed by rishis or sages.

Question 17.
Who wrote the Ramayana?
Answer:
Rishi Valmiki composed the Ramayana.

Question 18.
Who wrote the Mahabharata?
Answer:
The Mahabharata has been composed by sage Vyas.

Question 19.
Which literature is an excellent example of narrative literature?
Answer:
Panchatantra composed by Pandit Vishnusharma is an excellent example of narrative literature.

Question 20.
What are shrenis?
Answer:
Organisations of traders and artisans are called shrenis.

Question 21.
When was the concept of stitching clothes introduced in India?
Answer:
The concept of stitching clothes was introduced in India during the Kushana period.

Question 22.
What does Charaka Samhita contain?
Answer:
The Charaka Samhita contains detailed information about clinical diagnosis and pharmacy.

Question 23.
Explain the concept of decimal system.
Answer:
Indians invented the concept of decimal system in which the value of a digit changes according to its place ekam, daham, (units, terms, etc).

Question 24.
Name some of the students who attended the Takshashila University.
Answer:
A famous vaidya, Jeevaka, Chandragupta Maurya, the grammarian Panini and vaidya Charaka are some of the students of the Takshashila University.

Question 25.
Which Chinese scholar visited the Takshashila University?
Answer:
The famous Chinese Bauddha bhikkhu, Fa-hien visited the Takshashila University.

Question 26.
Name the Chinese Bhikkhus that visited Valabhi.
Answer:
Yuan Chwang and Itsing, the Chinese Bauddha Bhikkhus visited Valabhi.

Question 27.
Which emperor made generous donation to Nalanda University?
Answer:
Emperor Harshavardhan made generous donation to Nalanda University.

Question 28.
How could one get admission at the Nalanda University?
Answer:
Students seeking admission to the university had to appear for an examination at the entrance gate.

Question 29.
Who established the Vikramshila University?
Answer:
Vikramshila University was established by a king named Dharmapal in the eighth century

Question 30.
When did Kanchi emerge as an important centre of education?
Answer:
During the reign of the Pallava dynasty, Kanchi in Tamil Nadu emerged as an important centre of education.

Question 31.
How do we know that Indian sculpture was excellent?
Answer:
The stone pillars erected by Emperor Ashoka at various places are excellent examples of Indian sculptures.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What is a classical period in history?
Answer:
Sometimes there is such a period in the history of language, literature and art and that its glory remains undiminished even later on such a period is said to be classical.

Question 2.
Explain ‘Theatre’.
Answer:
India has an ancient tradition of telling a story through songs, music and dance. When these arts are presented with supporting dialogues they are known as ‘theatre’.

Question 3.
Give the importance of surgeon Sushruta’s treatise.
Answer:

(a) The famous surgeon Sushruta has discussed the diagnosis of different ailments and their remedies in his treatiste the ‘Sushruta Samhita’.

(b) The importance of this text is that it discusses the different causes leading to injuries, fractures, their types and the various types of surgeries required for them.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Takshashila University
Answer:
(a) Takshashila was an important city on the ancient Indian trade route.

(b) Gautama Buddha and a famous vaidya, had studied at Takshashila University.

(c) Chandragupta Maurya the founder of the Mauryan Empire was educated at this university.

(d) The Greek historians who accompanied Alexander have also given a description of if the university. They have stated that such a university did not exist anywhere in Greece.

(e) The famous Chinese Bauddha bhikkhu, Fa- Hien who came to India around 400 CE also visited the Takshashila University. The university provided education in various subjects such as Vedic literature, Buddhist philiosophy, economics, logic, etc.

6th Std History Questions And Answers:

• The Indian Subcontinent and History Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Sources of History Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• The Harappan Civilization Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• The Vedic Civilization Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Religious Trends in Ancient India Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Janapadas and Mahajanapadas Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• India during the Maurya Period Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• States after the Maurya Empire Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Ancient Kingdoms of the South Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Ancient India: Cultural Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Ancient India and the World Class 6 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 4 The Vedic Civilization Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 History Chapter 1 Question Answer The Vedic Civilization Maharashtra Board

Class 6 History Chapter 1 The Vedic Civilization Question Answer Maharashtra Board

The Vedic Civilization Class 6 Questions And Answers

1. Name the following with reference to the lesson:

The Vedic Civilization Class 6 Question 1.
Women scholars in Vedic literature:
Answer:
Lopamudra, Gargi, Maitreyi.

The Vedic Civilization Class 6 Questions And Answers Question 2.
Means of entertainment in the Vedic period:
Answer:
Singing, playing musical instruments, dance, board games, chariot race and hunting.

The Vedic Civilization Class 6 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board Question 3.
The four ashrams:
Answer:
Brahmacharyashrama, Grihasthashrama, Vanaprasthashrama, Sanyasashrama

2. Right or wrong?

Class 6 History Chapter 4 Question 1.
Rigveda – Mantras uttered during yajna.
Answer:
Wrong.

Vedic Age Question And Answer Class 6 Question 2.
Samaveda – Guidance on singing a mantra during yajna rites.
Answer:
Right.

Vedic Civilization Class 6 Question 3.
Atharvaveda – The Veda derived its name from Atharva rishi.
Answer:
Right.

3. Answer in one word each:

Class 6 History Chapter 4 Questions And Answers Question 1.
The language of Vedic literature:
Answer:
Sanskrit.

Chapter 4 Class 6 History Question 2.
The meaning of vid:
Answer:
To know.

Class 6 History Chapter 4 Notes Question 3.
The head of a family:
Answer:
Grihapati.

History Class 6 Chapter 4 Question 4.
The head of shrenis:
Answer:
Shreshthi

4. Name the following:

Question 1.
The musical instruments you know:
Answer:
Guitar, drums, piano (Keyboard).

Question 2.
Two modern ornaments of women:
Answer:
Earing, necklace.

Question 3.
Today’s means of entertainment:
Answer:
Movies, computer games, T.V.

5. Answer in short:

Question 1.
What foods were included in the diet of the Vedic people?
Answer:
(a) The diet of the people mainly consisted of cereals like wheat, barley and rice. From this they made different preparations like java, godhoom, vihi, etc.
(b) They also relished milk, yoghurt, ghee, butter, honey, black gram, lentil, sesame and meat.

Question 2.
Why were the cows priced highly?
Answer:
(a) Cows were used as means of exchange. They were highly priced.
(b) For the same reason people took great care that their cows should not be stolen.

Question 3.
What was a man expected to do in sanyasashrama ?
Answer:
The fourth stage was the sanyasharam. At this stage a man was expected to renounce all relations, lead a life in order to understand the meaning of human life and not stay in one place.

6. Write notes on:

Question 1.
The religious ideas during the vedic period.
Answer:
(a) In the religious ideas of the vedic period, forces of nature such as the sun, wind, rain, lightening, storms and rivers were given the form of deities.
(b) Yajna is the act of offering havi into fire. The Vedic people put offering (havi) into the yajna fire to please the deities.

Question 2.
Houses in the Vedic period.
Answer:
The houses during the vedic period were earthen or wattle and daub constituents. Wattle means woven lattice of wooden strips which is daubed with clay mixed with cow dung. A house was called griha or shala.

Question 3.
Political system in the Vedic period.
Answer:
(a) The main duties of a king were to protect the people, collect taxes and run the administration efficiently.
(b) In order to run the administration smoothly, the king appointed various officers like the purohit (priest), the senapati and bhagdugh.
(c) There were four institutions who guided the king – sabha, samiti, vidath and jana.

Activity:

• Interview some artisans in your locality and write about them.
• List the new words in the lesson and find their meaning.

Class 6 History Chapter 4 The Vedic Civilization Additional Important Questions and Answers

Name the following with reference to the lesson:

Question 1.
Houses during the Vedic period:
Answer:
Griha or Shala.

Question 2.
The four varnas:
Answer:
Brahmin, Kshatriya, Vaishya and Shudra,

Question 3.
Four institutions who guided the king:
Answer:
Sabha, samiti, vidath and jana.

Right or Wrong?

Question 1.
Brahmanas – Guidance on using vedic mantra in yajna rituals.
Answer:
Right.

Question 2.
Institution who guided the king – Purohit, senapati, bhagdugh.
Answer:
Wrong.

Answer in one word each:

Question 1.
The head of vish:
Answer:
Vishpati.

Question 2.
The head of jana:
Answer:
Nripa.

Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
The civilization that is based on vedic literature is known as _________ civilization.
(a) vedic
(b)purans
(c) samhitas
Answer:
(a) vedic

Question 2.
The Vedas are considered to be our _________ literature.
(a) modem
(b) earliest
(c) medieval
Answer:
(b) earliest

Question 3.
The _______ were composed by many sages or rishis.
(a) Brahmana
(b) Aryanakas
(c) Vedas
Answer:
(c) Vedas

Question 4.
Vedic literature is written in _________.
(a) English
(b) Hindi
(c) Sanskrit
Answer:
(c) Sanskrit

Question 5.
The Rigveda is considered to be the _______ text.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
Answer:
(a) first

Question 6.
The Vedas have been preserved through the ________ tradition.
(a) ancient
(b) oral
(c) printed
Answer:
(b) oral

Question 7.
The vedas are also called as ________.
(a) Shruti
(b) Mayuri
(c)Yagna
Answer:
(a) Shruti

Question 8.
Each verse of the Veda is known as a ______.
(a) Shruti
(b) Maya
(c) Richa
Answer:
(c) Richa

Question 9.
The Rigveda consists of many ________ composed to praise different deities.
(a) richas
(b) suktas
(c) shruti
Answer:
(b) suktas

Question 10.
Yajurveda provides guidance about how and when the different ______ must be chanted during the yajna rites.
(a) mantras
(b) yajnas
(c) vedas
Answer:
(a) mantras

Question 11.
The samaveda has contributed in a major way in laying the foundation of Indian _______.
(a) society
(b) music
(c) lifestyle
Answer:
(b) music

Question 12.
The Atharvaveda is named after Atharva ________.
(a) Rishi
(b) mantra
(c) veda
Answer:
(a) Rishi

Question 13.
Atharvaveda includes______ to adversities and diseases.
(a) medicine
(b) ways
(c) solutions
Answer:
(c) solutions

Question 14.
The Atharvaveda provides _________ to the king about how he should administer his kingdom.
(a) solution
(b) guidance
(c) tradition
Answer:
(b) guidance

Question 15.
The _______ discuss such serious and profound issues.
(a) Vedas
(b) Aranyakas
(c) Upanishads
Answer:
(c) Upanishads

Question 16.
_________ family system was prevalent in Vedic peroid
(a) Joint
(b) matriarchal
(c) patriarchal
Answer:
(a) Joint

Question 17.
The grihapati was the of the family.
(a) heart
(b) head
(c) hands
Answer:
(b) head

Question 18.
The family system was ______
(a) ancient
(b) matriarchal
(c) patriarchal
Answer:
(c) patriarchal

Question 19.
A ________ was called griha or shala.
(a) house
(b) shed
(c) school
Answer:
(a) house

Question 20.
People in the Vedic period used cotton and woollen ________.
(a) headgear
(b) shawls
(c) garments
Answer:
(c) garments

Question 21.
In the Vedic period, animal skins were also used as ________ the Vedic period.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Clothings
(c) Trade
Answer:
(b) Clothings

Question 22.
_________ was the main occupation during determined on the basis of
(a) Agriculture
(b) birth
(c) death
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 23.
The horse was valued because of its ______.
(a) chariot
(b) speed
(c) beauty
Answer:
(b) speed

Question 24.
The Vedic people were skilled in taming the _______ and harnessing them to the chariots.
(a) cows
(b) bulls
(c) horses
Answer:
(c) horses

Question 25.
The head of the guild was known as ________.
(a) Grihapati
(b) Shreshthi
(c) Raja
Answer:
(b) Shreshthi

Question 26.
A varna was determined by the ________ of the people.
(a) occupation
(b) neighbours
(c) skill
Answer:
(a) occupation

Question 27.
In the later period, the varnas came to be determined on the basis of ________.
(a) bags
(b) birth
(c) shoes
Answer:
(b) birth

Question 28.
The caste system led to ________ in the society.
(a) justice
(b) equality
(c) inequality
Answer:
(c) inequality

Question 29.
The Vedic people put _______ into the yajna fire to please the deities.
(a) offerings
(b) money
(c) water
Answer:
(a) offerings

Question 30.
In the Vedic period, each village had a head known as _______.
(a) grihapati
(b) gramini
(c) nripa
Answer:
(b) gramini

Question 31.
A group of villages formed a vish, whose head was called ________.
(a) grihapati
(b) purohit
(c) vishpati
Answer:
(c) vishpati

Question 32.
The head of the jana was known as nripa or _______.
(a) raja
(b) janapad
(c) senapati
Answer:
(a) raja

Question 33.
The ______ consisted of senior citizens of the state.
(a) samiti
(b) sabha
(c) vidath
Answer:
(b) sabha

Question 34.
After a period of time, the religious stream based on the vedas, smritis, puranas and local traditions came to be known as
(а) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Hinduism
Answer:
(c) Hinduism

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is vedic civilization?
Answer:
The civilization that is based on vedic literature is known as vedic civilization.

Question 2.
Who composed the vedas?
Answer:
The vedas were composed by many sages or rishis.

Question 3.
In which language is the vedic literature written?
Answer:
Vedic literature is written in Sanskrit.

Question 4.
Name the veda that is considered to be the first text.
Answer:
The Rigveda is considered to be the first text.

Question 5.
Name the four vedas.
Answer:
The four vedas are – Rigveda, Yajurveda, Samaveda and Atharvaveda.

Question 6.
What does Rigveda consist of?
Answer:
The Rigveda consists of many suktas composed to praise different deities.

Question 7.
What does Yajurveda provide?
Answer:
Yajurveda provides guidance about how and when the different mantras must be chanted during yajna rites.

Question 8.
What does Samaveda provide?
Answer:
The Samaveda provides guidance on singing Rigvedic verses to a set rhythm and tune at the time of yajna rites.

Question 9.
After whom is the Atharvaveda named?
Answer:
The Atharvaveda is name after Atharva rishi.

Question 10.
Which texts were written after the Samhitas?
Answer:
The Brahmana texts, Aranyakas and Upanishads were written after the composition of the Samhitas.

Question 11.
What does Aranyakas consists of?
Answer:
Aranyakas consists of the reflections or thoughts expressed after meditating with deep concentration in forests or wilderness.

Question 12.
Which family system was prevalent in the vedic period?
Answer:
Joint family system was prevalent in the vedic period.

Question 13.
Name some women scholars during the vedic period.
Answer:
Women scholars such as Lopamudra, Gargi and Maitreyi are mentioned in the vedic literature.

Question 14.
What did the diet of the people mainly consist of?
Answer:
The diet of the people mainly consists of cereals like wheat, barley and rice.

Question 15.
What was the main occupation during the vedic period?
Answer:
Agriculture was the main occupation during the vedic period.

Question 16.
Name the varnas.
Answer:
The four varnas are Brahmin, Kshatriya, Vaishya and Shudra.

Question 17.
Which four institutions guided the king?
Answer:
The four institutions that guided the king are sabha, samiti, vidath and jana.

Question 18.
What is Hinduism?
Answer:
After a period of time, the religious stream based on the vedas, smritis, puranas and local traditions came to be known as Hinduism.

Answer in short:

Question 1.
What does Atharvaveda consists of?
Answer:

• Atharvaveda consists of solution to adversities and diseases.
• It provides information about medicinal herbs.
• It provides guidance to a king about the way he should administer his kingdom.

Question 2.
Describe the dress of the people during the vedic period.
Answer:
People in the vedic period used cotton and woollen garments, they also used clothes made from the barks of trees. Animal skins were also used as clothing.

Write notes on:

Question 1.
Describe four stages or four ashramas.
Answer:
The four ashramas are brahmacharyashmma, grihasthashrama, vanaprasthashrama, sanyasashrama.

1. The first ashrama was the brahmacharyashrama or the period of staying with the Guru to learn from him.
2. The next stage was grihasthashrama, during this period a man would carry out his duties towards his family and society with the help of his wife.
3. The third stage was vanaprasthashrama when a man was expected to detach himself from the household, retire to a solitary place and lead a very simple life.
4. The fourth stage was the sanyasashrama, the convention was to renounce all relations, lead life in order to understand the meaning of human life and not to stay in one place.

6th Std History Questions And Answers:

• The Indian Subcontinent and History Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Sources of History Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• The Harappan Civilization Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• The Vedic Civilization Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Religious Trends in Ancient India Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Janapadas and Mahajanapadas Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• India during the Maurya Period Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• States after the Maurya Empire Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Ancient Kingdoms of the South Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Ancient India: Cultural Class 6 History Questions And Answers
• Ancient India and the World Class 6 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 9 Ancient Kingdoms of the South Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 History Chapter 9 Question Answer Ancient Kingdoms of the South Maharashtra Board

Class 6 History Chapter 9 Ancient Kingdoms of the South Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Ancient Kingdoms of the South Class 6 Questions And Answers

1. Can you tell ?

Question 1.
Whose name did the Satavahana kings write before their own?
Answer:
Jhe Satavahana kings were known to follow the custom of writing their mother’s name before their own.

Question 2.
The ancient name of Kolhapur.
Answer:
The ancient name of Kolhapur was ‘Kuntal’.

2. Complete the table by reading the map in the lesson:

Pallava	Kanchi
	Aihole, Badami, Pattdakal
Satavahana

Answer:

Pallava	Kanchi
Chalukya	Aihole, Badami, Pattdakal
Satavahana	Ajanta, Ellora, Nashik, Bhokardan

3. Tabulate the following names as dynasties and their capitals:
Satavahana, Pandya, Chalukya,Vakataka, Pallava, Madurai, Pratishthan, Kanchipuram, Vatapi
Answer:

Dynasty                                                                     Capital
Satavahana	Pratishthan
Chalukya	Vatapi
Vakataka	Vatsagulm
Pallava	Kanchipuram
Pandya	Madurai

4. Observe any three picture in the lesson and write in your own words what you learn from them:
Answer:
The Kailas Temple:

The Kailas temple at Ellora in Maharashtra was carved out during the reign of Krishna Raja I. This temple is the largest rock-cut monolithic ancient Hindu temple. This temple gets its name Kailas as it symbolizes mount Kailas, the home of Lord Shiva.

A Satavahana coin:

Indian trade was at its zenith during the Satavahana period. Indian goods were exported to western countries and even as far as Rome. Trade took place by sea and this fact is known through coins which have the image of a ship carved on it.

The Ratha or chariot temples:

The rathas or shrines shaped as temple chariot are hewn from the granite rock. They are a perfect example of monilithic rock-cut architecture of the Pallava dynasty. These group monuments at Mahabalipuram has been classified as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

5. Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the ancient dynasties of Southern India.
Answer:
The Cher, Pandya and Chola dynasty were the ancient dynasties of Southern India.

Question 2.
After the decline of the Mauryan Empire which local kings became independent?
Answer:
After the decline of the Mauryan Empire, the local kings in Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka became independent.

6. Anwer in brief:

Question 1.
Write about the achievements of Mahendra Varman.
Answer:

• Mahendra Varman was an able Pallava ruler.
• He expanded the Pallava kingdom.
• He was also a playwright.

Question 2.
What is meant by Tri-samudra-toya-peet- vahnah?
Answer:
Tri-samudra-toya-peet-vahnah means ‘one whose houses have drunk the water of three seas’. It simply means to describe the one whose kingdom is so vast that it extends to the three seas, i.e. Arabian sea, the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean.

Question 3.
What goods were exported from the Muziris port?
Answer:
Goods like spices, pearls, precious stones were exported from the Muziris port.

Activity:

Make a collection of the pictures in the chapter and display them in the school exhibition

Class 6 History Chapter 9 Ancient Kingdoms of the South Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
Muziris is mentioned as an important port on the coast of _______.
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Chennai
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 2.
Muziris port was in the ______ Kingdom and was a major centre for export.
(a) Chola
(b) Pandya
(c) Cher
Answer:
(c) Cher

Question 3.
The Pandya kingdom was a part of today’s ______.
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Maharashtra
Answer:
(b) Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
The capital of the Pandya kingdom was ______.
(a) Kodaikanal
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Madurai

Question 5.
After the decline of the Mauryan Empire, the local kings in Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh Karnataka also became _____.
(a) independent
(b) dependent
(c) republic
Answer:
(a) independent

Question 6.
Pratishthan or the present day Paithan in ______ was the capital of Satvahana Dynasty.
(a) Delhi
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

Question 7.
King Simuk was the founder of the _______ dynasty.
(a) Satavahana
(b) Vakataka
(c) Chalukya
Answer:
(a) Satavahana

Question 8.
The inscription in the _______ caves near Junnar in Pune district bear the names of the important persons of this dynasty.
(a) Kanheri
(b) Kolhapur
(c) Naneghat
Answer:
(c) Naneghat

Question 9.
Of the ________ Kings, Gautamiputra Satakarni is particularly well known.
(a) Chalukya
(b) Satavahana
(c) Vakataka
Answer:
(a) Chalukya

Question 10.
Satakarni defeated the _________ king Nahpana.
(a) Shaka
(b) Cher
(c) Paithan
Answer:
(a) Shaka

Question 11.
The famous poetic work Gatha-Saptashati in Maharashtri, was ________ by the Satavahana king Hala.
(a) composed
(b) edited
(c) sung
Answer:
(a) composed

Question 12.
Indian trade ________ greatly during the Satavahana period.
(a) decreased
(b) increased
(c) receded
Answer:
(b) increased

Question 13.
Paithan, Ter, Bhokardan, Kolhapur were recognised as important centres of ________.
(a) music
(b) culture
(c) trade
Answer:
(c) trade

Question 14.
Indian goods were exported as far away as ________.
(a) America
(b) Rome
(c) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(b) Rome

Question 15.
The cave sculptures at Ajanta, Nashik, Karla, Bhaje, Kanheri, Junnar in Maharashtra were carved during the ______ period.
(a) Satavahana
(b) Vakataka
(c) Cher
Answer:
(a) Satavahana

Question 16.
The power of the Satavahanas began to _______ by the third century CE.
(a) strengthen
(b) weaken
(c) flourish
Answer:
(b) weaken

Question 17.
Among the dynasties that emerged after the Satavahana period was the Vakataka, a _______ dynasty.
(a) powerful
(b) varied
(c) dynamic
Answer:
(a) powerful

Question 18.
The Vakataka dynasty was founded by _____.
(a) King Pravarsen
(b) King Pulakeshi
(c) King Vindhyashakti
Answer:
(c) King Vindhyashakti

Question 19.
King Vindhyashakti was ______ by Pravarsen I.
(a) succeeded
(b) finalised
(c) demoralised
Answer:
(a) succeeded

Question 20.
Chandragupta II had married his daughter Prabhavati to _________, the Vakataka king.
(a) Dantidurg
(b) Setubandh
(c) Rudrasen II
Answer:
(c) Rudrasen II

Question 21.
Varahdev, a minister of the Vakataka king Harishen, was a follower of _______.
(a) Judaism
(b) Buddhism
(c) Elinduism
Answer:
(b) Buddhism

Question 22.
Kalidasa’s ______ also belongs to the Vakataka period.
(a) Meghadoot
(b) Setubandh
(c) Saptashati
Answer:
(a) Meghadoot

Question 23.
The Chalukya dynasty in _____ was a powerful one.
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Karnataka
(c) Nepal
Answer:
(b) Karnataka

Question 24.
Pulakeshi I established the rule of the Chalukya Ancient Kingdoms of the South dynasty in the _______ century CE.
(a) fourth
(b) fifth
(c) sixth
Answer:
(c) sixth

Question 25.
The famous temples at Badami, Aihole and Pattadakal were built during the _______ period,
(a) Vakataka
(b) Satavahana
(c) Chalukya
Answer:
(c) Chalukya

Question 26.
The Pallavas were also powerful dynasty in ______ India.
(a) South
(b) North
(c) East
Answer:
(a) South

Question 27.
_______ in Tamil Nadu was the capital of the Pallava dynasty.
(a) Mahabalipuram
(b) Kanchipuram
(c) Ellora
Answer:
(b) Kanchipuram

Question 28.
Mahendra Varman was an able _______ ruler.
(a) Chalukya
(b) Pallava
(c) Vakataka
Answer:
(b) Pallava

Question 29.
The famous ‘ratha’ temples of ________ were sculpted during the reign of Mahendra Varman.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Kaniyakumari
(c) Mahabalipuram
Answer:
(c) Mahabalipuram

Question 30.
The Pallavas had a powerful and well equipped ______.
(a) army
(b) navy
(c) airforce
Answer:
(b) navy

Question 31.
The Rashtrakuta dynasty was first established in ______ by king Dantidurg.
(a) Mahabalipuram
(b) Nepal
(c) Maharashtra
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 32.
Krishna Raja I had the famous Kailas temple carved at _______.
(a) Ellora
(b) Ajanta
(c) Kanheri
Answer:
(a) Ellora

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the ancient dynasties of Southern India.
Answer:
The Cher, Pandya and Chola dynasty were the ancient dynasties of Southern India.

Question 2.
Which ancient port is mentioned as an important port?
Answer:
‘Muziris, is mentioned as an important port on the coast of Kerala.

Question 3.
What was the capital of the Paridya kingdom?
Answer:
The capital of the Pandya kingdom was Madurai.

Question 4.
What was the capital of the Satavahana dynasty?
Answer:
Pratishthan or the preseht day Paithan in Maharashtra was the capital of the Satavahana dynasty.

Question 5.
Who was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty?
Answer:
iCing Simuk was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty.

Question 6.
Which custom did the Satavahana kings follow?
Answer:
The Satavahana kings were known to follow the custom of writing their mother’s name before their own.

Question 7.
Name a popular Satavahana king.
Answer:
Gautamiputra Satakarni was a very well known Satavahana king.

Question 8.
What title was given to Gautamiputra Satakarni?
Answer:
Gautamiputra Satakarni was awarded the title Tri-samudra-toya-peet-vahan’.

Question 9.
Give the extent of the Satavahana empire.
Answer:
The Satavahana empire extended from the river Narmada in the north to the Tunga- bhadra river in the south.

Question 10.
Name the trade centres of the Satavahana period.
Answer:
Paithan, Ter, Bhokardan, Kolhapur were recognised as important trade centres of the Satavahana period.

Question 11.
Which caves were sculpted during the Satavahana period?
Answer:
The Caves at Ajanta, Nashik, Karla, Bhaje, Kanheri, Junnar in Maharashtra were carved during the Satavahana period.

Question 12.
Which dynasty emerged after the Satavahan dynasty?
Answer:
The Vakataka dynasty emerged after the Satavahana dynasty.

Question 13.
Who founded the Vakataka dynasty?
Answer:
The Vakataka dynasty was founded by king Vindhyashakti.

Question 14.
What did the Vakataka king, Pravarsen II compose?
Answer:
The Vakataka king Pravarsen II composed ‘Setubandh’ in Maharashtra.

Question 15.
What was the name of Kalidasa’s literature?
Answer:
Kalidasa’s literature was ‘Meghdoot’.

Question 16.
Which powerful dynasty was from Karnataka?
Answer:
The Chalukya dynasty was a powerful dynasty from Karnataka.

Question 17.
Name the capital of the Chalukya dynasty.
Answer:
Badami or Vatapi was the capital of the Chalukya dynasty.

Question 18.
Name the temples built during the Chalukya period.
Answer:
The famous temples at Badami, Aihole and Pattadakal were built during the Chalukya period.

Question 19.
Which powerful dynasty existed in South India?
Answer:
The Pallavas were a powerful dynasty in South India.

Question 20.
Name the capital of the Pallava Kingdom.
Answer:
Kanchipuram in Tamil Nadu was the capital of the Pallava kingdom.

Question 21.
What is characteristic of the ‘ratha’ temples?
Answer:
The ‘ratha’ temples of Mahabalipuram are characteristic to have been sculpted from a single rock.

Question 22.
Write Yuan Chwang’s opinion about the Pallava kings.
Answer:
Yuan Chwang visited Kanchi and recorded that people of all religions received tolerant and just treatment under the rule of the Pallava kings.

Question 23.
Who was the founder of the Rashtrakuta Dynasty?
Answer:
King Dantidurg was the founder of the Rashtrakuta Dynasty.

Question 24.
Who sculpted the Kailas temple at Ellora?
Answer:
Krishna Raja I had the famous Kailas temple carved at Ellora.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Describe the work of literature by king Hala.
Answer:
The Satavahana king Hala composed the famous poetic work Gatha-Saptashati in Maharashtrin a Prakrit language.
This work provides information about the life of the people during the Satavahana period.

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