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Std 9 Geography Chapter 7 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

February 4, 2025January 3, 2025 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 International Date Line Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

International Date Line Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 International Date Line Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 9 Chapter 7 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Two boxes in different hemispheres are given in the following diagram. The IDL passes through both the boxes. In one box, the meridian, day and date is given. Find the day and date for the other box.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 International Date Line 1
Answer:

2. Select the correct option :

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 International Date Line Question 1.
While crossing the IDL, a person will have to add one day when traveling from
(a) East to West
(b) West to East
(c) South to North
(d) North to South
Answer:
(a) East to West

International Date Line Class 9 Question 2.
If it is Wednesday 10 a.m. at 150 E meridian, then what will be the time at IDL?
(a) Wednesday at 6 a.m.
(b) Wednesday 9 p.m.
(c) Thursday 2 p.m.
(d) Thursday at 6 p.m.
Answer:
(b) Wednesday 9 p.m.

International Date Line Questions And Answers Question 3.
According to the international convention, at which meridian does the day and date change occurs?
(a) 0°
(b) 90° E
(c) 90° W
(d) 180°
Answer:
(d) 180°

International Date Line 9th Std Geography Question 4.
At which direction of the IDL does a new day start immediately?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) South
Answer:
(b) West

9 Std Geography International Date Line Question 5.
IDL brings coordination in which of the following?
(a) GPS system
(b) Defence departments
(c) Transportation schedules
(d) Determining the hemisphere
Answer:
(c) Transportation schedules

3. Give geographical reasons

Std 9 Geography Chapter 7 International Date Line Question 1.
IDL is proving to be very useful in today’s times
Answer:
IDL is proving to be very useful in today’s times because:

The IDL brings coordination between international airlines, transportation services, economic and trade activities.
The IDL has been carved out of the necessity of coordinating time and date.
It is also important in today’s modern era and rapidly happening global developments.
We can keep a track of all the calculations of a day and time accurately with the help of IDL in case of global transportation especially, with respect to airways.
It is only because of the IDL that the schedules of the traffic worldwide are organised properly.

Class 9th Geography Chapter 7 Question Answer Question 2.
The day starts in the Pacific Ocean on the earth
Answer:

The IDL passes through the Pacific Ocean.
With reference to the IDL, the day on Earth starts in the West and ends in the East.
It is one and the same day only at 12 o’clock midnight at the 180° meridian.
For the countries lying to the east of it i.e. the USA, Chile, etc., it is the end of the day while for the countries lying to the west of it i.e. Japan, Australia, etc. it is the start of a new day.

Thus, a new day starts in the Pacific Ocean on Earth.

4. Write in brief:

International Date Line Std 9 Question 1.
What considerations have been made while deciding the IDL?
Answer:
The following points were taken into consideration while drawing the International Date Line. (IDL):

1. The direction of travel
2. The current day and date

- Accordingly, while traveling from East to West of IDL, a day is added. For example, while travelling from America to Japan, if it is Thursday 25th December, then it will be Friday 26th December in Japan.
- While from West to East of IDL, the day remains the same. For example, while travelling from Japan to America, if it is Thursday 25th December, then Thursday 25th December, only should be considered.

Question 2.
While crossing the IDL, what changes will you make?
Answer:

When you cross the 180° meridian, some precautions need to be taken.
There is a difference of 12 hours from Prime Meridian, if you go from East or West.
According to the convention, the start (and end) of a date is considered to be at 180° Meridian.
Accordingly, an adjustment or change in day and time is made. Thus, while travelling from east to west of IDL , a day is added whereas while travelling from west to east of IDL, the day remains the same.

Question 3.
Why is the IDL not a straight line like the 1800 meridian?
Answer:

Attempt has been made to make the IDL pass through the Pacific Ocean completely.
Had it passed through a land or some islands, the people there would have had to follow different dates and timings because dates would have been different on their Eastern and Western parts.
Also, it would have been difficult to know when one crosses the IDL on land, and when the date changes on the calendar.
Therefore, the IDL is not a straight line like the 1 180° Meridian. At places, it turns East while at other places, it turns West.

Question 4.
Why doesn’t the IDL pass through land?
Answer:

If the IDL had passed through a land or some islands, the people there would have had to follow different dates and timings because dates would have been different on their Eastern and Western parts.
Also, it would have been difficult to know when one crosses the IDL on land and when the date changes on the calendar.
Hence, the IDL does not pass through land

Question 5.
Why is the IDL considered with respect to the 1800 meridian only?
Answer:

Our 24-hour day starts at 12 midnight. Because of the earth’s rotation, the midnight occurs at different times, at different places.
As the Earth is spherical in shape, every place has a place to its East.
So, it was necessary to determine at what location to the East does the day start on Earth.
Hence, representatives of many nations got together, under the leadership of an American Professor, Davidson, in the year 1884 and decided the International Date Line.
The line was drawn opposite to the Greenwich Prime Meridian i.e. with reference to the 180° Meridian.

5. Using an atlas, tell in which of the following routes the IDL will be crossed and show them on the map.

(1) Mumbai- London- New York- Los Angeles- Tokyo
(2) Delhi- Kolkata- Singapore- Melbourne
(3) Kolkata- Hong Kong- Tokyo- San Francisco
(4) Chennai-Singapore- Tokyo- Sydney-Santiago
(5) Delhi-London-New York
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 International Date Line 3
Answer:
(1) Mumbai – London – New York – Los Angeles – Tokyo – IDL will be crossed.
(2) Delhi – Kolkata – Singapore – Melbourne – IDL will not be crossed
(3) Kolkata – Hong Kong – Tokyo – San Fransico – IDL will be crossed.
(4) Chennai – Singapore – Tokyo – Sydney – Santiago – IDL will be crossed
(5) Delhi – London – New York – IDL will not be crossed.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 International Date Line Intext Questions and Answers

Use your Brain Power:

Question 1.
You are traveling from the Kamchatka Peninsula (in the northern hemisphere) to New Zealand (in the southern hemisphere) along the IDL. It is Monday, 22nd June in the northern hemisphere. What will the day and date in the southern hemisphere?
Answer:
The day will be Monday, 22nd June as we are not crossing the IDL.

Examine a ticket of UA 876 Boeing 787-9 Dreamliner closely and find the answers to the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 International Date Line 4

Question 1.
From which country will the plane take off and where will it go?
Answer:
The plane will take off from Tokyo (Japan) and will go to San Francisco, California (USA)

Question 2.
What is the duration of the flight?
Answer:
The duration of the flight is 9hrs and 15 min.

Question 3.
What is the day, date and time given at the starting point and destination of the flight?
Answer:
At the starting point of Tokyo (Japan) it is Friday, 1st April 12.30 am and at the destination of San Francisco California (USA) it will arrive on Thursday March 31st at 5.45 pm.

Question 4.
What special note is given on the air ticket?
Answer:
A special note on the ticket states that the flight involves a date change.

Question 5.
What could be the reason behind giving such a note?
Answer:
The reason behind giving such a note is to make us understand that the flight will cross the IDL

Question 6.
During this flight, will the plane cross the IDL? If yes, then from which direction to which direction?
Answer:
During this flight, the plane will cross the IDL from west to east.

Question 7.
What did you understand by reading the ticket?
Answer:
We understand that a day is deducted and the time is fixed backward by 1 day while crossing the IDL from west to east.

Try this:

Question 1.
Complete the following table to understand the time at different meridians: (In this activity we are not taking into consideration the rotation of the earth.)
Answer:

All places to east of Prime Meridian are ahead of GMT and all places to west of Prime Meridian are behind GMT.
Earth rotates on its axis and covers 1° longitude in 4 minutes.
As Sunil is moving 30° east, time will move ahead by 120 min, i.e. 2 hours (30° x 4 min.) and as Minal is moving 30° west, time will move backwards by 120 min. i.e. 2 hours.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 International Date Line 5

Question 1.
What is the day at 00 meridians at Greenwich after completing the table ‘A’?
Answer:
The day at 0° meridian at Greenwich after completing the table ‘A’ is Wednesday.

Question 2.
What is the day at 00 meridians at Greenwich after completing the table ‘B’?
Answer:
The day at 0° meridian at Greenwich after completing the table B is Friday.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 International Date Line 7

Question 3.
Though both were at the same place, why were they experiencing different days? How did this happen?
Answer:
Because Sunil was moving eastward, so time will move ahead whereas Meenal was moving westward, so time is moving backward.

Question 4.
How many days occurred while doing this activity? Name them.
Answer:
While doing this activity, 3 days came in reference as Wednesday, Thurday and Friday.

Question 5.
Which day is correct: Wednesday in Table ‘A’ or Friday in Table ‘B’? Why?
Answer:
None of the given days are correct. The correct day is Thursday after considering IDL.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 International Date Line 8
Explanation:
(i) When Sunil reached 180° meridian i.e. IDL, according to him it is Thursday midnight (24.00). When IDL is crossed from west to east we need to deduct a day (24 hrs.). Thus when 24 hrs are deducted from Thursday 24.00 (midnight) we get Thursday 00.00. So after crossing the IDL the day to be considered is Thursday i.e. the same day.

(ii) When Minal reached 180° meridian i.e. IDL, according to her it is Wednesday midnight (24.00). When IDL is crossed from east to west we need to add a day (24 hrs.). Thus when 24 hrs are added to Wednesday 24.00 (midnight) we get Thursday 24.00 (midnight). So after crossing the IDL the day to be considered is Thursday.

Give it a try:

Your are now aware of the changes required to be made while crossing the ¡DL. Now redo the activity given on Page 59. Tell us the changes that you will have to make while crossing the IDL i.e. 1800 meridian. Your travel will start on Sunday, 21st May 2016 at 10 a.m.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 International Date Line 9

Let’s Recall:

Question 1.
Which meridian is used to determine world standard Time (GMT)?
Answer:
World Standard Time (GMT) is determined using Prime Meridian at 0° longitude.

Question 2.
Which meridian determines Indian Standard Time (1ST)?
Answer:
82°30′ E is the standard meridian of India.

Question 3.
What is the time difference between the GMT and the IST?
Answer:
IST is 5hrs and 30 min ahead of GMT.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 7 International Date Line Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the Statements choosing correct option:

Question 1.
Man has studied the rotation speed, direction and shape of the earth and prepared the system.
(a) monometric
(b) chronometric
(c) topographic
(d) GIS
Answer:
(b) Chronometric

Question 2.
Earth rotates from
(a) north to south
(b) south to north
(c) east to west
(d) west to east
Answer:
(d) west to east

Question 3.
In terms of time the part of the earth is ahead of the part.
(a) northern, southern
(b) southern, northern
(c) eastern, western
(d) western, eastern
Answer:
(c) eastern, western

Question 4.
is reached after 12 hours from Prime Meridian
(a) 90° W
(b) 90° E
(c) 180°
(d)120°W
Answer:
(c) 180°

Question 5.
According to IDL, while traveling from east to west
(a) a day is added
(b) a day is deducted
(c) keep the same day
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) a day is added

Question 6.
Many nations got together under the leadership of in 1884 and decided on International Date Line.
(a) Professor Davidson
(b) Professor Samuelson
(c) Professor Adam Smith
(d) Professor Richardson
Answer:
(a) Professor Davidson

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
If it is 12noon at the Prime Meridian then what will be the time at 60°E longitude?
Answer:
If its is 12noon at the Prime Meridian, then it will be 16.00hrs (4pm) at 60°E longitude.

Question 2.
Which part of the earth is ahead in terms of time?
Answer:
In terms of time the eastern part of the earth is ahead of the western part.

Question 3.
When was it decided to draw the International Date line?
Answer:
When representatives of many nations got together under the leadership of American professor Davidson in the year of 1884 they decided on the International Date line.

Question 4.
A new day starts on the earth in which Ocean?
Answer:
A new day starts in the Pacific Ocean on the earth.

The following table shows the days and time to welcome New Year in different countries and cities according to 1ST. Observe the table and answer the questions gives below:

Country-city	Day	Indian Time
England – London	Sunday	05.30
Japan – Tokyo	Saturday	20.30
USA-New York	Sunday	10.30
USA – Baker Island	Sunday	17.30
Australia – Sydney	Saturday	18.30
New Zealand – Auckland	Saturday	16.30
Samoa Island – Apia	Saturday	15.30
Tuvalu – Funafuti Island	Saturday	17.30

Question 1.
Which location was the first to welcome the New Year in the World? What day was it then?
Answer:
Samoa islands in Apia was the first to welcome the New Year in the world on Saturday.

Question 2.
Which location bid farewell to the year 2016, the last of all?
Answer:
Baker islands in USA was last to bid farewell to the year 2016.

Question 3.
On which day did that location welcome 2017?
Answer:
Baker islands in USA welcomed 2017 on Sunday.

Question 4.
What could be the reason behind the change in the day of Sydney and London?
Answer:
According to 1ST, India welcomed the New Year at 12 midnight on Saturday. Sydney being 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of IST and has already welcomed the New year before India on Saturday itself. But London is 5 hours and 30 minutes behind IST will welcome the New Year the next day i.e. on Sunday.

9th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Endogenetic Movements

February 4, 2025January 3, 2025 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Endogenetic Movements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Endogenetic Movements Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Endogenetic Movements Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 9 Chapter 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Tick in front of the correct option ✓

(a) On which of the following are slow movements in the earth’s interior dependent?
Landforms [ ]
Velocity [ ]
Direction [ ]
Answer:
Velocity

(b) When waves divert from each other, what do they create
Compression [ ]
Tension [ ]
Mountain [ ]
Answer:
Tension

(c) For the formation of a rift valley, which of the following processes should occur in the earth’s crust?
Compression [ ]
Tension [ ]
Weathering [ ]
Answer:
Tension

(d) Which of these is a fold mountain?
The Satpudas [ ]
The Himalayas [ ]
The Western Ghats [ ]
Answer:
The Himalayas

(e) The formation of extensive plateaus is a result of which type of movements?
Mountain-building [ ]
Continent-building [ ]
Horizontal [ ]
Answer:
Continent-building

2. Give geographical reasons.

(a) Buildings collapsed at the foothills of the Himalayas because of an earthquake. Before collapsing they were moving forward and backward.
Answer:

The seismic waves can be divided into primary, secondary and surface waves.
The primary waves are the first ones to reach the surface of the earth after the energy is emitted in the Earth’s interior.
Subjected to a ‘P’ wave, particles in the rock move in the direction of waves to and fro and therefore, these waves are also called forward-backward waves.
Thus, during an earthquake, the buildings at the foothills of the Himalayas moved forward and backward as they were first subjected to “P” waves.

(b) There is a difference in the formation of the Meghalaya Plateau and the Deccan Plateau.
Answer:

The Meghalaya plateau is formed due to slow movements (orogenic movements) whereas the Deccan Plateau is formed due to sudden movements (fissure volcano).
During the formation of the Meghalaya plateau, a part of the Earth’s crust in between two parallel faults was lifted forming a plateau whereas, the Deccan plateau was formed due to molten material coming out with the eruption spreading on both sides of the fissure.
Thus, there is a difference in the formation of the Meghalaya plateau and the Deccan plateau.

The plate boundaries are directly related to the areas of volcanoes.
Most of the volcanoes are located on the plate boundaries.
The part of the plate boundary which slides under the crust, results in the loss of material. Such boundaries are called plate consuming boundaries.
In areas where new material (magma) is coming up onto the Earth’s crust, they are called plate creating boundaries.
Both the processes result in earthquakes and volcanoes. Thus, most of the volcanoes are formed in the plate boundaries.

(d) The Barren Island is becoming conical in shape.
Answer:

Barren island which was considered a dormant volcano has become active since February 2017.
Mainly dust, smoke and mud are coming out of this eruption along with some lava.
During eruption, the lava is spread around the mouth of this vent, when it comes out.
As a result, a cone-shaped mountain starts forming.

Therefore Barren Island is becoming conical in shape.

(e) Volcanic eruptions can cause earthquakes.
Answer:

Generally, the movements in the Earth’s interior occur in the upper layer of the mantle
Tremendous energy is released by radioactive materials present here.
This leads to a sudden movement in form of volcanic eruptions where hot solid, liquid and gaseous materials are forcefully thrown out from the mantle of the Earth, onto the surface of the Earth.
This causes a lot of instability within the crust of the Earth which would also lead to the release of pressure in the form of seismic waves or tremors causing earthquakes.

3. Identify and name the internal movement.

(a) Tsunamis are generated in coastal areas.
Answer:
Sudden Movement

(b) The Himalayas are an example of fold mountains.
Answer:
Slow movement – Mountain Building Movements.

(d) Rift valley is formed because of faulting.
Answer:
The slow movement – Upward – Downward Movement.

4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order in which an earthquake occurs.

(a) The earth’s surface vibrates
Answer:
The plates suddenly move.

(b) The plates suddenly move.
Answer:
Due to the movements in the mantle compression goes on increasing.

(c) Due to the movements in the mantle, compression goes on increasing.
Answer:
Along the weak point (faultlines) rocks break apart.

(d) Along the weak points ( faultlines) rocks break apart.
Answer:
Stored energy is released in the form of seismic waves.

(e) Stored energy is released in the form of seismic waves.
Answer:
The earth’s surface vibrates.

5. Distinguish between

(a) Block Mountain and Fold Mountain
Answer:

Block Mountain	Fold Mountain
(i) When a part of the earth’s crust between two parallel faults is lifted a block mountain is formed.	(i) Because of the energy waves and pressure working towards each other, the layers of the soft rocks form folds leading to the formation of fold mountains.
(ii) Block mountains are formed due to tension.	(ii) Fold mountains are formed due to compression.
(iii) e.g. The Black forest mountains of Europe and the Meghalaya Plateau of India.	(iii) e.g. The Himalayas, the Aravalis, the Rockies, the Andes, the Alps

(b) Primary and Secondary Seismic Waves
Answer:

Primary Seismic Waves	Secondary Seismic waves
(i) Primary waves are the first one to reach the surface of the earth after the energy is emitted in the Earth’s interior.	(i) The waves which reach the Earth’s surface after the primary waves are called secondary waves.
(ii) Primary waves can travel through solid, liquid and gaseous medium.	(ii) Secondary waves can travel only through only solid medium.
(iii) While travelling through liquid medium, primary waves change their direction.	(iii) Secondary waves get absorbed as they enter the liquid medium.
(iv) The waves move to and fro in the direction of energy transfer.	(iv) These waves move up and down in the direction of energy transfer.

Earthquakes	Volcanoes
(i) Earthquake is the movement of the Earth’s crust.	A volcano is an opening in the Earth’s crust from which hot solid, liquid and gaseous materials are thrown out from the mantle of.
(ii) Nothing is ejected out during an earthquake.	During a volcanic eruption, ash, water vapor, various types of poisonous and inflammable gases, hot molten magma etc. is ejected from the earth’s interior.

6. Answer in brief
(a) Give reasons why an earthquake occurs.
Answer:

When the movements occur in the interior of the Earth, tremendous tension is created in the Earth’s crust.
When the tension goes beyond limits, the energy is released in the form of waves.
This results in the trembling of the earth’s surface, i.e. an earthquake occurs.

Following are the reasons for the occurrence of an earthquake:

Moving of the plates
Colliding of the plates
Plates sliding one below the other
Forming of fractures in rock layers, due to tension in the interior of the Earth.
Occurring of volcanic eruption

(b) Which type of movements have led to the formation of the major fold mountains in the world?
Answer:

Fold mountains are formed due to mountain-building (erogenic) movements.
Energy is transferred from the interior of the Earth. Because of these energy waves and pressure working towards each other and in horizontal direction, the layers of the soft rocks form folds.
If the pressure is very high, large scale folds are formed and their complexity increases.
As a result, the surface of the Earth gets uplifted and fold mountains are formed.
The Himalayas, the Aravalis, the Rockies, the Andes, the Alps are the major fold mountains of the world.

Through a seismogram, a graph showing movement of seismic waves (seismograph) can be generated.
After studying this graph, the magnitude of the earthquake is known.
The magnitude of the earthquake is measured with the help of a richter scale.
It is because of the primary waves that the buildings on the Earth’s surface move back and forth.
The buildings on the Earth’s surface move up and down because of the secondary waves. These are more destructive than the T’ waves leading to collapse of buildings.

(d) What are the effects of earthquakes on the earth’s surface and human life?
Answer:
Following are the effects of earthquakes:

Cracks/fractures develop on the ground.
These causes landslides which leads to sliding of rocks.
Sometimes the groundwater changes its course. For example, wells may get water, or may dry up.
Some areas get uplifted while some may subside.
Tsunamis are generated in oceans These waves can cause great loss of life and property in the coastal areas.
In snow-covered areas, avalanches may occur.
Buildings collapse and loss of life and property occurs.
Transportation routes get disrupted.
The communication system collapses.

(e) Explain the types of seismic waves.
Answer:
When the intension is released at the focus, the released energy travels in all directions. This energy comes towards the Earth’s surface in the form of waves. The seismic waves can be divided into primary, secondary and surface waves.
(i) Primary or ‘P’ waves:

These waves are first to reach the surface of the Earth, after the energy is emitted in the Earth’s interior. They travel at a very fast speed from the focus of the earthquake in radial direction.
The waves moves to and fro, therefore these waves are called forward-backward waves.
These waves can travel through all the three states – liquid, solid and gaseous.
While travelling through liquid medium, their direction gets changed. It is because of the primary waves that the buildings on the Earth’s surface move back and forth.

(ii) Secondary or ‘S’ waves :

The waves which reach the Earth’s surface after I the primary waves are called secondary waves. :
These waves also scatter in all directions from the focus of the earthquake.
Their velocity is less than ’P’ waves.
The particles lying in the way of these waves j move up and down in the direction of energy transfer.
These waves can travel only through the solid medium and they get absorbed as they enter the liquid medium.
The buildings on the Earth’s surface move up and down because of these waves. These are more destructive than ‘P waves.

(iii) Surface or ‘L’ waves :

These waves are generated after the main ’P’ and ‘S’ waves reach the epicenter.
They travel in the direction of the circumference of the Earth, along the crust and are highly destructive.

(f) Explain the types of volcanoes on the basis of the periodicity of eruption with examples.
Answer:
According to the periodicity of the volcanic eruptions, three types of volcanoes can be identified.
(i) Active Volcanoes –

If the volcanic eruptions are regular even in the present times, then such volcanoes are called active volcanoes.
E.g., Mt Fujiyama in Japan and Mt. Stromboli in the Mediterranean Sea.

(ii) Dormant Volcanoes –

When a volcano has not erupted since long, but may become active suddenly is called a dormant volcano.
E.g., Mt. Vesuvius in Italy, Mt. Katmai in Alaska and Barren Island, India.

(iii) Extinct volcanoes –

Those volcanoes which have not erupted in the past since long and are not likely to erupt in the future are called extinct volcanoes.
E.g., Mr. Kilimanjaro in Tanzania.

7. Show the epicenter, focus and the primary, secondary and surface waves of an earthquake with the help of a neat labeled diagram.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Endogenetic Movements 2

8. Show the following on a given outline map of the world.

(a) Mt. Kilimanjaro
(b) Mid-Atlantic Earthquake zone
(c) Mt. Fuji
(d) Krakatoa
(e) Mt. Vesuvius
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Endogenetic Movements 1

Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Endogenetic Movements Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?
Read the following news. Observe the photograph and answer the questions.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Endogenetic Movements 3

Question 1.
What caused large-scale casualties?
Answer:
Calamity of earthquake led to large scale casualties.

Question 2.
What was the magnitude of the earthquake?
Answer:
The magnitude of the earthquake was 7.9 Richter scale.

Question 3.
Which country was the most affected because of this earthquake?
Answer:
Nepal was most affected because of this earthquake.

Question 4.
Where was the epicentre of the earthquake?
Answer:
Lamjung in Nepal was the epicentre of the earthquake.

Question 5.
Which are the other affected areas?
Answer:
Bihar, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh in India as well as China, Bhutan, Pakistan and Bangladesh were affected by earthquake.

Question 6.
At what depth was the focus located?
Answer:
The focus of the earthquake was located at the depth of 11 km.

Question 7.
What kind of damage is seen because of the earthquake?
Answer:
Nearly 1500 people were killed and over 1000 people were injured in the disaster.

Question 8.
According to you, what could be the reason behind the earthquake?
Answer:
The sudden release of energy from the interior of the earth leads to earthquakes.

Question 9.
Have you ever experienced a similar earthquake? Discuss.
Answer:
Answers may vary.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Endogenetic Movements Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
Richter scale is a unit of measuring the magnitude of a/an
(a) volcano
(b) creation of plate
(c) earthquake
(d) earth movement
Answer:
(c) earthquake

Question 2.
There are in all major plates on the Earth.
(a) five
(b) seven
(c) nine
(d) four
Answer:
(b) seven

Question 3.
Large scale and sudden release of energy in the interior of the Earth gives rise to Earth movements.
(a) slow
(b) sudden
(c) internal
(d) external
Answer:
(b) sudden

Question 4.
Earthquakes occur due to the movement of
(a) plates
(b) earth
(c) oceans
(d) land
Answer:
(a) plates

Question 5.
Earthquake is measured with the help of an instrument called a
(a) seismogram
(b) thermometer
(c) barometer
(d) hygrometer
Answer:
(a) seismogram

Question 6.
If lava is released through a vent, it is called a vent volcano.
(a) fissure
(b) central
(c) upper
(d) below
Answer:
(b) central

Question 7.
Kilimanjaro is a volcano.
(a) central type
(b) fissure type
(c) extinct type
(d) dormant type
Answer:
(a) central type

Question 8.
A tremendous amount of energy is given out by the radioactive elements in the
(a) crust
(b) core
(c) mantle
(d) sial
Answer:
(c) mantle

Question 9.
The movements that give rise to mountains are called movements.
(a) epiorogenic
(b) orogenic
(c) slow
(d) sudden
Answer:
(b) orogenic

Question 10.
When a portion of the crust between two parallel faults2 is raised up, it is called a mountain.
(a) block
(b) fold
(c) residual
(d) ancient
Answer:
(a) block

Question 11.
The area between two adjoining faults subsides, such area of subsidence is called
(a) rift valley
(b) block mountain
(c) fold mountain
(d) faulting
Answer:
(a) rift valley

Question 12.
Black Forest Mountain in Europe is a mountain.
(a) fold
(b) residual
(c) block
(d) ancient
Answer:
(c) block

Question 13.
The movements that give rise to continents are
(a) orogenic
(c) fold
(b) epeirogenic
(d) fault
Answer:
(b) epeirogenic

(Endogenetic Movements Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 )Tick in front of the correct option.

Question 1.
Which of these is a block mountain?
(a) Black forest mountain
(b) Alps
(c) Andes
Answer:
(a) Black forest mountain

Question 2.
Which type of volcano has eruptions regularly even during present times?
(a) Dormant
(b) Extinct
(c) Active
Answer:
(c) Active

Give one word for each of the following:

Question 1.
A volcano, where lava reaches the surface through a vent or a pipe.
Answer:
Central Vent Volcano

Question 2.
An instrument, which is used for recording earthquakes.
Answer:
Seismogram

Question 3.
The surface position immediately above the origin of an earthquake.
Answer:
Epicenter

Question 4.
An example of a volcanic plateau.
Answer:
Deccan Plateau.

Question 5.
An example of Conical volcanic mountains.
Answer:
Mt. Kilimanjaro

(Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Endogenetic Movements Questions And Answers ) Answer in one sentence each.

Question 1.
What are Endogenetic processes?
Answer:
Endogenetic processes are processes that originate internally in the Earth’s surface. E.g. earthquakes, volcanoes, continent building, mountain building etc.

Question 2.
What is a Richter scale?
Answer:
It is a scale for expressing the magnitude of an earthquake.

Question 3.
What is a Focus or Hypocentre?
Answer:
The point below the Earth’s surface where energy is released during an earthquake is called the focus of the earthquake.

Question 4.
What are Primary Waves?
Answer:
The earthquake waves that reach the surface of the Earth first, immediately after the energy is released in the interior of the Earth, are called Primary waves.

Question 5.
What are Secondary Waves?
Answer:
The earthquake waves reporting at the surface after the primary waves are called the secondary waves.

Question 6.
What are Surface Waves?
Answer:
Primary and secondary waves affect the surface on reaching it. As a result a new set of waves gets generated at the surface. These waves are called surface waves.

Question 7.
What are Plates?
Answer:
The parts of varying sizes of the Earth’s crust floating on the upper portion of the mantle are called plates.

Question 8.
What do you mean by an Epicentre?
Answer:
The point located on the surface of the Earth nearest to the focus is called the epicenter of the earthquake.

Question 9.
Explain Orogenic Movements
Answer:
The slow movements in the interior of the Earth that give rise to mountains are called orogenic movements (mountain building movements).

Question 10.
What is Folding1?
Answer:
As energy moves through the interior of the Earth, soft rocks are subjected to pressure leading to creation of folds called folding.

Question 11.
Define Fault.
Answer:
The fracture line created in a rock due to the energy waves moving away from each other is called a fault.

Question 12.
What is a Block Mountain?
Answer:
A raised portion of the crust between two parallel faults is called a block mountain.

Question 13.
What is a Rift valley?
Answer:
The area of subsidence between two adjoining faults is called a rift valley.

Question 14.
Explain Epeirogenic Movements.
Answer:
The Earth’s slow movements that give rise to continents and extensive plateaus are called epeirogenic movements.

Question 15.
Explain the process of Volcanic Eruption.
Answer:
A process in which hot solid, liquid and gaseous materials are thrown out from the mantle of the earth onto the surface of the earth, is called volcanic eruption.

Identify and name the internal movements.

Question 1.
Dust, smoke and mud with some lava coming out of Barren Island.
Answer:
Sudden Movement

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Seismic Focus and Epicentre
Answer:

Seismic Focus	Epicenter
(i) The point below the surface where energy is released during an earthquake is called the seismic focus of the earthquake.	(i) The place on the surface which is directly above the focus and closest to it is called the epicenter.
(ii) From the seismic focus, an energy wave radiates in all directions.	(ii) Seismic waves reach the epicenter first and foremost and so its intensity is the maximum at this point.

Question 2.
Central Type Volcano and Fissure Type Volcano
Answer:

Central Type Volcano		Fissure Type Volcano
(i)	Lava is released through a pipe-like vent, hence it is called central type volcano.	(i)	Lava is released through a number of fissures or cracks, hence it is called fissure type volcano.
(ii)	The ejected material gets settled near the mouth of the central vent, giving rise to conical hills.	(ii)	The ejected material spreads on either side of the fissures and forms volcanic plateaus.
(iii)	e.g. Mt. Fujiyama of Japan, Mt. Kilimanjaro in Tanzania.	(iii)	e.g. the Deccan plateau of India

Question 3.
Orogenic Movements and Epeirogenic Movements
Answer:

Orogenic Movements	Epeirogemic Movements
(i) The movements that give rise to mountains are called Orogenic Movements.	(i) The movements that give rise to continents are called Epeirogenic Movements.
(ii) They lead to the formation of Fold mountains, Block mountains and Rift valleys.	(ii) They lead to the formation of continents and extensive plateaus.

Question 4.
Slow Internal Movements and Sudden Internal Movements
Answer:

Slow Internal Movements	Sudden Internal Movements
(i) The movements in the interior of the earth that are caused by continuous and slow release of energy are called slow internal movements	(i) The movements in the interior of the earth that are caused by the sudden release of energy on a large scale are called sudden internal movements.
(ii) Slow internal movements give rise to mountains and continents.	(ii) Sudden internal movements lead to earthquakes and volcanic eruptions.

Make friends with Maps!
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Endogenetic Movements 4
Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Examine the plate boundaries in the given map and write the names of the plates.
Answer:
North American Plate, South American Plate, Indo-Australian Plate, African Plate, Eurasian Plate, Pacific Plate, Antarctic Plate, Arabian Plate, Nazca Plate, Cocos Plate, Caribbean Plate, Scotia Plate, Arabian Plate and Somali Plate.

Question 2.
On which side of the continents of North and South America are the earthquake-prone zones located? Which mountains are located there?
Answer:
The earthquake-prone zone is located on the western side of North and South America. Rockies and Andes mountain ranges are located there.

Question 3.
In which mountainous zone in Asia does the earthquake-prone zone lie?
Answer:
The Himalayan mountainous zone of Asia is an earthquake-prone zone.

Question 4.
In which region are the volcanoes concentrated in Africa? What could be the reason?
Answer:
Volcanoes are concentrated in the eastern part of Africa along the Rift Valley region as this region is located on plate boundaries.

Question 5.
Correlate earthquake regions, distribution of volcanoes and plate boundaries.
Answer:
Plate boundaries are directly related to areas of earthquakes and volcanoes. Most of the volcanoes are located on the plate boundaries. Similarly, the earthquake zones are also seen in the border areas.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
The secondary earthquake waves are very destructive.
Answer:

Due to secondary earthquake waves, the grains in the rocks move up and down, that is, perpendicular to the direction of the movement of the waves.
Therefore, secondary waves are very destructive.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Explain the types of volcanoes on the basis of their type of eruption, with examples.
Answer:
On the basis of the type of eruption, volcanoes can be divided into two types.
(i) Central-type or conical volcano:

During eruption, the molten magma comes out through a pipe-like vent from inside the Earth’s surface. The lava spreads around the mouth of this vent, when it comes out.
Asa result, cone-shaped mountains start forming and conical volcanic mountains are formed.
Mt. Fujiyama in Japan and Mt. Kilimanjaro in Tanzania are examples of central-type volcanoes and conical mountains.

(ii) Fissure-type volcano:

During eruption, when the magma comes out not from a single vent, but from many cracks (fissures), it is called fissure-type volcanic eruption.
The molten material coming out with the eruption spreads on both the sides of the fissure. ;
As a result, volcanic plateaus are formed.
The Deccan Plateau of India has also been formed due to such a type of volcanic eruption.

Question 2.
Describe the changes that take place on the surface of the Earth, due to the movements taking place in the interior of the Earth.
Answer:
The changes taking place on the surface of the Earth, due to the internal movements of the Earth are as follows:

The soft rocks are subjected to pressure due to the energy released in the interior of the Earth. This leads to the development of folds.
If the pressure is very high, large scale folds are formed, and their complexity increases. As a result, the surface of the Earth gets uplifted and fold mountains are formed.
When the energy waves move away from each other, tension in the rock is developed. In hard rocks, the tension leads to faulting, when a portion between two parallel faults is raised up, block mountains are created.
Sometimes, when the portion between two parallel faults subsides, a rift valley is created.
Sometimes, an extensive portion is raised to form a continent or an extensive plateau.

Question 3.
How are continents and extensive plateaus formed?
Answer:

The epeirogenic movements are responsible for the formation of continents.
Slow movements occur towards the centre or from the Earth’s centre towards the Earth’s crust.
Because of these movements, a vast part of the Earth’s crust is uplifted or gets subsided.
When the part of the Earth’s crust is uplifted above the sea mean level, continents are formed.
Therefore, these movements are called continent-building movements.
Extensive plateaus can also be formed because of such movements.

Question 4.
What are the effects of volcanoes?
Answer:
The following are the effects of volcanoes:

Loss of life and property.
Sometimes tsunamis get generated due to volcanic eruptions occurring below ocean floors.
Dust, smoke, ash, gases, water vapour, etc. remain in the atmosphere for a long time.
This may create an imbalance in the environment.
Land may become fertile due to volcanic ash.
Many minerals are found near the earth’s surface because of lava.
New land is formed due to volcanic eruption or at times, an island may even disappear.
Lakes are formed at the mouth of the craters of dead volcanoes when rainwater accumulates in them.

Question 5.
Explain the process of the formation of Block mountains.
Answer:

Because of internal movements, horizontal waves moving away from each other are formed.
This causes tension on the layers of rocks leading to the formation of fractures in the rocks called as faults.
Similarly, waves coming towards each other in hard rocks also form faults due to compression.
When a part of the earth’s crust in between two parallel faults is lifted, it looks like a block. Such a landform is called as a Block mountain.

Question 6.
Explain the process of formation of Rift valley.
Answer:

When horizontal movements on the earth’s surface act in opposite direction, it causes tension on the rocks in the earth’s crust.
When tension increases, fractures develop in the rocks leading to the formation of faults.
Consequently, rocks on both the ends slide and the continuity in the layers of rocks is not found.
Sometimes, two fractures develop side-by-side in the earth’s crust and land in between the two fractures subsides. This subsided deep part is called the rift valley.

9th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

Std 9 Geography Chapter 6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

February 4, 2025January 3, 2025 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Properties of Sea Water Class 9 Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 9 Chapter 6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Tick the correct box according to the salinity of the ocean water ✓

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water 1
Answer:
(a) Low
(b) Low
(c) High
(d) High
(e) Low
(f) High.

2. Give reasons.

(a) Salinity is low in the land-locked Baltic Sea.
Answer:

The Baltic Sea lies in the temperate region.
In temperate regions, the sunrays are slanting and therefore, the temperatures are lower.
The supply of fresh water is also more, as numerous rivers empty their waters into the Baltic sea.
Therefore, in spite of being landlocked, due to low rate of evaporation and ample supply of fresh water, the salinity of the Baltic Sea is low.

(b) There is higher salinity in the northern Red Sea while lower in the southern.
Answer:

The Red Sea is one of the saltiest bodies of water in the world, owing to high evaporation.
The salinity is 36%o in the southern part because of the effect of the Gulf of Aden.
It reaches 41 %o in the northern part, owing mainly to the Gulf of Suez and the high evaporation as well as very little precipitation.
Hence, there is more salinity in the northern Red Sea while lesser in the south.

The salinity of the oceans depends on factors like rate of evaporation and supply of fresh water.
In Oceans where rate of evaporation is more than the supply of fresh water, the salinity is higher.
In Oceans where supply of freshwater exceeds the rate of evaporation, salinity is low.
Salinity is not affected much in areas where supply of freshwater and the evaporation of water is low.
Thus, oceans located on the same latitude do not have the same salinity.

(d) With increasing depth, the temperature of sea water decreases to a certain limit.
Answer:
With increasing depth, the temperature of sea water decreases to a certain limit because –

While most of the sunrays radiate back from the surface of the sea, some of them penetrate to certain depths in the water.
As a result, the intensity of sunrays decreases with the increasing depth.
The temperature decreases up to 2000m depth.
After 2000m, the temperature of the seawater is uniform everywhere.

(e) There are more salt-pans on the Western coast of India than its eastern coast.
Answer:

The Arabian Sea lies lying to the west and Bay of Bengal lies to the east of India.
Many large peninsular rivers drain their waters in the Bay of Bengal and on the contrary, only small seasonal coastal rivers drain in the Arabian Sea.
Hence, the salinity of the eastern coast is 34%, while it is 35% in the Arabian Sea.
Thus, there are more salt-pans on the Western coast of India than its Eastern coast.

(f) Salinity increases in the mid-latitudinal zones.
Answer:

Mid-latitudinal zones lies between 25° to 35° north and south of the equator.
In this zone, the rainfall is less and the supply of fresh water from rivers is also low.
This region experiences high-temperature conditions which are marked by the presence of hot deserts of the world. These high-temperature conditions lead to a high rate of evaporation.
Thus, the salinity of the seas is found to be higher in mid-latitudinal zones.

3. Answer the following questions.

(a) What are the factors affecting the salinity of the sea water?
Answer:

The uneven distribution of temperature on earth and uneven supply of freshwater affects the salinity of seawater.
In the tropical zone, temperature is higher. Rate of evaporation is also higher and therefore, the salinity is higher.
Around 5° N and S of the equator, in the equatorial calm belt, the sky is cloudy for a long period of time and convectional rainfall occurs every day.
Large rivers like Congo and Amazon in the equatorial regions meet the sea. Therefore, supply of freshwater is abundant, too. But because of higher temperatures, rate of evaporation is more and therefore, the seas in these areas are more saline.
In mid-latitudinal zones (25° to 35° N and S), rainfall is lesser and the supply of freshwater from rivers is also low. This zone has the hot deserts of the world. Thus, the salinity of the seas is found to be higher here.
In temperate regions, the sunrays are slanting and therefore, the temperatures are lower. Because of the melting of the snow, the supply of water is also more, and therefore, in this zone, salinity decreases with increasing latitudes.
In the polar areas, temperatures are very low. Evaporation is also very less in polar areas. So, salinity is low.
Landlocked seas have higher salinity than open seas as the rate of evaporation is more. There is a lack of supply of fresh water from large rivers. Thus, there is a difference in the salinities of open and closed seas.

(b) Explain the distribution of salinity around the Tropic of Cancer and tropic of Capricorn.
Answer:

The uneven distribution of temperature on earth, and uneven supply of freshwater affects the salinity of sea water.
Region, between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn is called as the Tropical zone.
In the tropical zone, temperature is higher.
Hence, the rate of evaporation is also higher, and therefore, salinity is higher.

Temperature is a major property of the sea water.
Sea water upto the depth of 500m is called as surface water. The surface temperature of the sea water is not uniform everywhere. This is dependent on different factors. .
Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C, while it is about 2° C near the poles.
Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convectional currents, and seasons also affect the surface temperature.
Regions where cold ocean currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is less, while the regions where the warm currents move, the temperature increase.

(d) Explain the changes occurring in the temperature of sea water according to the depth.
Answer:

While most of the sunrays radiate back from the surface of the sea, some of them penetrate to certain depths in the water.
As a result, the intensity of sunrays decreases with the increasing depth.
The temperature decreases up to 2000m depth.
After 2000m, the temperature of the seawater is uniform everywhere.
It is around 4°C everywhere from the equatorial regions to the polar areas.
Temperature reduces only up to 4° C according to depth, and therefore, the water at greater depths does not freeze.
The temperature of the seawater changes rapidly with depth at the equatorial areas. The difference in temperature is lesser in polar areas.
There is also a difference in open seas and landlocked seas. In low latitudes, because the salinity of the landlocked seas is more, the temperature of the landlocked seas is higher than the open seas.

(e) Name the factors affecting salinity.
Answer:
Due to the sun’s heat, evaporation happens at a faster rate. Evaporated water turns into water vapour and reduces in quantity. But amount of salt remains the same in the remaining water and therefore the salinity of water increases.

In seas where the rate of evaporation is high than the supply of fresh water, salinity is high.
In seas where the supply of freshwater exceeds the rate of evaporation, salinity is low.
Salinity is not affected much in seas where both the supply of freshwater and evaporation of water is low.

4. Explain how temperature affects the following.

(a) the density of sea water
Answer:

If temperature reduces, density of water increases.
Hence, cold water is denser than hot water.

(b) the salinity of sea water
Answer:

If the salinity of water is high, the density of water increases.

Activity:

Complete the table showing the salinity of open and land-locked seas.
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water 3
Answer:

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the following Map and answer the questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water 4

Question 1.
What is the salinity around the tropics?
Answer:
The salinity around the tropics is 36%o.

Question 2.
Which region has the least salinity?
Answer:
The Bay of Bengal has the least salinity of 32%o.

Question 3.
Which ocean has salinity more than 37%o?
Answer:
Atlantic ocean has salinity of more than 37%o.

Question 4.
What are the reasons of differences in salinity on a global level?
Answer:
The uneven distribution of temperature on earth, and uneven supply of freshwater, etc. are the reasons for differences in salinity on a global level.

Observe the Graph and answer the questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water 5

Question 1.
What is the maximum temperature of seawater in equatorial areas? How much is this temperature at a depth of 500 m?
Answer:
The maximum temperature of sea water in equatorial areas is 18° C. The temperature at the depth of 500 m is 11° C.

Question 2.
What is the temperature of seawater at the sea level in the mid-latitudes?
Answer:
The temperature of seawater at the sea level in the mid-latitudes is 14° C approximately.

Question 3.
How much has this temperature changed at 1500 m depth?
Answer:
The temperature is about 5° C at the depth of 1500 m. Thus the temperature of sea water at mid-latitudes has changed from 14°C at the sea level to about 5°C at the depth of 1500 m i.e. temperature has changed (reduced) by 9°C.

Question 4.
What does the thermal graph for the high latitude say? What is its temperature at 500, 1000 and 1500 m depths?
Answer:
In high latitudes the temperature of sea water at all depths remains constant at 4° C.

Question 5.
After what depth does the seawater temperature remain stable everywhere?
Answer:
After 2000 m, the temperature of the sea water is uniform everywhere.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water 6

Question 6.
With increasing depth, what decreases: temperature, salinity or density?
Answer:
Temperature and salinity decreases with increasing depth.

Question 7.
After what depth does the change in these factor become almost zero?
Answer:
After the depth of 1000 m there is no change in all these factors.

Question 8.
Till what depth is the change in these factors higher?
Answer:
The higher change can be seen up to a depth of about 500m.

Question 9.
Explain the correlation between all the three factors.
Answer:
If the temperature is less, density is more. If the salinity is less, then density is also less. However temperature affects the density more as compared to the salinity. If the temperature is less, then the density is more despite less salinity.

Let’s Recall.

Question 1.
Which is the largest water storage of the world?
Answer:
Oceans are the largest water storage of the world.

Question 2.
Why is the seawater salty?
Answer:

Salt in the ocean comes from rocks on land.
Rivers carry dissolved salts to the ocean.
Water evaporates from the oceans to fall again as rain and to feed the rivers, but the salts remain in the ocean.

Question 3.
What are the reasons for high salinity in the oceans?
Answer:
High rate of evaporation and low supply of fresh water leads to high salinity in the oceans:

Question 4.
How can we obtain the salts from the ocean water?
Answer:

Sea water contains a large amount of common salt and the salts of other metals dissolved in it.
Near the sea-shore, the sea water is collected in shallow pits (salt pans) and allowed to evaporate in the sunshine.
In a few days, the water evaporates, leaving behind salt.
The salt so obtained is collected and transported to factories, where it is purified and packed for consumption.

Question 5.
What is the use of the salts in the oceans to us?
Answer:

The salts is used in the food we eat.
It is used for making various chemicals and medicines.
Salt is also used to preserve things for longer periods. It is also used in ice factories.

Can You Tell?

Question 1.
What is the difference in the temperatures of the land and the sea?
Answer:
During the daytime land is hotter than the sea whereas, during the night time land is cooler than the sea.

Question 2.
What would be the difference in the temperature of the seawater from the equatorial region to the polar areas?
Answer:
Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles. The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C while it is about 2° C near the poles.

Think about it.

Question 1.
If you think about India there is the Arabian sea to the west and the Bay of Bengal to the east. The salinity of the eastern coast is 34%o while it is 35%o in the Arabian sea. What could be the reason of higher salinity in the western coastal region?
Answer:
Many large peninsular rivers drain their waters in the Bay of Bengal and on the contrary only small seasonal coastal rivers drain in the Arabian sea. Hence the salinity of Arabian sea is more than the Bay of Bengal.

Try this.

Question 1.
In which container has the water increased or decreased?
Answer:

The water has increased in the container which is in the classroom in which freshwater was added.
The water has decreased in the container which was kept in the sun outside.

Question 2.
What could be the reasons behind the decrease or increase?
Answer:

Since freshwater was added to one of the containers in the classroom the water level increased.
The water has decreased in the container which was kept outside in the sun due to evaporation.

Question 3.
What could be the reason behind the low and high salinity of the water in the container?
Answer:

In the container which as kept outside in the sun, due to high rate of evaporation, the salinity is high.
As we kept on adding fresh water to the container kept in the classroom the salinity is low.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Additional Important Questions and Answers

Select the correct option:

Question 1.
The average temperature in equatorial areas is
(a) 25° C
(b) 35° C
(c) 15° C
(d) 5° C
Answer:
(a) 25°C

Question 2.
The average temperature in mid-latitudes is
(a) 25° C
(b) 10° C
(c) 16° C
(d) 5° C
Answer:
(c) 16°C

Question 3.
The average temperature near poles is about
(a) 10° C
(b) 20° C
(c) 15° C
(d) 2° C
Answer:
(d) 2°C

Question 4.
With the increasing depth of sea, the intensity of sunrays
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) is uneven
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 5.
Seawater upto the depth of 500m is called
(a) ground water
(b) surface water
(c) deep water
(d) saline water
Answer:
(b) surface water

Question 6.
ocean is the most saline ocean in the world.
(a) Pacific
(b) Arctic
(c) Indian
(d) Atlantic
Answer:
(d) Atlantic

Question 7.
The sea lying on the border of Israel and Jordan has a salinity of %o.
(a) 37
(b) 50
(c) 256
(d) 332
Answer:
(d) 332

Question 8.
The buoyancy of the sea water increases because of its
(a) evaporation
(b) salinity
(c) density
(d) high temperature
Answer:
(b) salinity

Question 9.
has an altitude of – 400m.
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Dead Sea
(d) the Mediterranean Sea
Answer:
(c) Dead sea

Question 10.
act as temperature controllers at a global level.
(a) Ocean currents
(b) Sea breeze
(c) Land breeze
(d) Trade winds
Answer:
(a) Ocean currents

Question 11.
is a major porperty of the sea water.
(a) Temperature
(b) Uniform salinity
(c) Buoyancy
(d) Equal Density
Answer:
(a) Temperature

Question 12.
have higher salinity than open seas.
(a) Equatorial seas
(b) Landlocked seas
(c) Freshwater lakes
(d) Seas in polar regions
Answer:
(b) landlocked seas

Question 13.
Temperature decreases upto depth.
(a) 500 m
(b) 1000 m
(c) 1500 m
(d) 2000 m
Answer:
(d) 2000m

Question 14.
In regions where cold currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is
(a) high
(b) less
(c) uniform
(d) uneven
Answer:
(b) less

Question 15.
Temperature of seawater changes rapidly with depth in areas.
(a) equatorial
(b) mid latitudinal
(c) temperate
(d) polar
Answer:
(a) equatorial

Question 16.
In seas where the rate of evaporation is than the supply of fresh water, salinity is high.
(a) less
(b) high
(c) same
(d) low
Answer:
(b) high

Question 17.
The salinity of Bay of Bengal is than that of Arabian sea.
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) equal
Answer:
(a) less

Question 18.
In areas the salinity of sea water is low.
(a) equatorial
(b) mid-latitudinal
(c) temperate
(d) polar
Answer:
(d) polar

Question 19.
The salinity of Battic sea is %.
(a) 332
(b) 32
(c) 37
(d) 7
Answer:
(d) 7

Match the Column:

Column A	Column B
(1) Equatorial areas (2) Mid-latitudinal areas (3) Temperate regions	(a) Salinity of 332%o (b) Slanting sunrays, melting of snow (c) Cloudy sky and convectional rainfall (d) Hot deserts

Answer:
(1-c),
(2- d),
(3 – b)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the major property of seawater?
Answer:
Temperature is a major property of seawater.

Question 2.
What is the average surface temperature of seawater in equatorial areas, mid-latitudes & poles?
Answer:
The average surface temperature of seawater is equatorial areas is around 25°C in mid-latitude it is around 16°C & 2°C near the poles.

Question 3.
After what depth is the seawater temperature uniform everywhere?
Answer:
After 2000m, the temperature of seawater is uniform everywhere

Question 4.
Name the instruments used to measure salinity?
Answer:
Hydrometer, Refractometer and salinometer are used to measure salinity.

Question 5.
Which is the most saline ocean?
Answer:
The Atlantic ocean is the most saline ocean.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
The climate of the earth gets affected by ocean currents.
Answer:

The ocean currents are generated because of the difference in the properties of seawater.
They act as temperature controllers at the global level.
The distribution of temperature gets controlled due to the ocean currents.
Thus, the climate of the earth gets affected by ocean currents.

Question 2.
Dead Sea has a salinity of 332%0.
Answer:

The sea lying on the border of Israel and Jordan has a salinity of 332%0.
The average salinity of ocean is 35%o.
Jordan is the only large river meeting this sea.
Low rainfall, low supply of freshwater and high evaporation is the reason of high salinity.

Question 3.
The surface temperature of the sea is not uniform everywhere.
Answer:

The surface temperature of sea water is not uniform everywhere and it changes with latitudes.
The surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C, it is 16° C in mid-latitudes while it is about 2° C near the poles.
Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convergence flow, seasons, etc. also affect the surface temperature.
Thus the surface temperature of the sea is not uniform everywhere.

Question 4.
The seas in equatorial calm belt are more saline.
Answer:

Around 5° N and S of the equator, in the equatorial calm belt, the sky is cloudy for a long period of time and convectional rainfall occurs every day.
Large rivers like Congo and Amazon in the equatorial regions meet the sea.
Therefore, supply of freshwater abundant too.
But because of higher temperatures, rate of evaporation is more and therefore, the seas in these areas are more saline.

Explain

Question 1.
Factors affecting surface water temperature
Answer:

Temperature is a major property of the seawater. The surface temperature of the seawater is not uniform everywhere. This is dependent on different factors.
Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convergence flow and seasons also affect the surface temperature.
Regions where cold ocean currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is less. The regions where the warm currents move, the temperature increase.

Question 2.
Density of sea water
Answer:

Temperature and salinity are the two properties of sea water that control the density of the sea water.
If temperature reduces, density of water increases.
Cold water is denser, and so is saline water.
As compared to salinity, temperature affects the density more. Hence, sometimes, more saline water has lower temperature at the surface.
Sea water having higher temperature and low salinity, can have lower density.

Question 3.
Measurement of salinity of sea water.
Answer:

The weight of all dissolved salts in water in ratio of parts per thousand of water is called the salinity of seawater.
For example, if the weight of dissolved salts in 1000g (1 kg) of seawater is 40g, then the salinity is 40%o i.e. 40 per thousand parts.
Hydrometer, refractometer and salinometer are also used to measure salinity.

Question 4.
Factors affecting salinity of sea water.
Answer:

Latitudes	Temperature / Rate of evaporation	Supply of fresh water	Salinity
Tropical Zone 5°N – 5°Sof equator	High	Abundant from (River Congo / Amazon)	High
Midlatitudes (25° – 35° N and S)	High (hot desert are found here)	low	High
Temperate regions	Temperature is lower due to slanting sunrays	The supply of water is more due to melting snow	low
Polar regions	Very low	low	low

9th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

Std 10 English Poem World Heritage 4.3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

December 21, 2024December 20, 2024 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10 English Chapter 4.3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

World Heritage Poem 10th Std Question Answer

Question 1.
Pair up with your partner and answer the following questions.
(a) Do you like to travel?
(b) Where have you traveled?
(c) Have you heard about the wonders of the world?
(d) Have you heard about UNESCO?
(e) What does UNESCO stand for?
(f) What is meant by Heritage?
(g) Do you know of any Heritage building in your own city?
Answer:
(a) yes, no, sometimes, etc.
(b) Discuss the places, the mode of travel, the sights, etc.
(c) Yes, I have.
(d) Yes, I have, but not much.
(e) UNESCO stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
(f) Heritage is something that is valued and preserved because of its historical/cultural/natural importance
(g) Students can find out the heritage buildings in their own towns/cities.

Question 2.
Your teacher will explain the ‘Heritage Cycle’.
→ By understanding (cultural heritage) people value it.
→ By valuing it people want to care for it.
→ By caring for it, it will help people enjoy it.
→ From enjoying it, comes a thirst to understand.
→ By understanding it …………………
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage 1

Question 3.
Do you know the difference between :
(a) World Heritage
(b) Cultural Heritage
Refer to a dictionary/encyclopedia/reference book/the internet to get the detailed meaning.
Answer:
(a) World heritage means a global heritage that belongs to everyone.
(b) Cultural heritage is the legacy of physical artifacts and intangible attributes of society that are inherited from past generations, maintained in the present and preserved for the benefit of futurft generations. Cultural heritage includes tangible culture (such as buildings, monuments, landscapes, books, works of art, and artifacts), intangible culture (such as folklore, traditions, language, and knowledge), and natural heritage (including culturally significant landscapes, etc.)

Question 4.
With the help of your partner complete the information in the table.

Tourist spot	Favourite	Why?
Park
Mountain
Beach
Sea
Forest
Countryside/Rural site

Question 5.
Heritage Sites – Rank these with your partner. Put the best at the top.

Great Barrier Reef
Mount Fuji
Grand Canyon
The Pyramids
Panda Sanctuaries
Machu Picchu
Vatican City
Great Wall of China

World Heritage Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Answer the following questions.
(a) What do heritage sites in the world include?
Answer:
A World Heritage Site should have significant cultural or natural importance to humanity.

(b) What kind of sites are protected and maintained by the International World Heritage Programme?
Answer:
Sites which have significant cultural or natural importance to humanity are protected and maintained by the International World Heritage Programme. They may include forests, lakes, monuments, buildings and cities. They can also be a combination of cultural and natural areas.

(c) How many world Heritage sites were there around the world?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites include forests, lakes, monuments, buildings and cities. They cari also be a combination of cultural and natural areas.

(d) What is the role of World Heritage Committees?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites are those that are significant culturally and naturally. People are interested in seeing such sites and learning the history behind them; hence they are a major tourist attraction, and they draw tourists to a country, boosting the country’s revenue.

(e) What is the texture of World Heritage Committee?
Answer:
The tenure of the World Heritage Committee is six years.

(f) What are our duties towards preservation/conservation of any historical site?
Answer:
We should see that the historical sites are not in any danger due to pollution, tourism, uncontrolled urbanization, etc. Whenever we visit the site we must maintain the cleanliness and purity of the place. We must obey whatever orders and guidelines are put in place by the authorities. We should motivate others to do so too.

(g) Why should we preserve the World Heritage Sites?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites promote tourism. They are a part of the culture of the world, a part of the past. It is essential to preserve the past in order to learn from it. Natural beauty too should be preserved so that everyone today and in future can enjoy it. Hence, we should preserve World Heritage Sites.

(h) What is the role of World Heritage Sites in developing tourism in any country?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites are those that are significant culturally and naturally. People are interested in seeing such sites and learning the history behind them; hence they are a major tourist attraction, and they draw tourists to a country, boosting the country’s revenue.

Question 2.
Complete the following.

Year	Establishment	Role
1954	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1959	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1965	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1968	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1972	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………

Answer:

Year	Establishment	Role
1954	Egypt starts plans to build Aswan High Dam	Started the momentum for the protection of cultural and natural heritage sites around the world.
1959	International campaign by UNESCO to protect temples and artifacts likely to be destroyed by Aswan High Dam; a draft convention initiated for the same	Protection of natural and cultural sites around the world
1965	A White House Conference in the US called for a World Heritage Trust’.	To protect not only the historic and cultural sites but also the significant natural and scenic sites around the world.
1968	The International Union for Conservation of Nature	Development of goals similar to those of the White House Conference
1972	Convention concerning the protection of World Cultural and Natural Heritage adopted by UNESCO’s General Conference.	To protect not only Are histone and cultural sites but also the significant natural and scenic sites around the world.

Question 3.
Complete the following by giving reasons why World Heritage Sites are in danger.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage 2
Answer:

Question 4.
Choose the correct alternative and complete the given sentences.
(a) Mount Huangshan is situated in …………………………. .
(i) Japan
(ii) China
(iii) Philippines
Answer:
(ii) China

(b) The famous dam situated in Egypt on River Nile is …………………………. .
(i) Buzwaa High Dam
(ii) Rizwa High Dam
(iii) Aswan High Dam
Answer:
(iii) Aswan High Dam

(c) The conference based on Human Environment was held at …………………………. .
(i) Athens, Greece
(ii) Mascow, Russia
(iii) Stockholm, Sweden
Answer:
(iii) Stockholm, Sweden

(d) The highest number of world Heritage Sites are located in …………………………. .
(i) France
(ii) Italy
(iii) Germany
Answer:
(ii) Italy

(e) …………………………. can delete/exclude a site from World Heritage list.
(i) World Heritage Committee
(ii) World Peace Committee
(iii) World Health Committee.
Answer:
(i) World Heritage Committee

(f) The tenure of World Heritage Committee is …………………………. years.
(i) Four
(ii) Five
(iii) Six.
Answer:
(iii) Six.

Question 5.
Match the pairs to define different roles of the World Heritage Sites.

	A		B
(i)	Identify cultural and natural sites	a	green, local based, stable and decent jobs.
(ii)	Identify sites of	b	of outstanding universal value across countries.
(iii)	Identify sites that represent	c	preserve outstanding sites and natural resources.
(iv)	UNESCO seeks to	d	tourism.
(v)	World Heritage Sites should have	e	an asset for economic development and investment.
(vi)	World Heritage Sites should	f	protect these sites.
(vii)	World Heritage Sites serve as	g	best examples of world’s cultural and/or natural heritage.
(viii)	World Heritage Sites should ensure	h	special importance for everyone.
(ix)	It should at large develop	i	relevant development plan policies.

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) Identify cultural and natural sites	(a) green, local based, stable and decent.
(2) Identify sites of	(b) of outstanding universal values across countries.
(3) Identify sites that represent	(c) preserve outstanding sites and natural resources.
(4) UNESCO seeks to	(d) tourism.
(5) World Heritage Sites should have	(e) an asset for economic development and investment.
(6) World Heritage should	(f) protect these sites.
(7) World Heritage Sites serve as	(g) best examples of world’s cultural and or natural heritage.
(8) World Heritage Site should ensure	(h) special importance for everyone.
(9) It should at large develop	(i) relevant development plan policies.

Question 6.
Look at the words and their meanings. Choose the correct alternative.
(a) determine :
(i) think over
(ii) decide
(iii) ask for
(iv) look over
Answer:
(ii) decide

(b) monument :
(i) statue
(ii) pillar
(iii) memorial
(iv) fort
Answer:
(iii) memorial

(d) disaster:
(i) problem
(ii) incident
(iii) calamity
(iv) accident
Answer:
(iii) calamity

Question 7.
Find from the text minimum 8 words related to cultural heritage and make a word register. Arrange them in alphabetical order.
Cultural heritage: Abu Simbel Temples, artifacts, buildings, cilles, Histqric Center of Vienna, Machu Picchu, monuments, Mount Huangshan, Sydney Opera House.

Question 8.
Complete the following information from the text.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage 3
Answer:
(a) Preservation of any historical site (Duties):
(i) International World Heritage Programme
(ii) UNESCO World Heritage Committee.

(b) Preserving World Heritage Sites (Reasons) :
(i) They have significant cultural and natira Importance to humanity.
(ii) They promote tourism.

Question 9.
Write a report on any tourist place/historical place/World Heritage Site you recently visited using the points given below.
(i) Title
(ii) Place/Location
(iii) Background/History
(iv) Features/Specialities
(v) Security policies
(vi) Sign boards and discipline
(vii) Overall scenario.
Answer:
Ajanta – A Masterpiece In Rock
– Rani Iyer
Mumbai, 12 February: The Ajanta Caves, situated in the Deccan in Maharashtra and about 110 km from Aurangabad, are a UNESCO World Heritage Site. A visit to the place reveals a large slice of history.

These rock – cut cave temples and monasteries of Buddhists date back to around 2nd century BCE. Since they were in the jungles, cut into a mountainside, the external world did not know about them for a long time. They were discovered only in the 19th century, The caves include paintings and rock – cut sculptures described as among the finest surviving examples of ancient Indian art. The paintings are expressive and present emotion through gesture, pose and form, According to UNESCO, these are masterpieces of Buddhist religious art that influenced the Indian art I that followed.

Two new visitor centers provide extensive information about the heritage site using audiovisual media. Local staff is employed for security purposes. Though photography is allowed at certain places, with fees for the use of a camera, use of tripods and flash is prohibited. Signboards and brochures/leaflets provide information about the care to be taken to preserve this UNESCO protected heritage site. “The caves are now being looked after by a private company under the Indian government’s ‘Adopt a Heritage Site’ program,” said a senior official.

Question 10.
(A) Use ‘not only but also’ in the following sentences.
(a) UNESCO and the International Council on monuments initiated a draft convention to create an international organisation responsible for protecting cultural heritage.
(b) The state parties are responsible for identifying and nominating new sites.
(c) Opera House in Australia and the Historic Center of Vienna in Austria are cultural sites of World Heritage.
(d) World Heritage Sites can also be a combination of both cultural and natural areas.
Answer:
(a) Not only UNESCO but also the International Council on Monuments and Sites initiated a draft convention to create an international organization responsible for protecting cultural heritage.
(b) The State Parties are responsible for not only identifying but also nominating new sites.
(c) Not only the Opera House in Australia but also the Historic Center of Vienna in Austria are cultural sites of World Heritage.
(d) World Heritage Sites can be a combination of not only cultural but also natural areas.

(B) Rewrite the following sentences replacing ‘as soon as’ by ‘No sooner than’
(Note : The phrase, ‘No sooner’ must always be followed by an auxiliary (helping verb).)
For example : As soon as he came, they all gave an applause.
No sooner did he come, than they all gave an applause.

(a) As soon as the Bill is passed, it will become an Act.
(b) As soon as the thief escaped, the family informed the police.
(c) As soon as you have finished, you can submit your answer- papers.
(d) As soon as they can manage, they should change their house.
(e) As soon as the bell rings, the School Assembly will start.
Answer:
(a) No sooner is the Bill passed, than it will become an Act.
(b) No sooner did the thief escape, than the family informed the police.
(c) No sooner do you finish, than you can submit your answer papers.
(d) No sooner can they manage, than they should change their house.
(e) No sooner does the bell ring, than the School Assembly will start.

Question 11.
Identify whether the following sentences are Simple (One Subject + One Predicate or Complex (One Main Clause + One or more Dependent Clauses) or Compound (Combination of 2 or more Independent/ Co-ordinate Clauses).
(1) They vary in type but they include forests, monuments etc.
(2) The mountain is significant because of its characteristics.
(3) To protect the temples and artefacts, UNESCO launched an international campaign.
(4) If the site meets with this criteria, it can be inscribed on the World Heritage List.
(5) There are 890 World Heritage Sites that are located in 148 countries.
(6) The project cost about US $ 80 million and $ 40 million came from 50 different countries.
Answer:
(1) Compound
(2) Simple
(3) Simple
(4) Complex
(5) Complex
(6) Compound

Question 12.
Following are the ways to preserve ‘World Heritage Sites.’ Transfer these points into a small paragraph. Suggest a title.

Practical conservation of posterity
Human/animal trespassing to be prohibited
Monitored/controlled/restricted access
Threat of local administrative negligence to be removed

Answer:
Ways to Preserve World Heritage Sites
World Heritage Sites need to be preserved for posterity. The future generations must know about their history and culture. For this purpose, steps have to be taken to preserve these sites. First and foremost, trespassing by either humans or animals should be strictly prohibited. Access to these sites for tourists, vendors, officials and the general public should be restricted or monitored carefully. Another important step is to keep a check on the local administration of the site, so that negligence in the performance of the duties at this level is ruled out.

Question 13.
Read the points given in column ‘A’ specifying Dos towards prevention of any historical site. Write Don’ts in column ‘B’ specifying things that should not be done.

	Dos	Don’ts
(i)	Obey rules and regulations.
(ii)	Maintain discipline and order.
(iii)	Maintain cleanliness.
(iv)	Use dustbins and garbage bags.
(v)	Observe silence.
(vi)	Maintain environmental safety.
(vii)	Protect our country’s heritage.

Answer:

Dos	Don’ts
1. Obey rules and regulations.	1. Don’t dirty the surroundings.
2. Maintain discipline and order.	2. Don’t write on the walls/trees.
3. Maintain cleanliness.	3. Don’t pluck flowers/ destroy plants.
4. Use dustbins and garbage bags.	4. Don’t smoke/ drink alcohol.
5. Observe silence.	5. Don’t play loud music or make a loud noise.
6. Maintain environmental safety.	6. Don’t defecate in the open.
7. Protect our country’s heritage.	7. Don’t trespass.

Question 14.
Complete the following flow chart by choosing the option given below to show how any site of any country can become a World Heritage Site.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage 4
Options :
1. Inclusion of the name of site from tentative list to the nomination file.
2. Name of the site is inscribed on the World Heritage List after meeting the criteria.
3. Inclusion of the name of site for the nomination in a tentative list after an inventory in country or State.
4. Decision of the World Heritage Committee after review of the nominated file.
5. A review of the included file by the advisory bodies.
Answer:
Step 1 : Inclusion of the name of the site for nomination in a tentative list after inventory in country or state.
Step 2 : Inclusion of the name of site from tentative list to the nomination file.
Step 3 : A review of the included file by the advisory bodies.
Step 4 : Decision of the World Heritage Committee after review of the nominated file.
Step 5 : Name of the site inscribed on the World Heritage List after meeting the criteria.

Question 15.
Projects :
(a) Make a list of sites from our State which are included in the World Heritage Sites. Try to visit one of them. Write the importance of this World Heritage Site. Also write your impression of it in your notebook.

(b) Write a ‘tourism leaflet’ on any one of the following :
(i) Your home town
(ii) A historical place
(iii) A place of natural beauty
(iv) A place of pilgrimage

→ Make use of the following points :
(i) How to reach there?
(ii) Accommodation facilities
(iii) What to see and visit?/Attractions of the place
(iv) Places of interest nearby
(v) Best time to visit
(vi) Shopping Attractions
Add your own points.
Answer:
MATHERAN: ‘UNSPOILT NATURE’
(1) How to get there:
(a) By train: From Mumbai or Pune to Neral Junction.. From Neral to Matheran by narrow – gauge train that depart at fixed times.
(b) By road: Shared taxis or minibuses from Neral to MTDC Holiday Camp. Cars and other vehicles not allowed beyond a certain point.
(2) Accommodation facilities: Plenty of hotels offering full or half board. MTDC Tourist Camp provides dorm – beds at affordable rates. The ‘camp’ is near the Dasturi car park. You can eat at one of the many thali joints along MG Road.
(3) Best Time of the year to visit: All the year round except the rainy season.
(4) What to see: Viewpoints such as Porcupine, Louisa and Echo have the finest views. On a clear day, one can see Mumbai lying afar from ‘Hart Point’; perpendicular cliffs plunge into steep ravines; monkeys and squirrels.
(5) Shopping Attractions: Locally made chappals, home – made chocolates and chikkis, caps and other items for campers; walking sticks.
(6) Special features: Greenery, nature at its best, trekking, horse riding; good for a day’s group picnic.

(c) Vocabulary Extension – Choose several words from the text. Use a dictionary or internet to build up more associations/collocations of each word.
Answer:
(1) Associations:

(2) Collocations:

(d) World Heritage Sites – Make a poster about World Heritage Sites, specifying some details and specialties about each of them.

(e) Letter – Write a letter to an expert on the environment. Ask him/her five questions about your concern/doubts about World Heritage sites. Give him/her three ideas on how to protect them.
Answer:
Amit Awte
102, Riddhi Vihar
R.N. Road
Aurangabad – 431 001,
12th November, 2020

To
Mr. Avinash Ranade
‘Nisarg’
Shastri Marg
Aurangabad – 431 002.
Sub: Protection of World Heritage Sites

Sir
It was with great interest that I read in our local newspaper about your interest in the protection of World Heritage Sites. I would like to ask you a few questions which have haunted me for some time.

They are:
(1) Does India have enough experts to restore the damage done to our sites by nature/visitors etc.?
(2) Is there enough security to protect the sites from vandalism?
(3) Can there be a restriction on the number of visitors to the sites?
(4) Are the funds allocated to the preservation of the sites by the World Heritage Committee sufficient?
(5) Is there enough information about the sites on tourist websites/ Internet?

I would like to give some suggestions. Can we not impose a limit on the number of tourists visiting these places? We can also have sessions on how to maintain cleanliness and prevent vandalism. Stiff fines must be imposed on all those who break the rules.

I hope to receive a reply from you, as I am also very concerned about the preservation of our heritage sites.

Yours faithfully,
Amit Awte

(f) Article – Write an article for a magazine about the World Heritage sites at risk. Include imaginary interviews with people who are trying to save them. Read your article in front of your class.

Question 16.
The project of dismantling and moving the temples in the valley to higher ground cost $80 million.
(i) $40 million
(ii) $50 million
(iii) $80 million.
Answer:
(iii) $80 million.

Question 17.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) A World Heritage Site should have significant …………………
(2) World Heritage Sites include ……………………..
(3) They can also be a ……………………..
(4) The convention concerning the protection of Cultural Natural Herttage was adopted by ……………………
Answer:
(1) cultural or natural importance to humanity.
(2) combination of cultural and natural areas.
(3) forests, lakes, monuments, buildings and cities.
(4) UNESCO’s General Conference on November 16, 1972.

Question 18.
(a) UNESCO launched an international campaign in 1959.
Answer:
In 1954, Egypt started plans to build the Aswan High Dam. The initial plans for the dam’s construction would have flooded the valley containing the Abu Simbel Temples and scores of ancient Egyptian artifacts. To protect the temples and artifacts, UNESCO launched an international campaign in 1959, that called for the dismantling and movement of the temples to higher ground.

(b) A White House Conference in the United States called for a ‘World Heritage Trust’.
Answer:
A White House Conference in the United States called for a World Heritage Trust’ to protect the world’s historic and cultural sites as well as the significant natural and scenic sites.

Question 19.
Pick out 4 adjectives from the passage ending with the suffix ‘ – al’.
Answer:
1. educational,
2. cultural,
3. natural,
4. historical.

Question 20.
The World Heritage Committee meets once a year.
(i) once a year
(ii) twice a year
(iii) three times a year
Answer:
(i) once a year

Question 21.
A nominated site has to be first included in a Tentative List.
(i) World Heritage List
(ii) Nomination File
(iii) Tentative List
Answer:
(iii) Tentative List

Question 22.
Explain what the World Heritage Committee is responsible for.
Answer:
The World Heritage Committee is the main group responsible for establishing which sites will be listed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

Question 23.
Who makes recommendations to the World Heritage Committee?
Answer:
The recommendations to the World Heritage Committee are made by two Advisory Bodies, the International Council on Monuments and Sites and the World Conservation Union.

Question 24.
(1) Choose the correct noun forms from those given in the brackets:
(1) inscribed (inscription/inscribtion)
(2) responsible (responsive/responsibility)
(3) nominated (nominative/nomination)
(4) included (inclusion/inclution)
Answer:
(1) inscription
(2) responsibility
(3) nomination
(4) inclusion.

Question 25.
Complete the following by choosing the correct nouns from the box:
Bodies Parties List File
(1) Tentative ……………….
(2) Nomination ……………….
(3) Advisory ……………….
(4) State ……………….
Answer:
(1) Tentative List
(2) Nomination File
(3) Advisory Bodies
(4) State Parties.

Question 26.
World Heritage Committee can delete/exclude a site from the World Heritage List
(a) World Heritage Committee
(b) World Peace Committee
(c) World Health Committee
Answer:
(a) World Heritage Committee

Question 27.
There are 890 World Heritage Sites around the World.
(a) 689
(b) 890
(c) 36
Answer:
(b) 890

Question 28.
36 – sites have been included from India.
(a) 176
(b) 44
(c) 36
Answer:
(c) 36

Question 29.
Match the places with the countries:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) Sydney Opera House	(a) Vienna
(2) Historic Center	(b) Peru
(3) Grand Canyon National Park	(c) Australia
(4) Machu Pichhu	(d) United States

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) Sydney Opera House	(c) Australia
(2) Historic Center	(a) Vienna
(3) Grand Canyon National Park	(d) United States
(4) Machu Pichhu	(b) Peru

Question 30.
Complete the following:
(1) Peru’s Machu Picchu is an example of a ………………….
(2) The World Heritage Committee can choose to delete a site from the list if ……………….
Answer:
(1) mixed site, both cultural as well as natural.
(2) the site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to originally be included on the World Heritage List.

Question 31.
Explain the role of the World Heritage Committee.
Answer:
The World Heritage Committee allocates resources from the World Heritage Fund to a World Heritage Site which is in danger due to any reason or in need of protection or restoration. If a site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to originally be included on the World Heritage List, the World Heritage Committee can choose to delete the site from the list.

Question 32.
Choose the correct meanings:
(a) allocate:
(i) allow
(ii) distribute
(iii) catch
(iv) understand
Answer:
(b) distribute

Question 33.
Fill in the blanks with the correct words from the passage: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(a) Many small towns of the previous century have become crowded cities now due to rapid ………………..
(b) We should be well – prepared for …………….. problems like global warming.
Answer:
(a) urbanization.
(b) environmental

Question 34.
(1) Pick out a gerund from the lesson and use – it in your own sentence.
(2) Find out five hidden words from the given word: international
(3) Use the following phrase in your own sentence: a corhbination of
(4) Spot the error/errors and rewrite the correct sentence: The State Parties is then responsible for identifying and nominating new sites.
(5) Identify the type of sentence: Get out of my way.
(6) Punctuate: if however a site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to be originally included on the world heritage list the world heritage committee can choose to delete the site from the list.
(7) From the following verbs, pick out the verb which forms its present and past participle by doubling the last letter. run, lose, trip, quit
(8) Arrange the following words in alphabetical order: Sydney, Vienna, Austria, Peru, Australia, Egypt, China
Answer:
(1) protecting: We should think of various ways of protecting our environment.
(2) internatIonal : natIonal, nation, train, trail, trial.
(3) The rainbow is a combination of seven colours.
(4) The State Parties are then responsible for identifying and nominating new sites.
(5) Imperative sentence.
(6) If however, a site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to be originally included on the World Heritage List, the World Heritage Committee can choose to delete the site from the list.
(7) trip : tripped, trIpping.
(8) Australia, Austria, China, Egypt, Peru, Sydney, Vienna

Question 35.
(1) Use the following word and its homophone in two separate sentences : rain
(2) UNESCO launched an International campaign In 1959. (Rewrite beginning ‘An lnternattonal…..)
(3) DIfferent plans are put Into place. (Rewrite using the future perfect tense of the verb.)
Answer:
(1) (i) There was light rain yesterday evening near my house.
(ii) In the past, a cõuntry progressed dutlng the reign of good kings.
(2) An international campaign was launched by UNESCO in 1959.
(3) Different plans will have been put into place.

Question 36.
(1) Italy has the highest number of World Heritage Sites. (Rewrite using the comparative form.)
(2) The World Heritage Committee meets once a year to review these recommendations. (Rewrite as a compound sentence.)
Answer:
(1) Italy has a higher number of World Heritage Sites than any other country.
(2) The World Heritage Committee meets once a year and (it) reviews these recommendations.

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Std 10 English Poem All the World’s a Stage 1.4 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

December 21, 2024December 20, 2024 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.4 All the World’s a Stage Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10 English Chapter 1.4 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

All the World’s a Stage Poem 10th Std Question Answer

Question 1.
Pair work

Talk to your friend about all the things related to ‘Seven.’
For example Seven wonders of the world.
Pair up with your partner and name those given below all of the under :

(a) The seven wonders of the world
………………………………………………………
(b) The seven continents
………………………………………………………
(c) The seven colours of the rainbow
………………………………………………………
(d) The seven notes of the music
………………………………………………………
(e) The seven seas of the world
………………………………………………………
Answer:
(a) The Seven wonders of the world : The Great Wall of China, Christ the Redeemer Statue, Machu Picchu, Chichen Itza, The Roman Colosseum, The Taj Mahal and Petra.
(b) The Seven continents : Asia, Europe, Australia, Africa, North America, South America, Antarctica.
(c) The Seven colours of the rainbow : violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, red
(d) The Seven notes of the musical scale : sa-re-ga-ma-pa-da-ni./doh-re-me-fa-so-la-ti
(e) The Seven seas of the world : Arctic Ocean, Antarctic Ocean, North Atlantic Ocean, South Atlantic Ocean, Indian Ocean, North Pacific Ocean, South Pacific Ocean.

Question 2.
Life is often compared to many things. Write down 7 things that life can be compared to and justify the comparison. For example,
(a) Life is a keyboard, because if you press the right keys you have typed a good destiny.
(b) ………………………………………………………
(c) ………………………………………………………
(d) ………………………………………………………
(e) ………………………………………………………
(f) ………………………………………………………
(g) ………………………………………………………
Answer:
(a) Life is a keyboard; if you press the right keys, you have typed out a good destiny.
(b) Life is a river-always flowing.
(c) Life is like a seed; it will never grow unless planted, nourished and nurtured.
(d) Life is like an elevator, with lots of ups and downs. ‘
(e) Life is like an onion. You peel off layer after layer. Sometimes it makes you weep.
(f) Life is like a jigsaw puzzle. You have all the pieces, but you have to put them together correctly.
(g) Life is like a jack-in-the-box. You never know : when you are going to get a box on your chin.

Question 3.
Match the approximate ages with the stages.

No.	Age-group		Stages
1	Birth to 2 years	a	teenage/adolescence
2	3 years to 12 years	b	old age/second childhood
3	13 years to 17 years	c	middle-age
4	18 years to about 44 years	d	babyhood/infancy
5	About 45 years to 60 years	e	senior citizen/elderly person
6	65 years up to 75 to 80 years	f	adulthood
7	Above 80 years	g	childhood

Answer:

No.	Age-group	Stages
(1)	Birth to 2 years	(d) babyhood/infancy
(2)	3 years to 12 years	(g) childhood
(3)	13 years to 17 years	(a) teenage/adolescence
(4)	18 years to about 44 years	(f) adulthood
(5)	About 45 years to 60 years	(c) middle-age
(6)	65 years up to 75 to 80 years	(e) senior citizen/ elderly person
(7)	Above 80 years	(b) old age/second childhood

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Unit 1.4 Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the words in given clouds. Match them with what they signify.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.4 All the World’s a Stage 1
Answer:
(1) Stage – Life
(2) Characters – Roles played by human beings
(3) Script – Story of life
(4) Dialogues – Conversation
(5) Entry – Birth
(6) Exit – Death

Question 2.
Read the poem carefully and complete the following table.

Ages of Man	Role	Qualities/Actions
1		1. 2.
2		1. 2.
3		1. 2.
4		1. 2.
5		1. 2.
6		1. 2.
7		1. 2.

Answer:

First	infant	(1) frightened (2) crying, puking
Second	schoolboy	(1) unhappy (2) whining, creeping unwillingly to school
Third	lover	(1) woeful (2) sighing, singing sad ballads
Fourth	soldier	(1) jealous in honor, ambitious (2) quarreling, facing danger

Question 3.
Write down in your own words the differences between the following stages of a man’s life.
2nd stage and 4th stage …………………………………
……………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………

3rd stage and 5th stage …………………………………
……………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………

1 st stage and 7th (last) stage …………………………………
……………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………
Answer:
2nd stage and 4th stage:
The second stage is that of a school boy, complaining and crying. He goes to school early in the morning, with a well-scrubbed, shining face. He carries his school bag and creeps slowly, like a snail, unwillingly to school.

‘Full of strange oaths and bearded like the pard, Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel.’

3rd stage and 5th stage:
The third stage is that of a lover, who is’ breathless and sighing with passion. He sings sad Songs dedicated to the beauty of his lover.

The fifth stage is that of , a mature middle-aged man with a round belly. He is stern and formal and full of wisdom. He is full of wise sayings and gives modern examples.

1 st stage and 7th (last) stage:
The first stage is that of an infant, crying weakly and throwing up in his nurse’s arms. He is unaware of what is happening around him.The baby, at this stage, is without teeth, without vision, without taste and without anything.

The last stage of all, which ends one’s eventful life, is when man becomes senile and enters his second childhood. He is again unaware of what is happening around him. This final stage is when he is once more without teeth, without vision, without taste and without anything.

Question 4.
Pick out lines that contain Imagery (a picture created in the mind by using words) of the following people.
(a) School boy …………………………………
(2nd stage) …………………………………
(b) Soldier …………………………………
(4th stage) …………………………………
(c) Judge …………………………………
(5th stage) …………………………………
(d) Senior citizen …………………………………
(6th stage) …………………………………
Answer:
(a) a snail
‘The whining schoolboy, with his satchel and shining morning face, creeping like a snail unwillingly to school.’

(b) acts like the pard
‘Full of strange oaths and bearded like the pard, Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel.’

(d) His youthful hose, well-saved, a world too wide
For his shrunk shank

Question 5.
You will notice that there is no Rhyme-scheme in the poem. It appears similar to the poem 1.1 ‘Where the Mind is Without Fear by Tagore.

However Tagore’s poem has no steady rhythm/meter either it is called Free Verse. Shakespeare uses lines with a steady rhythm of 5 beats in each. It is termed as Blank Verse. (No rhyme-scheme but uniformity in rhythm) Copy the lines from “Ánd all the men and women merely players” to “sudden and quick in quarrel”. Put a stress mark on each of the syllables stressed in the lines as for example, And all the men and women merely players;
Answer:
The poem is written in free verse without any rhyme scheme or consistent metre. There are many figures of speech e.g. Repetition. Metaphor, Alliteration, etc. An Important figure of speech is Personification. ‘Where tireless striving stretches its arms towards perfection’. Here, we can actually visualize ‘tireless striv1ng stretching Its arms to reach its goal.

The poem is a prayer to God. Tagore addresses God as ‘my Father’ and asks Him to awaken his country Into a heaven of freedom, where there is total freedom of good thoughts, good words and good actions. He wishes for a country where people would be free from fear, where knowledge would be free to all individuals and people from all castes and religions would be united.

Question 6.
Think and write on your own.
(a) What is the theme/central idea of this poem?
(b) Which two stages of man, described by Shakespeare sound humorous? Say why.
(c) The last (7th) stage of life sounds very sad and miserable. How can you make old age also cheerful and happy?
Answer:
(a) The theme of this poem is the cycle of life.
It tells us how one starts out an infant, helpless and unaware of the surroundings, and ends the same way, i without being aware of what is happening around one.

(b) The second and third stages are humorous. One can just imagine the school boy, complaining and whining, creeping to school slowly with a well-scrubbed and shining face. The third stage, where the lover sighs loudly and sings sad poems and songs, is also humorous.

(c) We can make the last stage joyful by preparing for it beforehand. We know that most of us will reach this stage before our final exit. Hence, we must maintain good health, and keep good relations with our family and the people around us. We must save enough money to get us through this stage without any stress on ourselves or others.

Question 7.
(A) The poem is entirely metaphorical. Pick out the comparisons from the poem.
(a) world …………………………………
(b) actors …………………………………
(c) birth and death …………………………………
(d) school boy …………………………………
(e) the lover’s sigh …………………………………
(f) spotted leopard …………………………………
(g) last stage (old age) …………………………………
Answer:
(a) stage
(b) –
(c) entrances and exits
(d) a snail
(e) a furnace
(f) bearded soldier

(B) Pick out from the poem two examples of each.
(a) Simile
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………
Answer:
Simile. Two dissimilar objects are compared using the word ‘like’.

(b) Onomatopoeia
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………

(d) Metaphor
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………

(e) Inversion
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………

(f) Transferred Epithet
(1) …………………………………
(2) …………………………………
Answer:

(a) Simile	(1) Creeping like a snail (2) Soldier bearded like the pard
(b) Onomatopoeia	(1) And then the whining schoolboy (2) Sighing like a furnace
(c) Alliteration	(1) They have -their exits and their entrances (2) His youthful hose, well- saved, a world too wide
(d) Metaphor	(1) They have their exits and their entrances (2) men and women merely players
(e) Inversion	(1) His acts being seven ages. (2) With eyes severe and beard of formal cut
(f) Transferred Epithet	(1) with a woeful ballad (2) Into the lean and slippered pantaloon

Question 8.
Read the summary of the play ‘As You Like It’ by William Shakespeare using the Internet. Find out which character has narrated the above poem and on what occasion. Also, make a list of all the characters of the play.
Answer:
The character who has narrated the above poem in the play ‘As You Like It’ by William Shakespeare is Jacques. He narrates it in Act II, Scene VII.

Some of the other characters in the play are Celia, Rosalind, Orlando, Oliver, Duke Senior, Duke Frederick, Touchstone, etc.

Question 9.
Read the poem again and write an appreciation of the poem in a paragraph format. (Refer to page no. 5)
Answer:
Point Format
(for understanding)
The title of the poem : All the World’s a Stage’
The poet : WIlliam Shakespeare
Rhyme scheme : blank verse I.e. no rhyme scheme, but there is a steady rhythm of five beats In each line.
Figures of speech : Metaphor, Simile, Alliteration, Repetition. etc.
Theme/Central idea : The theme of the poem Is the cycle of life.

Paragraph Format
The poem ‘All the World’s a Stage’ is by William Shakespeare. It is taken from Shakespeare’s play ‘As you like It’. It is a monologue by one of the characters in the play.

The poem is written in blank verse i.e. there is no rhyme scheme, but there Is a steady rhythm of five beats i.e. iambic pentameter in each line. There are many figures of speech, like Simile. Alliteration and Repetition. but the one that stands out Is Metaphor. In the lines ‘All the world’s a stage, And all men and women are merely players’, there is an implied comparison between two different things.

In this poem, Shakespeare compares life to a stage. He has divided life Into seven stages. each having its own varied qualities and features. The theme of the poem is the cycle of life. It tells us how one starts out as an Infant, helpless. without understanding. and ends the same way, without being aware of what Is happening around one.

Question 10.
Complete the following diagram:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.4 All the World’s a Stage 2

Question 11.
Match the following :

A	B
(1) Infant	(a) acts like the pard
(2) School boy	(b) mewling and puking
(3) Lover	(c) whining,
(4) Soldier ‘	(d) sighing like furnace

Answer:

(1) Infant	(b) mewling arjd puking
(2) School boy	(c) whining
(3) Lover	(d) sighing like furnace
(4) Soldier	(a) acts like the pard

Question 12.
Complete the following : (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) ‘Exits’ and ‘entrances’ refer to deaths and births.
(2) Reputation is like a bubble because one does useless things for one’s reputation, which can burst like a bubble in one instant.

Question 13.
Name and explain the poetic devices used in the following lines:
(a) Soldier bearded like the pard
Answer:
Simile. Two dissimilar objects are compared using the word ‘like’,

(b) Sighing like a furnace
Answer:
Simile. Two dissimilar objects are compared using the word ‘like’.

(d) They have their exits and their entrances
Answer:
Alliteration. Repetition of the sound of ‘t’ and ‘e’.
Metaphor. Implicit comparison between two different things.

(f) With a woeful ballad
Answer:
Alliteration. Repetition of the sound of ‘w’.
Transferred Epithet. It is not the ballad that is woeful but the lover.

Question 14.
Complete the following diagram :
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.4 All the World’s a Stage 3

Question 15.
Write if the following statements are True or False :
Answer:

Man in the fifth stage of life is full of wisdom. (True)
Man in the sixth stage has a fair, round belly. (False)
The last few lines are full of melancholy. (True)
In the last stage, man is unaware of his surroundings. (True)

Question 16.
Write down in your own words the differences between the following stages of a man’s life :
(a) 5th and 6th stage :
Answer:
The fifth stage is that of a mature middle-aged man with a round belly. He is stern and formal and full of wisdom. He is full of wise sayings and gives modern examples.

In the sixth stage, man has become old, with thin legs in slippers and loose pants. He has spectacles on his nose and a pouch by his side. The close-fitting stockings, which he had saved from his younger days, are now too big for his thin legs, which have shrunk with age. His loud voice, which was once manly, has now become childish and shrill. There are whistling sounds when he talks.

Question 17.
Complete the following table based on the extract. (The answers are given directly.)
Answer:

Stages of Man	Role	qualities/Actions
Fifth	adult man	(1) fat, serious and wise (2) giving advice
Sixth	middle-aged man	(1) thin and shrunken (2) talking in a shrill-voice
Seventh	very old man	(1) senile, child-like (2) oblivious to his surroundings

Question 18.
The poem is entirely metaphorical. Pick out the comparison from the extract: last stage (old age)
Answer:
last scene

Question 19.
Name and explain the figures of speech used in the following lines :
(a) His youthful hose, well-saved, a world too wide
Answer:
Alliteration. Repetition of the sound of ‘w’.

(b) For his shrunk shank
Answer:
Alliteration. Repetition of the sound of ‘s’.

(d) Sans teeth, sans eyes, sans taste, sans everything.
Answer:
Repetition. The word ‘sans’ is repeated for emphasis.

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Std 10 English Poem The Concert 3.6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

December 21, 2024December 20, 2024 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.6 The Concert Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10 English Chapter 3.6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

The Concert Poem 10th Std Question Answer

Question 1.
Pair up with your partner and ask and answer the following questions.
(a) Do you like music?
(b) What does a concert mean?
(c) Have you ever attended any live concert?
(d) Have you seen a concert on Television?
(e) Whose concert would you love to attend?
Answer:
(a) Yes, I do.
(b) A concert is a musical programme where musicians and classical singers come together to play different pieces of music.
(c) Yes, I have.
(d) Yes, I have.
(e) I would love to attend the concert of A. R. Rahman.

Question 2.
Look at the web diagram given below and study the traits of a good concert organizer.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.6 The Concert 1
Answer:

The Concert Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Who said to whom?
(a) “We mustn’t miss the chance.”
(b) “This is not the last time they are going to play.”
(c) “A walk in the park might make you feel better.”
(d) “Tomorrow morning we perform for the boy- Yes?”
Answer:

Statement	Who	To Whom
(a) “We mustn’t miss the chance.’’	The boy	To his sister and mother
(b) “This is not the last time they are going to play.”	the mother	to anant
(c) “A walk in the park will make you feel better.”	Aunt Sushila	to smita
(d) “Tomorrow morning we perform for the boy- Yes?”	Ustad Sahib	to Pandit Ravi Shankar.

Question 2.
Read the following sentences and write which emotions are revealed from these sentences.
(a) Pandit Ravi Shankar is playing tomorrow at the Shanmukhananda auditorium.
(b) It’s the chance of a lifetime.
(c) Will you come to Aunt Sushila’s house and play for him?
(d) Did you…did you hear him?
(e) Is it…It’s not possible?
Answer:
(a) excitement
(b) anticipation, joy, excitement
(c) This sentence expresses the emotion of a sincere plea or entreaty. Smita is practically begging Pandit Ravi Shankar to consider her request.
(d) This sentence expresses the boy’s innermost curiosity, and his desire to confirm if his sister had indeed heard the performances of the musicians whom he so longed to hear.
(e) This sentence expresses the emotion of complete surprise and disbelief. Something the neighbours had thought absolutely impossible was indeed a reality.

Question 3.
Read the text carefully, you will find some words describing a particular specialty of the individuals/personalities in the text. Explain the meaning of the following words given in the table with reference to the particular personality mentioned in the text.

Speciality	Personality	Explanation
Maestro Pandit Ustad Moustachioed	………………….. Ravi Shankar ………………….. …………………..	………………….. ………………….. ………………….. a person having a large or bushy mustache.

Answer:

Specialty	Personality	Explanation
Ustad	Allah Rakha	title for an expert tabla player
Moustachioed	Name unknown	someone who sports ’ a prominent bushy mustache
Maestro	Pandit Ravi Shankar	a distinguished performer of classical music
Pandit	Ravi Shankar	a talented musician (used as a respectful title or form of address)

Question 4.
Describe the condition of Smita when she was going towards the stage. Read the text again and complete the boxes given below. One is done for you.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.6 The Concert 3
Answer:

Question 5.
The whole story revolves around Anant. Write a short paragraph on Anant. Take help of the following points to develop the paragraph.
1. Health
2. Disease
3. Early interests
4. Intense desire/wish
5. Fulfillment of desire/wish.
Answer:
Anant was a fifteen-year-old boy, living in a village named Gaganpur with his sister and parents. Very active in his school days, he was a good athlete, the best table-tennis player, could play the sitar very well and had even been composing his own tunes. Suddenly, he was struck with cancer and came to Mumbai for treatment. Then one day, his sister read in the newspaper that Pandit Ravi Shankar would be performing at the Shanmukhananda auditorium.

It was his earnest desire to watch the performance, but due to his sickness, his mother forbade him. Finally, his sister, in a very daring move, went to the concert and after the concert had ended, went backstage and requested Pandit Ravi Shankar to come to their home and play for her brother. The great generous maestro along with Ustad Allah Rakha agreed and did exactly that. As the beautiful soulful music wafted around the room where Anant lay, Anant breathed his last.

Question 6.
The story has three important characters- Anant, Smita and Aunt Sushila. Go through the story again and complete the following table that highlights their special traits of character. You can put X mark if that trait is not mentioned in the text.

Special traits	Smita	Anant	Aunt Sushila
Strength Weaknesses Dreams Motivation

Answer:

Special traits	Smita	Anant	Aunt Sushila
Strength	daring	courage	concern, generosity
Weakness	given to emotion	physical health	X
Dreams	that her brother would get cured	that he would hear Pandit Ravi Shankar play	X
Motivation	love for her brother	love for music	love for the children

Question 7.
The two contradictory pictures are depicted in the story. Discuss in pairs and describe them in your words in front of the class.
Answer:
The brother and sister seem excited about Pandit Ravi Shankar’s upcoming performance. The girl expresses excitement and the boy’s eyes are shining. The mother, however, is more worried about the physical condition of her son, who is on oxygen and apparently out of breath. The mother’s voice breaks when she speaks and her lips utter unbidden prayers. These are the contradictory images presented in this passage.

Question 8.
The text has a big collection of Indian words in it. Using words from another language in a write up is called Code-mixing. Make a list of all the Indian words in table A and their meanings in table B. One is done for you.

‘A’ Indian word	‘B’ Meaning
1. Raga	(a) piece of Indian classical music based on one of the six basic musical modes.
2.	(b)
3.	(c)
4.	(d)
5.	(e)
6.	(f)

Answer:

‘A’ (Indian word)	‘B’ (Meaning)
1. Raga	(a) piece of Indian classical music based on one of the six basic musical modes.
2. Pandit	(b) a talented musician (used’as a respectful title or form of address)
3. sitar	(c) a large, long-necked Indian lute with movable frets, played with a wire pick
4. Ustad	(d) a highly skilled musician
5. Pandit	(e) address for a talented classical musician
6. divan	(f) a long low sofa without a back or arms

Question 9.
(A) Choose the appropriate Adverb or Adjective form to fill in the gaps.
(1) She spoke in an …………………….. tone. (excited / excitedly)
(2) Smita accepted the suggestion …………………….. (grateful / gratefully)
(3) They gave him whatever made him …………………….. (happy/ happily)
(4) He ran very …………………….. (fast / fastly)
(5) He would become a …………………….. sitarist some day. (great / greatly)
(6) Life went out of him …………………….. (gentle / gently)
Answer:
(1) excited
(2) softly
(3) happy
(4) fast
(5) great
(6) gently

(B) Rewrite in Indirect speech
1. “Please”, she begged him, “Please come”.
……………………………………………………………………

2. He said, “What shall we do, Ustad Sahib?”
……………………………………………………………………

3. Her brother said, “Enjoy yourself”. He added, “Lucky you!”
……………………………………………………………………

4. ‘Yes’ Panditji replied. “It’s settled then. Tomorrow morning we shall perform, for the boy.”
……………………………………………………………………
Answer:
(1) She begged him repeatedly to come.
(2) He asked the Ustad Sahib what they should do.
(3) Her brother told her to enjoy herself and then added that she was indeed lucky.
(4) The Panditji replied in the affirmative and added that the matter was then settled. He further added that they would perform for the boy the following morning.

Question 10.
The text mentions names of stalwarts like Pandit Ravi Shankar and Ustad Allah Rakha. Both have earned world wide name and fame for their outstanding contribution to the field of music. Form groups of 5 students each and write a brief note on other stalwarts in this (music) field. You can take help of your school library or search the relevant information on the internet.
Take help of the following points.
1. Name :
2. Field : Music
3. Specialisation : Tabla/Sitar/Violin etc.
4. Guru :
5. Early life :
6. Education :
7. Early success :
8. Contribution to the field and world :
9. Awards:
10. Any special incident that has occurred in his/her life :
Answer:
Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia
Hariprasad Chaurasia is an Indian classical flutist. He plays the bansuri, an Indian bamboo flute in the Hindustani classical tradition.

His Guru was Bholanath Prasanna of Varanasi. He studied with him for eight years. In 1957, he joined the All India Radio, Cuttack, Odisha. He worked as composer and performer. Much later, he received guidance from the reclusive Annapurna Devi, daughter of Baba Allaudin Khan. Legend has it that she agreed to teach him only if he played with the left hand. True or not, up till today, Hariprasad plays the bansuri with the left hand.

Apart from classical music, Hariprasad has collaborated with Shivkumar Sharma, the santoor exponent forming an association called Shiv-Hari. He has collaborated with world musicians, including the fusion group Shakti, in experimental cross-cultural performances.

He is at present the artistic director of the World Music Department at the Rotterdam Music Conservatory in the Netherlands. In 2006, he founded the Vrindavan Gurukul in Mumbai and in 2010, the Vrindavan Gurukul in Bhubaneshwar. Both of these institutes are schools dedicated to training students in bansuri in the Guru-shishya tradition.

He has collaborated with several western musicians, including John McLaughlin, Jan Garbarek, and Ken Lauber, and has composed music for Indian films.

Chaurasia also played on The Beatles’ 1968 B-side ‘The Inner Light’, which was written by George Harrison.

Question 11.
Imagine you are the monitor of your class. You are assigned the task to invite a classical singer as a chief guest for the Annual Day Programme. Write a letter of invitation to a famous classical singer. Take help of the following points.
Write in short –
1. About your school.
2. About the Annual Day Programme
3. Interest and love of students for music.
4. Motivation.
Answer:
Dilip Rane
Sulochana Devi High School
Mahatma Phule Chowk
Dhule – 424 001,
Date: 20 November, 2020

Shri Gangadin Murkathe
Govardhan Society
Videhi Nagar
Dhule – 424 003.

Subject: Invitation as Chief Guest for the Sulochana Devi High School Annual Function

Dear Sir,
As monitor of Std. X A, Sulochana Devi High School, it is my privilege to invite you to our School Annual Day Function on 15th January, 2021 as Chief Guest.

It will be an evening filled with song and dance, and the first person we thought of was you, as you are an eminent classical singer in your own right. Most of us know about you and have heard your songs either on DVD or on FM.

Our students are highly interested in the classical genre and many are under training at various local i classes. Your presence will serve as motivation for our budding talent and give us pointers as to future careers in music.

Please confirm your presence; for us it will be an honour.

Yours truly,
Dilip Rane,
Monitor (Std. X A)

Question 12.
Write who said to whom:
Answer:

statements	Who	To whom
(a) You’ll wake him up.	The mother	To her daughter
(a) “The chance of a lifetime.”	Anant	to his mother
(c) “Your father will take you.”	Smita’s mother	to Smita

Question 13.
Complete the following web:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.6 The Concert 5

Question 14.
Why was Smita excited?
Answer:
Smita was excited because she read in the newspaper that Pandit Ravi Shankar was to play the next day at the Shanmukhananda auditorium.

Question 15.
What was the chance of a lifetime for Anant?
Answer:
To be able to hear and see Pandit Ravi Shankar perform was the chance of a lifetime for Anant.

Question 16.
Give reasons: Smita became nervous.
Answer:
Smita became nervous because she remembered that her brother was very ill and that the doctors had given up hope. The truth that Anant was going to die frightened her.

Question 17.
Write from the passage antonyms for the following words:
(a) bored
(b) forget
(c) worse
(d) worst
Answer:
(a) bored x excited
(b) forgot x remembered
(c) worse X better
(d) worst X best

Question 18.
(1) Choose the appropriate Adverb or Adjective form to fill in the gaps:
(b) I wished the noise would stop. It seemed to go on ……………, (endless, endlessly)
Answer:
(b) endlessly

Question 19.
Add question tags:
(a) You know he needs all the sleep and rest he can get.
(b) You’ll wake him up.
(c) His eyes were shining.
(d) We mustn’t miss the chance.
Answer:
(a) You know he needs all the sleep and rest he can get, don’t you?
(b) You’ll wake him up, won’t you?
(c) His eyes were shining, weren’t they?
(d) We mustn’t miss the chance, must we?

Question 20.
The boy on the bed was not asleep: (Rewrite without ‘not’.)
Answer:
The boy on the bed was awake.

Question 21.
How would you feel and react if you came to know that someone closely known to you was suffering from cancer?
Answer:
If I came to know that someone closely known to me was suffering from cancer, I would feel very bad. I would visit the person, spend time, make the person happy in every way possible and most of all pray to God, to relieve the person from suffering.

Question 22.
Say whether the following are True or False: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(a) In Bombay, the family stayed with their aunt.
(b) The doctors told the family directly that Anant did not have many days to live.
(c) The family voiced their fears to Anant.
(d) Anant was well enough to take part in the forthcoming table tennis tournament.
Answer:
True
False
False
False

Question 23.
Why was everyone from the family trying to keep Anant happy?
Answer:
Everyone from the family was trying to keep Anant happy because they knew he did not have many days to live. They did not wish to voice their fears but rather wanted him to be surrounded by whatever made him happy.

Question 24.
Why was Smita not ready to go for the concert?
Answer:
Smita was not ready to go for the concert because she and her brother, Anant, had always done things together.

Question 25.
Write from the passage phrases that mean:
(a) participate
(b) feeling that something good will happen
(c) express their worries
(d) a rare opportunity
Answer:
(a) take part In
(b) high hopes
(c) voice their fears
(d) a chance of a
(e) lifetime.

Question 26.
Match the columns:

A	B
(a) choked (b) roasted (c) Yogic (d) daring	(i) exercises (ii) thought (iii) gram (iv) voice

Answer:

A	B
(a) choked (b) roasted (c) Yogic (d) daring	(iv) voice (iii) gram (i) exercises (ii) thought

Question 27.
Complete the sentence with proper option: Smita accepted the suggestion (grateful/gratefully)
Answer:
Smita accepted the suggestion gratefully.

Question 28.
Frame Yes-No questions to get the sentences as the answer:
(a) There’s no harm in trying it.
(b) It would be nice to go to the concert.
Answer:
(a) Is there any harm in trying it?
(b) Wouldn’t it be nice to go to the concert?

Question 29.
*Two contradictory pictures are depicted in the story.
Answer:
On the one hand, the family is aware that Anant does not have many days to live. They are worried. They have fears but they suppress them. Instead they laugh and smile and talk. They surround Anant with whatever makes him happy. They fulfil his every need and give him whatever he asks for.

Question 30.
(1) Complete the following flow-chart:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 3.6 The Concert 6

Question 31.
Write whether the following statements are True or False:
(a) Smita dreamt that she was at the concert.
(b) Anant had said, ‘The chance of a lifetime’ the previous evening.
(c) At the end of the concert, the artistes stood and clapped for the audience.
(d) A man with a long moustache was one of the artistes.
Answer:
(a) False
(b) True
(c) False
(d) False

Question 32.
(1) Arrange the following sentences chronologically according to their occurrence in the passage:
(a) The first notes came over the air.
(b) The audience gave the artistes a standing ovation.
(c) The audience gave the great master a thundering welcome.
(d) The ragas unfolded.
Answer:
(c) The audience gave the great master a thundering welcome.
(a) The first notes came over the air.
(d) The ragas unfolded.
(b) The audience gave the artistes a standing ovation.

Question 33.
How did Smita enjoy the concert?
Answer:
Smita felt as if the gates of a land of enchantment and wonder were opening. She listened spellbound to the unfolding ragas.

Question 34.
Give one example of code-mixing (Indian word) from the passage and explain its meaning.
Answer:
raga – a musical mode in Indian classical music

Question 35.
Pick the odd man out from the following based on the passage and give reasons:
(a) sitting, thundering, unfolding, twinkling
(b) slow, boring, plaintive, twinkling
Answer:
(a) sitting (verb – all the others are adjectives)
(b) boring (describes the noun ‘speech’ – all the others describe the ‘ragas’)

Question 36.
Underline the adverbs:
(a) The curtain came down.
(b) The plan remained firmly in her mind.
(c) The plan she had decided on the evening before remained firmly in her mind.
Answer:
(a) The curtain came down.
(b) The plan remained firmly in her mind.
(c) The plan she had decided on the evening before remained firmly in her mind.

Question 37.
Have you ever attended any concert? How was your experience there?
Answer:
Yes, I have attended a concert in which A. R. Rahman was the main performer. When I heard the first few notes being sung, I was thrilled. Never before had I heard such music or singing. I felt as if I were transported to a wonderland where only music reigned. Every beat, every note filled me with delight. I began wondering if I were in heaven!

Question 38.
Who said this to whom?
“Tomorrow morning we perform for the boy – Yes?”
Answer:
Ustad Sahib said this to Pandit Ravi Shankar.

Question 39.
Write whether the following statements are True or False:
(1) When Smita returned home, Anant was awake.
(2) Both Ravi Shankar and Ustad Allah Rakha came to Aunt Sushila’s house.
(3) Anant’s room was on the ground floor.
(4) Anant survived the sickness.
Answer:
(1) True
(2) True
(3) False
(4) False

Question 40.
What was Smita’s plan?
Answer:
It was Smita’s plan to plead with Pandit Ravi Shankar to come to her aunt’s house and play the sitar for her brother, Anant, who was suffering from cancer.

Question 41.
Why were the neighbours surprised?
Answer:
The neighbours were surprised to see the two great musicians Pandit Ravi Shankar and Ustad Allah Rakha, getting out of a taxi which pulled up outside their block.

Question 42.
Give one word for each of the following:
(a) a soft compressed lump – …………………..
(b) twist or turn the body with quick – …………………..
(c) an expert at music – …………………..
(d) unseen backstage area on the sides of a stage – …………………..
Answer:
(a) wad
(b) wriggle movements
(c) wizard
(d) wings

Question 43.
(1) State the tense of the underlined verbs in the sentences:
(a) A small crowd had gathered
(b) Her knees felt weak.
(c) “Will you come to Aunt Sushila’s house?”
(d) “Its settled then.”
Answer:
(a) Past Perfect
(b) Simple Past
(c) Simple Future
(d) Simple Present.

Question 44.
Choose the appropriate Adverb or Adjective form to fill in the gaps.
(a) Smita spoke ………………. to Anant. (excited/excitedly)
Answer:
(a) excitedly

Question 45.
Music can calm the mind. Share your views.
Answer:
This is very true. Music has the profound effect of calming the mind, filling the soul of the listener with peace and transporting the devotee to a state of mind that is almost heaven.

Question 46.
(1) Pick out the gerund and use it in a sentence: She had been so excited at seeing the announcement.
(2) Arrange the words in alphabetical order: wooden, word, would, wonder
(3) Make a meaningful sentence by using the phrase: catch the attention of
(4) Write two smaller words hidden in the given word: table-tennis
(5) Identify the kind of sentence: Lucky you!
(6) Spot the errors and correct the sentence: Her knees were felt weak and her tongue being dry.
(7) Write the past participle forms of the given verbs: (1) die (2) stay
(8) Punctuate the sentence: did you hear him he whispered
Answer:
(1) Gerund: seeing Sentence: Seeing is believing.
(2) wonder, wooden, word, would
(3) Sentence: One of the girls in the dance caught the attention of the chief guest.
(4) tablet, table (tennis, able)
(5) Exclamatory Sentence
(6) Her knees felt weak and her tongue was dry.
(7) (1) died (2) stayed
(8) “Did you hear him?” he whispered.

Question 47.
(a) Write sentences using the word ‘rest’ with two different meanings.
(b) Rewrite the sentences beginning with the underlined word: The audience gave the artistes a standing ovation.
(c) Write a word register of 8 words for the word ‘concert’.
Answer:
(a) (1) Those who have finished may leave. The rest will please stay back, (the remaining ones)
(2) You may rest in the afternoon, (stop work in order to relax, sleep or gather strength)
(b) The artistes were given a standing ovation (by the audience).
(c) concert: programme, stage, audience, music, dance, box office, venue, band, (performance, recital, show, gig)

Question 48.
(1) State the kind of sentence and pick out the clause, if any: They knew then that the boy had not many days to live.
(2) Use the two given words in one meaningful sentence: cured, sitar
Answer:
(1) Kind of sentence: Complex Clause: that the boy had not many days to live – Noun clause
(2) The doctor told him that after he was cured he could play the sitar.

Read More:

Std 10 English Poem Connecting 2.3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

December 21, 2024December 20, 2024 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.3 Connecting the Dots Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10 English Chapter 2.3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Connecting Fear Poem 10th Std Question Answer

Question 1.
(A) Connect the dots to get what means a lot to you.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.3 Connecting the Dots 1
The word is ……………………………… .
Answer:

The word is SUN

(B) With your benchmark, use the letters given above to make a word register of ‘computers’. Set a time -limit of 5 minutes and compare your list with that of other classmates.
Answer:
AI, adobe, android, arithmetic, binary, browser, byte, bit, download, document, data, database, disk, format, http, hardware, homepage, java, keyboard, key, Microsoft, malware, memory, network, netscape, program, reboot, spam, spreadsheet, software, virus, web, windows, update, zip.

Question 2.
You are quite familiar with computers, especially the personal computer. Form pairs and make a list of famous computer manufacturing companies. One is given to you.
(a) Apple
(b) ……………………….
(c) ……………………….
(d) ……………………….
(e) ……………………….
(f) ……………………….
Answer:
(a) Apple
(b) Samsung
(c) IBM
(d) Lenovo
(e) Foxconn
(f) HP Inc.

Question 3.
Complete the web by filling the various benefits of computers.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.3 Connecting the Dots 2
Answer:

Question 4.
(A) Expand the following into their full forms.
(a) that’s
(b) didn’t
(c) here’s
(d) can’t
(e) I’ve
Answer:
(a) that’s – that is
(b) didn’t – did not
(c) here’s – here is
(d) can’t – cannot
(e) I’ve – I have

(B) Write the shortened forms of the following.
(a) You have ……………………….
(b) I would ……………………….
(c) It is ……………………….
(d) You are ……………………….
(e) He will ……………………….
(f) I had ……………………….
(g) will not ……………………….
(h) shall not ……………………….
(i) are not ……………………….
(j) need not ……………………….
(k) must not ……………………….
(l) ought not ……………………….
Answer:
(a) you have – you’ve
(b) I would – I’d
(c) it is – it’s
(d) you are – you’re
(e) he will – he’ll
(f) I had – rd
(g) will not – won’t
(h) shall not – shan’t
(i) arc not – aren’t
(j) need not – needn’t
(k) must not – mustn’t
(l) ought not – oughtn’t

Connecting the Dots Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
(A) Rearrange the incidents in the life of Steve Jobs in chronological order.
(a) Steve Jobs started Next.
(b) Jobs underwent a surgery.
(c) Jobs learned about serif and sans serif type faces.
(d) Jobs returned to Apple Inc.
(e) Jobs married Laurene.
(f) Jobs was diagnosed with cancer.
(g) Jobs dropped out of Reed College.
Answer:
(a) Jobs started Next.
(b) Jobs underwent surgery.
(c) Jobs learned about serif and san serif typefaces.
(d) Jobs returned to Apple Inc.
(e) Jobs married Laurene.
(f) Jobs was diagnosed with cancer.
(g) Jobs dropped out of Reed College.

(B) Read the third story again. Complete the flow-chart given below.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.3 Connecting the Dots 3
Answer:

Question 2.
Read the lesson. Refer to a dictionary and match the words in column ‘A’ with their meanings in column ‘B’.

No	‘A’		‘B’
(a)	diagnosis	(i)	the power believed to control events
(b)	devastating	(ii)	complete list of items especially in a special order and description.
(c)	intuition	(iii)	act of identifying the nature of a problem or illness.
(d)	calligraphy	(iv)	power of understanding situations or people’s feelings before hand.
(e)	destiny	(v)	causing great destruction
(f)	catalogue	(vi)	beautiful handwriting done with a special pen or brush.

Answer:

No	‘A’		‘B’
(a)	diagnosis	(iii)	act of identifying the nature of a problem or illness.
(b)	devastating	(v)	causing great destruction
(c)	intuition	(iv)	power of understanding situations or people’s feelings before hand.
(d)	calligraphy	(vi)	beautiful handwriting done with a special pen or brush.
(e)	destiny	(a)	the power believed to control events
(f)	catalogue	(ii)	complete list of items especially in a special order and description.

Question 3.
Go through all the three stories. Identify some qualities of Steve Jobs and complete the web chart.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.3 Connecting the Dots 4
Answer:

Question 4.
Complete the following table.
‘The Three Stories in the Life of Steve Jobs’

	About	Setbacks	Reactions	Achievements and benefits
First story
Second story
Third story

Answer:

	About	Setbacks	Reactions	Achievements and benefits
First story	College days	no boarding and lodging	managed with friends and at a temple	learnt calligraphy
Second story	starting ’Apple’	fired from the company	started a new company ‘Next’	most creative period; renaissance’ of ‘Apple’
Third story	death	diagnosed with cancer	surgery, cure	learnt not to waste time living someone else’s life

Question 5.
Say HOW?
→ the calligraphy classes helped Steve Jobs after 10 years.
Answer:
10 years later when Steve Jobs was designing the first Macintosh computer, he recalled what he had learned in the calligraphy classes about serif and san serif typefaces as well as other elements that go into great typography. He designed all this into the Macintosh computer.

→ You can connect dots.
Answer:
We can’t connect dots by looking forward; we can only connect them looking backwards. We have to trust that the dots will somehow connect in our destiny.

→ Jobs reacted later on, after the shock of being fired from Apple.
Answer:
After he overcame the shock of being fired from Apple, Jobs felt the lightness of being a beginner again. He felt free to enter one of the most creative periods of his life. He started two companies – Next and Pixar.

→ Jobs was cured of a rare cancer.
Answer:
Jobs was diagnosed with a very rare form of pancreatic cancer. It was curable by surgery. Jobs had the surgery and he was cured.

→ Jobs acquired the famous words ‘Stay Hungry. Stay Foolish’
Answer:
When Jobs was young, he used to read an amazing publication called The Whole Earth Catalogue’. In the final issue was a photograph of an early morning country road beneath which were the words ‘Stay Hungry, Stay Foolish’. Steve acquired these words from the magazine.

Question 6.
Besides those given at the end of the talk by Steve Jobs, pick out other pieces of advice that Jobs gives in his speech.
Answer:
(a) Learn to connect the dots.
(b) Learn whatever you can whenever you can.
(c) We can learn even from negative experiences.
(d) Have trust that somehow the dots will connect in your future.
(e) Have trust in your gut. destiny, life, karma, whatever …
(f) Love what you do.
(g) Keep looking for what you love and don’t ever settle for less.
(h) Even under the most devastating circumstances, you can start all over again.
(i) Don’t lose faith.
(j) Your time is limited, so don’t waste it lining someone else’s life.

Question 7.
(A) Use the following idioms/phrases in sentences of your own.
(a) drop in …………………..
(b) drop out …………………..
(c) stumble on …………………..
(d) look backwards …………………..
(e) look forward …………………..
(f) let (someone) down …………………..
(g) sign off …………………..
(h) begin anew …………………..
Answer:
(a) Though I am not a member of the club, I often play tennis there as a drop in.
(b) I decided to drop out of karate classes as it was taking too much of my time.
(c) While surfing the net, he stumbled into a portal that showed only horror movies.
(d) After his terrible experience in his native place, he went to the city and never looked backwards.
(e) He tried to forget his terrible experience in his native place and looked forward.
(f) He placed great trust in his secretary, and she never let him down.
(g) I would like to sign off by telling you a short story with a beautiful message.
(h) It is never too late to forget past mistakes and begin anew.

(B) Fill in the gaps in choosing the appropriate idioms.
(drown out, hits in the head with a brick, get one’s affairs in order, connect the dots, begin to dawn, stay hungry)
(a) The wealthy landlord made a will before he could die.
(b) Those who aspire for success should always to learn more.
(c) If you you will realise that crime ultimately leads to poverty.
(d) The siren of the ambulance all other traffic noise.
(e) When the father learned about his son’s misdeeds, it
(f) On reading exactly same essays in both answer sheets, it the examiner, that the students had cheated during exams.
Answer:
(a) Getting his affairs in order
(b) Stay hungry
(c) Connect the dots
(d) Drowned out
(e) It hit him on the head with a brick.
(f) Began to dawn on

Question 8.
(A) Name the Tense of the Verbs underlined to include Time (Past/Present/Future) and Aspect (Simple/Continuous/Perfect/Perfect Continuous)
(1) I slept on the floor
(2) We were designing the first Macintosh computer
(3) It had made all the difference
(4) I am fine, now
(5) I have been facing death
(6) I shall be telling you three stories
Answer:
(1) Time – Past; Aspect – Simple.
(2) Time – Past Tense; Aspect – Progressive (continuous).
(3) Time – Past tense Aspect – Perfect
(4) Time – Present; Aspect – Simple.
(5) Time – Present; Aspect – Perfect.
(6) Time – Future; Aspect – Progressive (continuous).

(B) Change the Tense as instructed.
(1) I got fired. (Future Perfect)
(2) Life hits you in the head. (Present Perfect Continuous)
(3) The dots will somehow connect. (Past Perfect)
(4) I started a company. (Present Continuous)
(5) My doctor advised me. (Past Perfect Continuous)
Answer:
(1) Jobs got fired.
(2) Life hits you in the head.
(3) The dots had somehow connected.
(4) I started a company.
(5) My doctor had been advising me.

Question 9.
Read the News item and write an application for a suitable job in the same company. Attach a seperate CV/Resume.
May 19, 2016
Apple Opens Development Office in Hyderabad
(A) The new office in Hyderabad will focus on development of maps, Apple products, like iPhone, iPad, Mac. etc. This will create upto 4000 jobs
Answer:

Answer:
Ratan Shah
11 Salsa Apts.
Hafeczpeth
Hyderabad
Telangana – 500 049.
27th May, 2020

The HR Manager
Apple Development Office
18-23, Rd Number 2
Financial District
Nanakram Guda
Hydcrabad
Telangana — 500 032.

Subject : Application for post of Systems Analyst ‘
Sir,
I read the news item in the Times of India’ dated May 20, which stated that Apple has opened a Development office in Hyderabad, which is likely to create up to 4000 jobs. I am interested in applying for the post of Systems Analyst.

I have a bachelor’s degree In Computer Information Systems (CIS) and 6 months experience in Cornputronic& Ltd. as Systems Analyst. I am well-versed in analyzing, designing and implementing Information Systems. I wish to further my prospects and hence am applying to your company.

I do hope that you will give me the opportunity to prove my mettle.

Yours truly,
Ratan Shah

Attachments: CV, photocopies of Academic and Professional Certificates
Resume:
Name: Ratan Shah
Age: 24 years
Educational Qualification: B.Com (1st class); B.Computer Science (CIS)
Experience: 6 months experience in Computronics Ltd. as Systems Analyst
Marital Status: Single
Special Interests: Chess, Football, Cycling
Contact information: Address as above
Mobile no.: 097

(B) Imagine you are already working as an Engineer in Apple Development Office, Hyderabad. Write an application for 2 weeks leave to the HR Manager as you have to undergo an urgent surgery.
Answer:
Ms. Sara Kanchwala
11 Salsa Apts.
Hafeezpeth
Hyderabad
Telangana 500 049.
3 September, 2020

The HR Manager,
Apple Development Office
18-23, Rd. Number 2
Financial District
Nanakram Guda
Hyderabad
Telangana – 500 032.

Subject : ApplicatIon’ for leave of absence due to Imminent surgery (4th September to 17th September)

Dear Sir,
I had a bad fall a couple of days back and tore a ligament ‘In my knee. The pain is Intense and my doctor has advised me that immediate surgery is necessary.

Please grant me 2 weeks medical leave as the doctor has advised a fortnight’s complete bed rest post-op. Thanking you in advance,

I remain,
Yours truly,
Sara Kanchwala

Question 10.
Prepare a speech on the title “The Will to Win” to be delivered before the class during a competition.
Hints –

Title
Introduction
Objective and Illustrations
Specific examples
Purpose of the title.
Sources/Resourses for implementation.
Usefulness/Benefits
Conclusion.

Answer:
The Will to Win

Friends,
The topic before us today is The Will to Win’. This title brings to my mind the story of the hare and the tortoise. When the hare challenged the tortoise to a race, the tortoise knew very well that its speed was in no way comparable to that of the hare. Yet this little animal agreed to the race. And why, may I ask you? Only because it had the will to win. Come what may, the tortoise had to prove to the hare that it could win if it wanted to. And finally it won!

This, in fact, is the driving force behind all great ventures and achievements. The Will to Win!

I remember the time when I went to Std. V. My father had been transferred from Agra to Bhusaval. A subject that I had trouble mastering was the language Marathi. Needless to say in the first term I flunked very badly. But I was a student who usually scored high marks in all subjects. This failure was devastating.

However, I did not let it faze me. I took great interest in class lessons. Read my Marathi textbook over and over. Made friends who spoke fluently in Marathi and ventured speaking to them. At first they poked fun at me. But within a month I had picked up the basic structure of the language and began writing answers to questions on my own. Believe it or not, at the end of the term I topped the class in Marathi. ; Today I can speak in the language as if it is my mother tongue.

Friends, my message to you today is that you can do anything. All you require is the will. If you have the will, the skill will follow. So set your goals, define your objectives and I wish all of you the very best in ; whatever you decide to do in life.

Be sure of one thing: If you have the will, You Will Win!

Thank you.

Question 11.
Project :
Collect more information about Steve Jobs with the help of Internet. Complete it with images into a file.

Question 12.
Do you remember doing some activities in your childhood that you didn’t like it. Form pairs and make a list of all those activities. Do you think, any one of these activities have helped you in solving your problems? Share your experience with the class.

chopping vegetables:
cleaning the home; sweeping and dusting
hanging out clothes to dry
looking after my little brother
helping dad to repair the bicycle

Answer:
Once while driving home from school, the chain of my bicycle got dislodged and I almost fell off. There was no bicycle repair shop nearby and no passers-by were able to help me. Since I had experience helping dad to repair his bicycle, somehow I managed to get the chain fixed and wobbled back home. My hands were black and dirty with grease and oil, but at least I didn’t have to walk back home, pushing my bicycle along.

Question 13.
Write True or False for these statements: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) Steve Jobs slept in his dorm room. False
(2) Steve took his required courses as a registered student of Reed College. False
(3) During Steve’s College days, one had to pay 5 cents deposit for a Coke bdttle. True
(4) Steve ha’d comfortable college experiences. False

Question 14.
What basic course in Reed College helped while designing the Mac?
Answer:
The basic course of calligraphy in Reed College helped while designing the Mac.

Question 15.
Arrange the following incidents in Steve Jobs’ life in proper sequence based on this passage:
(a) Jobs stayed as a drop-in for 18 months.
(b) Jobs used to sleep on the floor in his friend’s house.
Answer:
(a) Jobs stayed as a drop-in for 18 months.
(b) Jobs used to sleep on the floor in his friend’s house.

Question 16.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) Steve’s first story is about connecting the dots.
(2) Steve got one good meal every Sunday night at the Hare Krishna temple.
Answer:
Connecting the dots.
Hare Krishna temple.

Question 17.
What did Steve Jobs do for two years after he joined Reed College?
Answer:
After joining Reed College, for two years Steve would stop taking the required classes that didn’t interest him. Instead he began dropping in on the ones that looked interesting.

Question 18.
List the hardships that Steve faced.
Answer:

Steve didn’t have a dorm room and so had to sleep on the floor in friends’ rooms.
Steve returned Coke bottles for the 5 cent deposits to buy food with.
Steve would walk seven miles across town every Sunday night to get one good meal a week at the Hare Krishna temple.

Question 19.
Write from the passage a phrase that means ‘Apart from this, I have nothing more to tell.’
Answer:
That’s it.

Question 20.
Choose the correct contextual meaning of the phrase: connecting the dots.
(a) making a pattern with the help of dots
(b) associating one previous idea with other ideas that follow
(c) joining dots in a puzzle to get the correct picture
(d) understanding a procedure
Answer:
(b) associating one previous idea with other ideas that follow

Question 21.
Match the words in column A with their meanings in column B:

A		B
(i)	intuition	(a)	a set of characters like letters, symbols, etc. in one design
(ii)	calligraphy	(b)	the style and appearance of printed matter
(iii)	typography	(c)	power of understanding the feelings of people
(iv)	typeface	(d)	beautiful handwriting done with a special pen or brush

Answer:

(i)	intuition	(c)	power of understanding the feelings of people
(ii)	calligraphy	(d)	beautiful handwriting done with a special pen or brush
(iii)	ypography	(b)	the style and appearance of printed matter
(iv)	typeface	(a)	a set of characters like letters, symbols, etc. in one design

Question 22.
It was one of the best decisions I ever made. (Rewrite using ‘better than’.)
Answer:
It was better than most other decisions I ever made.

Question 23.
Personal Response: What impression of Steve Jobs do you get from this passage?
Answer:
In this passage, it appears that Steve Jobs is a student who goes by his impulses. He has a thirst for knowledge, but prefers subjects that he finds interesting and avoids those that he finds uninteresting, even though he has enrolled for them. He is ready to face all kinds of hardships in order to study what he wants to. Steve Jobs had a natural curiosity and intuition. He also had an instinct about what makes something really great and the habit of storing it away in his mind for future use.

Question 24.
Fill in the blanks: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) Steve designed the Macintosh computer.
(2) Windows copied the Macintosh computer.
(3) It was impossible to connect the dots looking forward when Steve was in college.
(4) You can only connect the dots looking backward.
Answer:
(1) Macintosh
(2) Windows
(3) forward
(4) backward

Question 25.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) The Mac ‘computer which he designed would not have had multiple typefaces or proportionally spaced fonts.
(2) Since Windows just copied Mac, it was likely no personal computer would have had them.
Answer:
(1) not have had multiple typefaces or proportionally spaced fonts.
(2) no personal computer would have had them.

Question 26.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Words connected with typography from the passage are: typeface and font.
Answer:
typeface and font.

Question 27.
Match the words /phrases in column A with their meanings in column B:

(A)		(B)
(i)	gut	(a)	Macintosh computer.
(ii)	destiny	(b)	having several parts.
(iii)	Mac	(c)	the power believed to control events.
(iv)	multiple	(d)	courage and determination.

Answer:

A		B
(i)	gut	(d)	courage and determination
(ii)	destiny	(c)	the power believed to control events
(iii)	Mac	(a)	Macintosh computer
(iv)	multiple	(b)	having several parts

Question 28.
It was impossible to connect the dots looking forward. (Pick out the verbs and say if they are finite or non-finite.)
Answer:
was – finite; to connect, looking – non-finites

Question 29.
It was very clear. (Rewrite as an exclamatory sentence.)
Answer:
How clear it was!

Question 30.
Mac would never have had multiple typefaces. (Rewrite as an interrogative sentence.)
Answer:
Would Mac ever have had multiple typefaces?

Question 31.
Personal Response: Write about something which you learned in the past and which has helped you in the present.
Answer:
When I was in Std. V, mother enrol led me for dancing classes, I had to stop when I reached Std. IX. However, now whenever I need a break or I am feeling stressed, I put on some music and dance. That gives me relief from stress.

Question 32.
Name the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) The world’s most successful animation studio. Pixar
(2) The company that Steve Jobs took five years to establish. Next
(3) The company that bought Next. Apple
(4) Steve Jobs’ wife. Laurene

Question 33.
What setback did Jobs suffer when he was thirty?
Answer:
When Jobs was thirty, he was fired from the company which he himself had started. This was devastating and a major setback in his life.

Question 34.
Match the words/phrases in column A with their meanings in column B:

A		B
(i)	renaissance	(a)	causing great destruction
(ii)	to start over	(b)	lost one’s job
(iii)	fired	(c)	revival
(iv)	devastating	(d)	to begin again

Answer:

A		B
(i)	renaissance	(c)	revival
(ii)	to start over	(d)	to begin again
(iii)	fired	(b)	lost one’s job
(iv)	devastating	(a)	causing great destruction

Question 35.
Fill in the blanks choosing the appropriate idioms: (at the heart of, hit him on the head with brick, begin to dawn, lose faith)
(1) Even if you don’t succeed at first, don’t lose faith in yourself.
(2) It is corruption in high places that lies at the heart of the non-development of this locality.
Answer:
(1) Lose faith
(2) At the heart of

Question 36.
Personal Response: What does this second story of Jobs convey to you?
Answer:
The second story of Jobs – about love and loss – conveys to us that even if our efforts result in complete disaster, we should continue believing in ourselves. It tells us that we should love our work. If we haven’t yet found it, we should keep on searching. We should never accept less than what we aim for in life.

Question 37.
Which quality of Steve Jobs impresses you the most? How would you apply it in your life?
Answer:
I admire Steve’s quality of not giving up even after facing a terribly shocking loss. It inspires me never to be disheartened by failure, but to always keep trying. Even if one loses everything, one has to have the courage to start all over again.

Question 38.
Arrange the following incidents in Steve Jobs’ life in proper sequence based on this passage:
(a) Jobs was advised to get his affairs in order.
(b) Jobs was cured of a rare form of cancer.
Answer:
(a) Jobs was advised to get his affairs in order.
(b) Jobs was cured of a rare form of cancer.

Question 39.
Fill in the blanks: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) Steve’s third story is about death.
(2) The doctor describes the last stage of cancer as the ‘prepare to die’ stage.
(3) Steve ‘says that you should follow your heart and intuition.
(4) We should not waste time.
Answer:
(1) death
(2) ‘prepare to die’
(3) heart and intuition.
(4) time.

Question 40.
What does Jobs warn you about life and dogma?
Answer:
Jobs warns us not be trapped by dogma. Dogma is living with the results of other people’s thinking. The overpowering influence of other’s opinions should not drown out our own inner voice.

Question 41.
How does Jobs close his address to the graduate students?
Answer:
Steve Jobs closes his address to the graduate students by telling them about an amazing publication called The Whole Earth Catalogue’. In the final issue on the back cover there was a photograph of an early morning country road. Beneath it were the words ‘Stay Hungry, Stay Foolish’. Jobs wishes the students the same words as his farewell message to them.

Question 42.
Write from the passage four medical words / phrases / terms.
Answer:
pancreatic cancer, diagnosis, biopsy, surgery

Question 43.
Match the words in column ‘A’ with their meanings in column ‘B’:

A		B
(a)	diagnosis	(1)	a set of beliefs held by an organisation which others are expected to accept without argument.
(b)	catalogue	(2)	act of identifying the nature of a problem or illness.
(c)	dogma	(3)	in a new or different way.
(d)	anew	(4)	complete list of items especially in a special order and description.

Answer:

A		B
(a)	diagnosis	(2)	act of identifying the nature of a problem or illness.
(b)	catalogue	(4)	complete list, of items especially in a special order and description.
(c)	dogma	(1)	a set of beliefs held by an organisation which others are expected to accept without argument
(d)	anew	(3)	in a new or different way.

Question 44.
Choose correct question tags for the sentences and rewrite: wasn’t it? isn’t it? aren’t I? will you?
(a) Don’t be trapped by dogma.
(b) It was their farewell message.
(c) Your time is limited.
(d) I’m fine now.
Answer:
(a) Don’t be trapped by dogma, will you?
(b) It was their farewell message, wasn’t it?
(c) Your time is limited, isn’t it?
(d) I’m fine now, aren’t I?

Question 45.
Don’t waste it. (Rewrite without ‘don’t’.)
Answer:
Avoid wasting it.

Question 46.
Personal Response: “Your time is limited. So don’t waste it living someone else’s life.” What are your views about these statements?
Answer:
These are the conclusions that Steve Jobs came to when he discovered that he was suffering from pancreatic cancer. Coming face to face with death, he realized how very little time we have on earth to realize our true potential. Most of our lives are spent following the dictates of others. By this statement, Steve Jobs means that we should spend every moment of our lives trying to discover our own potential and determine our own purpose and path in life.

Question 47.
(1) Pick out the compound words from the given words: dropping, calligraphy, backwards, graduate, photograph
(2) Pick out the gerund and use it in your own sentence: I could begin dropping in on the ones that looked interesting.
(3) Punctuate the sentence: heres one ekample reed college offered perhaps the best calligraphy instruction in the country
(4) Spot the error and rewrite the correct sentence: At the calligraphy class, I learn about what make great typography great.
(5) Identify the type of sentence: Don’t settle.
(6) Find out two hidden words of at least 4 letters each from the word ‘devastating’.
(7) Form present participles in which the last letter is doubled: drop, quit
(8) Arrange these words in alphabetical order: friend, follow, found, freed.
Answer:
(1) backwards = back + wards; photograph = photo + graph
(2) Gerund: dropping Sentence: Stop dropping in here without any warning.
(3) Here’s one example: Reed College offered perhaps the best calligraphy instruction in the country.
(4) At the calligraphy class, I learned about what makes great typography great.
(5) Imperative Sentence in the Negative.
(6) devastating-vast, taste (gate, stain.)
(7) dropping, quitting
(8) follow, found, freed, friend

Question 48.
(1) Write the homophone for the word ‘story’ and frame a sentence.
(2) Rewrite the sentence using the past perfect continuous tense: We were designing the first Macintosh computer.
(3) Rewrite beginning with underlined part: The heaviness of being successful was replaced by the lightness of being a beginner again.
(4) Write a word register for the word: ‘doctor’ (4 words).
Answer:
(1) Homophones: story – storey Sentence: I live in a seven-storys building.
(2) We had been designing the first Macintosh computer.
(3) The lightness of being a beginner again replaced the heaviness of being successful.
(4) physician, surgeon, medico, healer, practitioner. (MD, medic, scientist, specialist)

Question 49.
(1) Use the word,‘trust’ in sentences as a noun as well as a verb.
(2) Underline the modal auxiliary and state its function: I had to take a calligraphy class.
Answer:
(1) (a) I have great trust in my teacher, (noun)
(b) Trust in God. (verb)
(2) I had to take a calligraphy class, (necessity/ obligation/compulsion)

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Std 10 English Poem A Thing of Beauty is a Joy For Ever 4.1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

December 21, 2024December 20, 2024 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.1 A Thing of Beauty is a Joy For Ever Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10 English Chapter 4.1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

A Thing of Beauty is a Joy For Ever Poem 10th Std Question Answer

A Thing Of Beauty Is A Joy Forever Question 1.
(A) Fill in the Acrostic with names of things related to Nature.
B …………………..
E …………………..
A …………………..
U …………………..
T …………………..
Y …………………..
Answer:
Birds
Earth
Animals
Uranus
Trees
Yam

(B) Make a list of 10 words related to the word ‘joy’, for example, happiness.
1. …………………..
2. …………………..
3. …………………..
4. …………………..
5. …………………..
6. …………………..
7. …………………..
8. …………………..
9. …………………..
10. ………………….
Answer:
happiness,
pleasure,
ecstasy,
delight,
rapture,
jubilation,
elation,
exultation,
glee,
euphoria.

A Thing Of Beauty Important Questions Question 2.
Recollect a picnic or a trip to a spot of natural beauty (a hill station/ a beach/forest area etc.) when you were younger.
Write four beautiful unforgettable scenes that left a deep impact on you.
(1) …………………………………………………………
(2) …………………………………………………………
(3) …………………………………………………………
(4) …………………………………………………………
Answer:
(1) The setting sun disappearing behind the hills.
(2) The river shining deep down in the valley.
(3) The early morning mist.
(4) The rain water trickling down from the leaves.

A Thing Of Beauty Is A Joy Forever Poem Question 3.
‘Meter’ in poetry is a pattern of stressed and unstressed syllables in lines of a poem. It gives rhythm to the poem.

Read the poem below aloud and with any colored pen/ pencil put stress-marks ( ‘ ) on those syllables that are stressed in the words of the poetic lines.

THE steadfast coursing of the stars,
The waves that ripple to the shore,
The vigorous trees which year by year
Spread upwards more and more ;
The jewel forming in the mine,
The snow that falls so soft and light,
The rising and the setting sun,
The growing glooms of night,
All natural things both live and move
In natural peace that is their own ;
Only in our disordered life
Almost is she unknown.

A Thing Of Beauty Extract Questions Question 4.
Consonance and Assonance
Consonance : Repetition of consonant sounds within a word, phrase or a short sentence.
For example : pitter-patter/ chuckle-fickle/ sick-duck/ Betty bought some bitter butter
Answer:
Consonance: (Repetition of consonant sounds within a word, phrase or a short sentences)
(1) The steadfast coursing of the stars
(2) The waves that ripple to the shore
(3) The snow that falls so soft and light
(4) The rising and the setting sun
(5) All natural things both live and move.

Assonance : Repetition of vowel sounds within a word/ phrase/ sentence.
For example : Jack had a bag.
Men sell metal- kettle.
Let the engineer steer without fear.
Answer:
Assonance: (Repetition of vowel sounds within a word/phrase/sentence.)
(1) The vigorous trees which year by year
(2) Spread upwards more and more
(3) Theewel forming in the mine
(4) Only in our disordered life.

Thing of Beauty is a Joy For Ever Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

A Thing Of Beauty Question Answer Question 1.
Read the poem and fill in the table.

Sr. No.	Expressions of Beauty (joy)	Expressions of sorrow
1
2
3
4
5
6

Answer:

Expressions of Beauty (Joy)	Expressions of Sorrow
1. A bower quiet for us	1. Spite of despondence
2. Are we wreathing a flowery band	2. Of the inhuman dearth of noble natures
3. Sproutingashadyboon	3. Of the gloomy days
4. Daffodils with the green world they live in	4. Of all the unhealthy and o’er-darkened ways
5. Clear rills that for themselves a cooling covert make	5. Our dark spirits
6. Mid forest brake, rich with a sprinkling ‘ of fair musk-rose blooms	–

A Thing Of Beauty Is Joy Forever Question 2.
Answer in your own words.
(a) What is the impact of a beautiful thing on us?
(b) What does a thing of beauty keep in store, for us?
(c) Who are the mighty dead? Why are they attributed with ‘grandeur’?
(d) How does the memory of a beautiful visual scene become a joy forever?
Answer:
(a) A beautiful thing gives us happiness, relaxation and peace. It inspires us and makes us love life despite troubles and sufferings.
(b) A thing of beauty provides shelter and comfort in many ways. It is like a shady place under a tree where we can rest. It helps all living creatures to sleep peacefully, have good dreams and also good health.
(c) The memory of a beautiful visual scene leaves a lasting impression on us. It is a permanent source of joy and inspiration to five our lives despite the trials and tribulations. The pleasure and happiness given by it never fades away but keeps on increasing.
(d) The mighty dead are the brave men who have sacrificed their lives for a purpose. They Eire an inspiration to all of us because of their innumerable sacrifices. They are attributed with grandeur because of their noble deeds.

A Thing Of Beauty Is A Joy Forever Question And Answer Question 3.
Pick out and rewrite 5 lines that contain Imagery.
For example :
(a) we are wreathing a flowery band…
(b) …………………………………………
(c) …………………………………………
(d) …………………………………………
(e) …………………………………………
Answer:
(a) we are wreathing a flowery band
(b) trees old and young, sprouting a shady boon
(c) and such are daffodils with the green world they live in
(d) and clear rills that for themselves a cooling covert make
(e) the mid forest brake, rich with a sprinkling of fair musk-rose blooms

Thing Of Beauty Question Answers Question 4.
Choose the correct Figure of speech that occurs in the following lines. Justify your choice.
(a) ………………….. but still we keep a bower quiet for us
(i) Simile
(ii) Irony
(iii) Metaphor
Answer:
(iii) Metaphor

(b) Some shape of beauty moves away the pall …………………..
(i) Personification
(ii) Alliteration
(iii) Hyperbole
Answer:
(ii) Alliteration

(d) Trees old and young, sprouting a shady boon.
(i) Exclamation
(ii) Personification
(iii) Antithesis
Answer:
(iii) Antithesis

The Thing Of Beauty Is A Joy Forever Question 5.
From the poem pick out words that we do not use often in modern times. They should match the meanings given below.
(a) gift …………………..
(b) the next day …………………..
(c) a protective spot ………………….. (for animals)
(d) a cool shady spot ………………….. under tall trees.
(e) ferns …………………..
(f) edge …………………..
(g) depression …………………..
(h) cover for the dead …………………..
(i) streams …………………..
(j) poetry …………………..
Answer:
(a) gift – boon
(b) the next day – morrow
(c) a protective spot for animals – covert
(d) a cool shady spot bower under tall trees
(e) ferns – brake
(f) edge – brink
(g) depression – despondence
(h) cover for the dead – pall
(i) streams-rills
(j) poetry – poesy

A Thing Of Beauty Is A Joy For Ever Question 6.
Copy the first 8 lines and mark the stressed syllables using a coloured pen.

A Thing Of Beauty Is A Joy Question 7.
Read the poem and write-
(a) The rhyme scheme of the following lines.
Lines 1 to 8 …………………..
Last stanza …………………..
Answer:
Rhyme scheme of lines 1 – 8: aabb, ccdd
Rhyme scheme of the last stanza: aabbc.

(b) (i) The number of stressed syllables (Rhythm) in the line.
A thing of beauty is a joy forever. ………………….
Answer:
A thing of beauty is a joy forever. The title of the poem

(ii) Does the poem retain a steady rhythm throughout?
Answer:
Yes.

(c) Give four examples of each. Pick the lines from the poem.
(i) Consonance:
(1) ………………….
(2) ………………….
(3) ………………….
(4) ………………….
Answer:
(1) A flowery band to bind us to the earth
(2) For simple sheep; and such are the daffodils
(3) With the green world they live in; and clear rills.
(4) All lovely tales that we have heard or read

(ii) Assonance :
(1) ………………….
(2) ………………….
(3) ………………….
(4) ………………….
Answer:
(1) A thing of beauty is joy forever
(2) Pass into nothingness, but still will keep
(3) And such too is the grandeur of the dooms
(4) That whether there be shine or gloom o’ercast

I Think Of Beauty Is A Joy Forever Question 8.
Go through the poem again and write in your notebook an appreciation of the poem in the paragraph format. (Refer to page no. 5 )
Answer:
Point Format
(for understandig)
The title of the poem : ‘A Thing of Beauty Is a Joy Forever’
The poet : John Keats
Rhyme schenie: aabb; rhyming couplets
Figures of speech : EpIgram, Metaphor, Antithesis, etc.
Theme/Central idea: Beautiful things give unending pleasure and can change our lives.

Paragraph Format
The poem ‘A Thing of Beauty is aoy Forever’ byohn Keats is taken from a longer poem ‘Endymion’ based on Greek Mythology.

The rhyme scheme of the poem is aabb; that is, the poem is written in rhyming couplets. There Eire many figures of speech, like Metaphor, Antithesis, etc. but the one that stands out is Epigram. The line A thing of beauty is aoy forever’, is a pithy saying expressing the idea of beauty in a clever way.

The important thing that the poet tells us is that beautiful things last forever and give us immense i happiness. They give unending pleasure and can change our lives.

Question 9.
Project :
Collect from various sources proverbs or maxims related to the ‘beauty of nature.’ Make a chart/ poster with the same. Decorate it with images, drawings, pictures, and put it up by turns in your class.

Question 10.
List the things of beauty mentioned in the extract.
Answer:
The things of beauty include a quiet bower, the heavenly bodies like the sun and the moon, the old and young trees that provide cool shelter to sheep, daffodils with greenery around them, clear streams that make cool thickets for themselves and ferns with musk-roses scattered in between.

Question 11.
List the things that cause suffering and pain.
Answer:
The things that cause suffering and pain are despondence and despair, shortage of noble people, hot season, gloomy days and the unhealthy and darkened ways of life (trials and difficulties of life).

Question 12.
Choose the correct figures of speech that occur in the following lines.ustify your choice.
(1) ….but still we keep a bower quiet for us….
(a) Simile (b) Irony (c) Metaphor
Answer:
Metaphor – bower stands for rest and peace

Question 13.
Some shape of beauty moves away the pall
(a) Personification (b) Alliteration (c) Hyperbole
Answer:
Alliteration – Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘s’.
Personification – beauty is given the human quality of moving away the pall. *

Question 14.
A thing of beauty is aoy forever….
(a) Epigram (b) Antithesis (c) Climax
Answer:
Epigram – the sentence is a short, pithy statement.

Question 15.
Trees old and young, sprouting a shady boon.
(a) Exclamation (b) Personification (c) Antithesis
Answer:
Antithesis – the use of opposite words, old and young, in the same line.

Question 16.
The number of stressed syllables in the line: A thing of beauty is joy forever;
Answer:
5

Question 17.
List the things of beauty mentioned in the extract.
Answer:
The things of beauty mentioned in the extract are: lovely tales of valour, endless fountains, immortal drink, trees that whisper, passionate poetry and cheering light.

Question 18.
Fill in the web with what passion poesy can do to you:
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.1 A Thing of Beauty is a Joy For Ever 1

Question 19.
List the things which express sorrow from the extract:
Answer:
(i) dooms
(ii) glooms o’ercast/clouds of gloom
(iii) die (iv) dead.

Question 20.
Pick out and write the lines that contain imagery.
Answer:
(i) grandeur of the dooms ;
(ii) An endless fountain of immortal drink ;
(iii) Pouring onto us from the heaven’s brink
(iv) trees that whisper around a temple

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Std 10 English Poem The Luncheon 4.2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

December 21, 2024December 20, 2024 by Prasanna

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.2 The Luncheon Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 10 English Chapter 4.2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

The Luncheon Poem 10th Std Question Answer

The Luncheon Questions And Answers Class 10 Question 1.
Talk with your partner and discuss the following questions:
(a) Have you ever been invited to lunch, at any hotel, by your friend?
(b) What was the occasion?
(c) Did you enjoy the lunch? Why?
Answer:
(a) Have you ever been invited for a lunch to any hotel by your friend? (You can think of the name of the hotel, what you ate there, what you saw there, etc.)
(b) What was the occasion? (Was it for a birthday, a celebration of some sort, a get-together, etc.)
(c) Did you enjoy the lunch? Why? (Was the food good/bad, was the service good/ bad, was the place clean/unclean/noisy, etc.)

The Luncheon Questions And Answers Question 2.
Discuss in pairs:
People with foibles are often not conscious of them. Do you agree or disagree? Why?
Answer:
I agree with this. My grandmother has a foible that we all know about, but she is not conscious of it. When the house is untidy, she gets irritated. She will tuck in the edge of her sari and walk about the house, muttering to herself. She is not even aware of this peculiar behavior.

The Luncheon English Workshop Question 3.
As you know, every country has its own currency. Find out the currency of at least 6 countries along with their current exchange rate in India, with the help of the internet. One is done for you.
For example, Switzerland: franc; 1 franc = 66.73 INR

Country	Currency	Exchange Rate in Indian Currency

Answer:

Country	Currency	Exchange Rate in Indian Currency
1. Switzerland	franc	1 franc = 66.73 INR
2. United States of America	Dollar	1 dollar = 72.04 rupees
3. Afghanistan	Afghani	1 Afghani= 0.9532 rupees
4. Japan	Yen	1 Yen =0.6422 rupees
5. Indonesia	Rupiah	1 Rupiah= 0.005 rupees
6. Malaysia	Malaysian ringgit	1 Malaysian ringgit= 17.412 rupees

The Luncheon Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the correct option from the bracket and fill in the blanks given below.
(addressed, luncheon, generously, unwise, insist)
(a) The chief guest …………………… the students.
(b) The crow was …………………… to sing.
(c) I invited my relatives to ……………………
(d) Parents always …………………… on children to be allrounders.
(e) The king decided to donate his wealth among his subjects ……………………
Answer:
(a) addressed
(b) unwise
(c) luncheon
(d) insist
(e) generously

Question 2.
Go through the story again and find out various instances which create humour in ‘The Luncheon’. Complete the table by picking up various humorous instances and the particular line from the story. One is done for you.

Humorous Instance	Line from the story
The woman is a voracious eater	‘‘Follow my example, and never eat more than one thing for luncheon.’’

Answer:

Humorous instance	Line from the passage
1. The author ordered a single mutton chop.	(i) “I see you’re in the habit of eating a heavy luncheon.” (ii) “Why don’t you follow my example and eat just one thing?”
2. The woman wanted to eat asparagus.	(i) “I couldn’t possibly eat anything more unless they had some of those giant asparagus. I should be sorry to leave Paris without eating some of them.” (ii) “I’m not in the least hungry, but if you insist, I don’t mind having some asparagus.”
3. The writer was afraid that he would not have enough money to pay the bill.	I would put my hand in my pocket and with a dramatic cry. start-up and say that it had been picked.

Question 3.
Who said these words/sentences? Under what circumstances?

Words/Sentences	Who said?	Under what circumstances?
1. I never eat anything for luncheon. 2. It’s many years since we first met. 3. Are you still hungry? 4. I don’t believe in overloading my stomach. 5. I’ll eat nothing for dinner tonight.

Answer:

Words/Sentences	Who said?	Under what circumstances?
1. I never eat anything for luncheon.	Guest	When the writer was startled on seeing the prices on the menu.
2. It’s many years since we first met.	The Guest	When she met the writer at a play and called him over during the interval to talk to him.
3. Are you still hungry?	Author	When the guest said that one should get up from a meal feeling that one could eat a little more, and she had already eaten quite a lot.
4. I don’t believe in overloading my stomach.	Guest	When the writer ordered a mutton chop for himself.
5. I’ll eat nothing for dinner tonight.	Author	When the luncheon was over and they were leaving the hotel, he knew that he had the whole month before him and he did not have any money for food. That was when he said the words.

Question 4.
Answer in your own words.
(a) Although the author was not a vindictive man, he was very happy to see her weigh twenty one stone and had finally had his revenge. What makes him say this? Explain.
Answer:
Twenty years earlier, the writer was earning barely enough money to make both ends meet. The lady wanted him to give her a luncheon at Foyot’s, an expensive restaurant. The writer thought that he could stand her a modest luncheon. The lady reassured him by saying that ‘she never ate anything for luncheon’. However, she ended by eating about six different items, some of which were very expensive yet she insisted till the end that she never ate more than one thing for luncheon and advised him against ‘filling his stomach with a lot of meat’ when all he had eaten was one small mutton chop – the cheapest item on the menu. The writer was finally left with a whole month before him and no money in his pocket. He could not forget this incident, and when he met her twenty years later, she had become very fat and weighed twenty-one stone. This made the writer feel that though he was not a vindictive man, he had got his revenge.

(b) There are quite a few places where the author uses the expressions ‘My heart sank, panic seized’ etc. What was the reason for this ? Explain.
Answer:
The writer was living in a tiny apartment in Paris and earning barely enough money to make both ends meet. The lady wanted him to give her a little luncheon at Foyot’s, an expensive restaurant. When they met, she ordered some of the most expensive dishes available. The writer was terribly worried about whether he had enough money to pay the bill. Hence, he has used the expressions ‘my heart sank’, ‘panic seized me’, etc.

(c) What are the instances which create humour in “The Luncheon”?
Answer:
The instances in the story that create humour are:
(i) when the writer sees the woman at Foyot’s.
(ii) when she orders dish after dish, after first saying that she eats nothing for luncheon, and then stretching the irony she insists that she ate only one thing for luncheon,
(iii) when she tells the writer, who is eating only a mutton chop – the cheapest item on the menu – that he should not overload his stomach,
(iv) when she says that the writer has insisted on her eating asparagus,
(v) when the writer imagines what he would do while paying the bill,
(vi) when the writer says that he would not eat anything for dinner that night,
(vii) when the writer tells us the woman’s weight, when he sees her aghin after twenty years.

(d) Describe the use of irony and humour in “The Luncheon”.
Answer:
In this story, the writer uses humour and irony to depict the character of the woman. The narrator takes the woman to an expensive restaurant called Foyot’s. He is startled when he sees the high prices on the menu, but relieved when his guest tells him, “I never eat anything for luncheon,” and “I never eat more than one thing.” After stating this, ironically, the woman eats some of the most expensive things available, like salmon and caviar, while the poor author only eats a mutton chop. Looking at it, she takes him to task for eating a ‘heavy’ luncheon, and tells him that he should follow her example and never eat more than one thing for luncheon. She said that she would eat the asparagus because the writer ‘insists’, when it was she who had asked for them. In the end, when she repeats once again that he should follow her example and never eat more than one thing for luncheon, the writer retorts that he would do better than that— he would not eat anything for dinner that night!

Question 5.
Pick out the words and phrases in the story that indicate that the author was not financially well off. One is done for you.

Words	not afford	–
Phrases	beyond my means	–

Answer:

Words	not afford	modest, cheapest, borrow, mean.
Phrases	beyond my means	earning barely enough money, manage well enough, prices were a great deal higher, horribly expensive, ten francs short, what they cost, inadequate tip, not a penny in my pocket, eat nothing for dinner.

Question 6.
After reading the story, put the following events into correct order:
(a) She gave me her last kind advice how to improve my eating habits.
(b) I met her in the theatre after many years and I could hardly recognize her.
(c) Twenty years ago, I lived in Paris and earned just enough money to get by.
(d) I was really scared what could happen when I would pay the bill.
(e) “I never eat anything for luncheon.”
(f) I ordered a mutton chop for myself.
(g) She had read a book of mine.
(h) She ordered asparagus.
(i) She suggested him to invite her to a famous and expensive restaurant.
(j) I didn’t have dinner for the rest of the month.
Answer:
(c) Twenty years ago, I lived in Paris and earned just enough money to get by.
(b) I met her in the theatre after many years and I could hardly recognize her.
(g) She had read a book of mine.
(i) I invited her to a famous and expensive restaurant.
(e) “I never eat anything for luncheon.”
(f) I ordered a mutton chop for myself.
(h) She ordered asparagus.
(d) I was really scared what could happen when I would pay the bill.
(a) She gave me her last kind advice on how to improve my eating habits.
(j) I didn’t have dinner for the rest of the month.

Question 7.
The irony is the expression of meaning through the use of language signifying the opposite. Describe the use of irony in ‘The Luncheon’. Pick the sentences from the story that are examples of irony. Fill in the table ‘A’ the general direct meaning while in table ‘B’ its hidden meaning or the opposite meaning intended by the speaker. One is done for you.

Sentence	Direct meaning	Hidden meaning
If I cut out coffee for the next two days,	to stop drinking coffee	to stop spending money in order to save money for some purpose.

Answer:

Sentence	Direct Meaning	Irony (Hidden meaning)
(1) I never eat more than one thing.	I am careful and do not eat much; I eat only one thing.	She goes on to eat six expensive items during the luncheon.
(2) I don’t believe in overloading my stomach.	I do not eat much, but in limited quantities.	She has a hearty and expensive meal.
(3) If you insist, I don’t mind ‘ having some asparagus.	I am eating asparagus because you are forcing me to.	The writer had certainly not insisted; she had asked for it.
(4) I’m not in the least hungry.	I am not at all hungry and cannot eat anything.	She thrusts the asparagus down her throat in large mouthfuls.
(5) One thing I thoroughly believe in—one should get up from a meal feeling one could eat a little more.	One should always leave space in the stomach for more food.	She has had a hearty meal and was probably very full.
(6) I have a cup of coffee in the morning and then dinner, but I never eat more than one thing for luncheon. I’ve just had a snack.	I am a very light eater; I hardly eat anything during the day.	She has had six different items for luncheon.
(7) You’ve filled your stomach with a lot of meat.	You have eaten a lot.	The writer had just one little miserable mutton chop.
(8) I’ll eat nothing for dinner tonight.	I won’t have anything for dinner tonight.	The writer had no money left.

Question 8.
Fill in the blank a word or a phrase given in the brackets in their appropriate forms. (startle, catch sight of, overload, water, pass)
1. “I never …………………… my stomach”, she said.
2. I was …………………… when the menu was brought.
3. The author …………………… the guest at the play.
4. I had seen asparagus in the shops, my mouth often …………………… at the sight of them.
5. The author’s guest was …………………… through Paris.
Answer:
1. overload
2. startled
3. caught sight of
4. watering
5. passing

Question 9.
Use appropriate articles.
1. I have just had …………………… snack.
2. I have …………………… cup of coffee in the morning.
3. I want just …………………… ice cream and coffee.
4. Author and his guest gave …………………… order and then waited for asparagus to be cooked.
Answer:
a
a
an
The

Question 10.
Classify the following words in the given table appropriately. (modest, luncheon, generously, rank, restaurant, appearance, large, expensive, watch, coffee, brought, afford, practical, apartment, moment, brightly, started, thoroughly)

Noun	Verb	Adjective	Adverb

Answer:

Noun	Verb	Adjective	Adverb
luncheon, restaurant, appearance, watch, coffee, apartment, moment	brought, afford, started, sank	modest, large, expensive, practical,	generously, brightly, thoroughly

Question 11.
Study the different uses of ‘could’. Identify what it indicates.
(a) Lack of rain could cause draught. (possibility/condition)
(b) Abhi could perform well in his school days. (suggestion/past ability)
(c) Instead of playing computer games you could play real games with friends. (past ability/suggestion)
(d) Could I use your computer for surfing net? (possibility/request)
(e) We could go on an excursion, if we didn’t have exam. (suggestion/condition)
Answer:
(1) could – possibility
(2) could – past ability
(3) could – suggestion
(4) could – request
(5) could – condition

Question 12.
Fill in the gaps with appropriate Prepositions to make the passage meaningful.
I waited …………………… the airport …………………… Atlanta. My old school-mate was going to arrive …………………… New Airlines …………………… Mumbai, …………………… 21st March …………………… the year 2018. We had not met …………………… 40 years …………………… 1978. She was going to stay …………………… a week …………………… me …………………… Atlanta …………………… 21st …………………… 27th March, 2018.

My joy knew no bounds, when I saw her …………………… 40 years. …………………… home, I introduced her …………………… my family. Then I took her …………………… a big mall …………………… shopping. It was just …………………… my house. We went …………………… the street and climbed …………………… using the elevator, …………………… the staircase.

Answer:
I waited at the airport in Atlanta. My old school-mate was going to arrive by New Airlines from Mumbai, on the 21st of March in the year 2018. We had not met for 40 years, since 1978. She was going to stay for a week with me in Atlanta, from the 21st to 27lh of March, 2018.

My joy knew no bounds when I saw her after 40 years. At home, I introduced her to my family. Then I took her to a big mall for shopping. It was just near my house. We went across the street and climbed up using the elevator near the staircase.

Question 13.
On the occasion of Diwali, write a letter to your friend to invite him/her to celebrate the festival in an innovative way. Use the following hints. time and place special dish is prepared – other friends have also invited post-lunch fun programs, innovative activity
Answer:
Manju Mhatre
8-B, Tulsi Angan
Garodia Nagar
Ghatkopar
Mumbai – 400 077
21st October, 2020

Dear Diya,
Hi there! How are you? You seem to have forgotten me completely afteroining college! Well, I haven’t, and I am writing this letter for a special reason.

This is an invitation for lunch at my place on 4 November on the occasion of Diwali. This will be a sort of house-warming too-you can see from the address above that I have shifted to a new place.

I have also called our other badminton friends—Divya, Rajni, Shubha and Kirti. My Mom has promised to I prepare traditional Diwali dishes, which I am sure ! you will enjoy. And after that—well, that’s going to be i a surprise! But I am sure all of us will enjoy this too.

So do come. Come at about 12.30. Be prepared to be here till 5. Bye.

Your friend,
Manju

Question 14.
Further reading:
(a) “The Phantom Luncheon” by Saki.
(b) “The Ant and the Grasshopper” by William Somerset Maugham.

Form 4 groups of the class. Every group will visit the school’s library or use the internet to read both the creations of Saki and W. S. Maugham. After reading them, every group will summarise both the creations and later read out in the class.

Question 15.
Choose the correct options from the bracket and fill in the blanks: (younger, eighty, twenty, interval)
(1) 1 went over during the interval and sat down beside her.
(2) None of us are getting any younger.
(3) It was twenty years ago.
(4) I had eighty francs to last me the rest of the month.
Answer:
(1) interval
(2) younger
(3) twenty
(4) eighty

Question 16.
Complete the following:
(1) The profession of the narrator: a writer.
(2) The lady was free on the following Thursday.
(3) At the time when the writer met the lady, he was living in a tiny apartment in Paris.
(4) The lady wanted to meet the narrator to have a chat with him.
Answer:
(1) a writer
(2) on the following Thursday
(3) tiny apartment in Paris
(4) have a chat with him

Question 17.
Where and when did they decide to have luncheon?
Answer:
They decided to have a little luncheon at Foyot’s restaurant on the following Thursday.

Question 18.
Choose the correct options from the brackets and fill in the blanks: (pass, caught sight of, overload, modest, addressed, luncheon, interval)
(1) The film was so boring that we went home during the interval.
(2) Though it was a modest apartment, it was extremely clean.
Answer:
(1) interval
(2) modest

Question 19.
Find out the ‘Synonyms’ from the passage for the words:
(1) A set of rooms:
(2) Acknowledged:
(3) Handle:
(4) Directed a remark:
Answer:
(1) Apartment
(2) Recognized
(3) Manage
(4) Addressed

Question 20.
Rewrite the following sentence using the antonym of the underlined word: We’re none of us getting any younger.
Answer:
We’re all of us getting older.

Question 21.
Rewrite the following sentence using ‘except’: The only free moment she had was on the following Thursday.
Answer:
She had no free moment except on the following Thursday.

Question 22.
I hardly think about it. (Begin the sentence with ‘How …!)
Answer:
How little I think about it!

Question 23.
She had read a book of mine. (Begin the sentence with ‘Hadn’t …?)
Answer:
Hadn’t she read a book of mine?

Question 24.
If you were in the place of the narrator, how would you have reacted in the given situation?
Answer:
If I were in the place of the narrator, I would have bluntly told the lady that I was a struggling writer and could not afford to give her a luncheon at Foyot’s. I would have suggested some cheaper restaurant that I could afford. I would not try to show off, or spend more than I can afford,ust to impress someone.

Question 25.
They decided to have luncheon at Foyot’s restaurant at half-past twelve on a Thursday.
Answer:
Foyot’s restaurant at half-past twelve on a Thursday.

Question 26.
The writer ‘was startled when the menu was brought because ………………
Answer:
The prices were a great deal higher than what he had thought.

Question 27.
What do you think the woman reassured the narrator about?
Answer:
The woman realized that the narrator was startled when he saw the prices on the menu. So she indirectly reassured him that he would not have to spend much, for she never ate anything for luncheon.

Question 28.
‘I never eat anything for luncheon’. Explain the irony in this line.
Answer:
The irony is that after informing the author that she never ate anything for luncheon, the lady immediately wanted salmon and caviar, some of the most expensive items available.

Question 29.
From the sentences given below pick out the sentence that indicates that the lady was doing exactly the opposite of what she was saying.
(1) ‘I think you’re unwise to eat meat.”
(2) ‘‘I don’t believe in overloading my stomach.”
Answer:
“I don’t believe in overloading my stomach.”

Question 30.
Choose the correct options from the brackets and fill in the blanks: (pass, startled, overload, imposing, afford, generously, reassured, unwise)
(1) I was …………… when I saw that I remembered all that I had revised.
(2) The monument was really very ………………… .
(3) You cannot ………… to waste time with friends during exams. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
(1) reassured
(2) imposing
(3) afford

Question 31.
Change the voice of the following sentences:
(1) She reassured me.
(2) I ordered it for my guest.
Answer:
(1) I was reassured by her.
(2) It was ordered for my guest, (by me)

Question 32.
“You’re unwise to eat meat,” she said. (Rewrite in indirect speech)
Answer:
She told him that he was unwise to eat meat.

Question 33.
Are you careful in your eating habits?
Answer:
My mother sees that I eat healthily, and I like I fruits and salads. However, when I am with friends and we go out, I eatunk food. I know it is important to eat healthy food and I take good care to do so.

Question 34.
Name the food items mentioned in the passage
Answer:
The food items mentioned in the passage are:
(1) caviar,
(2) mutton chops,
(3) salmon,
(4) asparagus

Question 35.
Explain what the use of the word ‘sank’ suggests about the narrator’s feelings.:
Answer:
The use of the word ‘sank’ suggests that the narrator was getting unhappy and worried about his guest’s desire to eat expensive food.

Question 36.
From the sentences given below, pick out the sentence that indicates that the lady was doing the exact opposite of what she was saying: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(1) “I see that you’re in the habit of eating a heavy luncheon.”
(2) “Why don’t you follow my example andust: eat one thing.”
Answer:
“Why don’t you follow my example andust eat one thing.”

Question 37.
Choose the correct options from the brackets and fill in the blanks: (pass, quite seriously, water, gaily, insist, mortifying, dramatic)
(1) The ……………… turn of events shocked all of us.
(2) It was ……………. to apologise to the bully.
(3) My mother waved ………………… to me as she went for the hike.
(4) The author’s guest took him ………………. to task.
Answer:
(1) dramatic
(2) mortifying
(3) gaily
(4) quite seriously

Question 38.
Fill in the blanks with the words from the brackets: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet) (task, menu, wondered)
(1) The ……………… to rescue the flood victims was very difficult.
(2) I was thinking about buying a new vehicle and …………………. if we had the money.
(3) The restaurant …………………. seemed to be tempting.
Answer:
(1) task
(2) wondered
(3) menu

Question 39.
She ate the caviar and she ate the salmon. (Begin the sentence with not only … but also and rewrite the sentence.)
Answer:
Not only did she eat the caviar but she also ate the salmon.

Question 40.
Rewrite the following sentence as an affirmative sentence: I couldn’t possibly eat anything more unless they had some of those giant asparagus.
Answer:
I could possibly eat something more only if they had some of those giant asparagus.

Question 41.
Which food do you prefer to eat-home food or restaurant food. Why?
Answer:
My mother cooks very tasty food and hence I prefer to eat home food. It is also always fresh. Restaurant food is generally oily, spicy and often prepared under unhygienic conditions. All this is unhealthy. I believe that health is wealthhence I prefer home food.

Question 42.
Complete the web: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.2 The Luncheon 1

Question 43.
‘Thera a terrible thing happened.’ Describe the narrator’s emotions at this point in the story. Why does he mot express this emotion?
Answer:
At this point in the story, the writer had given up ail hopes that he could pay the bill. He was resigned to his fate. He had mentally decided on different methods to save his reputation. He does not express this emotion because the lady had already eaten a lot of expensive food: the damage was already done. Besides, he did not want to look mean in her eyes.

Question 44.
Match the columns:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) head	(a) peaches
(2) terrible	(b) mouthfuls
(3) huge	(c) waiter
(4) large	(d) thing

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) head	(c) waiter
(2) terrible	(d) thing
(3) huge	(a) peaches
(4) large	(b) mouthfuls

Question 45.
Complete the table:

Positive	Comparative	Superlative

Answer:

Positive	Comparative	Superlative
(1) hungry	hungrier	hungriest
(2) terrible	more terrible	most terrible

Question 46.
Rewrite the following in reported speech: “Are you still hungry?” I asked faintly.
Answer:
I asked her faintly whether she was still hungry.

Question 47.
Pick out the modal auxiliaries from the following sentence and write what they indicate: “One should always get up from a meal feeling one could eat a little more.”
Answer:
Should – indicates advice. Could – indicates ability.

Question 48.
‘I was past caring now’. Explain why, in your view, the narrator feels this way.
Answer:
The writer had been worried from the beginning that he would not be able to pay the bill. To add to that, his guest had ordered some of the most expensive items on the menu. He had now given up all hopes of being able to pay the bill. Hence, he says that he was past caring now.

Question 49.
Write if the following statements are True or False:
(1) The writer thought that the lady was mean.
(2) The writer’s tip was rather inadequate.
(3) The lady was now like a stone.
(4) The writer planned to have a heavy dinner.
Answer:
False
True
False
False

Question 50.
Complete the reasons:
(a) The writer planned to ‘eat nothing’ for dinner that night because….
Answer:
The writer had no money left after paying for the luncheon. He also wanted to make his luncheon guest aware of how much she had made him spend. Hence, he said that he planned to ‘eat nothing’ for dinner that night.

(b) The lady thought that the writer was mean because
Answer:
The writer had only three francs left to tip the waiter. His guest did not know this, and seeing this inadequate sum, thought he was mean.

Question 51.
Complete the table by picking the various humorous instances and the particular lines from the passage.

Humorous instance	Line from the passage

Answer:

Humorous instance	Line from the passage
1. The woman is a voracious eater.	“Follow my example, and never eat more than one thing for luncheon.” *
2. The writer had no money for dinner.	“I’ll do better than that,” I retorted, “I’ll eat nothing for dinner tonight.”
3. The woman had become very fat.	Today she weighs twenty- one stone.

Question 52.
Fill in the blanks with one word from the passage for the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) Something that is not enough: ………………….
(2) A man who is revengeful: ………………….
(3) A person who fills his or her writings with humour: ………………….
(4) A person who is stingy and does not like to spend money: ………………….
Answer:
(1) inadequate.
(2) a vindictive man.
(3) a humorist.
(4) a mean person.

Question 53.
Pick out the verbs from the following sentences and write their tense:
(1) I’ have just had a snack and I shall enjoy a peach.
(2) The bill came and when 1 paid it I found that I had only enough for a quite inadequate tip.
Answer:
(1) have had – present perfect tenseshall enjoy – simple future tense.
(2) came, paid, found, had – simple past tense.

Question 54.
Do you think that the lady never ‘ate more than one thing for luncheon’ on a regular basis?
Answer:
No, I’m sure she ate a large luncheon every day, but fooled herself into thinking that she was eating only one thing. She seems to be a foolish and thick-skinned woman who believes whatever is convenient to her.

Question 55.
(1) Pick out an infinitive from the lesson and use it in your own sentence.
(2) Punctuate: humorist she cried gailyumping into a cab youre quite a humorist
(3) Find out five hidden words from the given word: satisfaction
(4) Use the following phrase in your own sentence: the only free moment
(5) Spot the errors and rewrite the correct sentence: She have read a book of mine and have written to me about it.
(6) Identify the type of sentence: How time does fly!
(7) Write the correct verb + present/past participles from the following:
(1) attract
(2) write
(3) pass
(4) bear
(5) eat
(6) meet
(8) Arrange the following in alphabetical order: table, tumbler, tablespoon, teaspoon
Answer:
(1) to eat: I was hungry, and I knew it was time to eat.
(2) “Humorist!” she cried gaily,umping into a cab. “You’re quite a humorist!”
(3) satisfaction: fiction, fission, faint, stint, satin
(4) the only free moment: The Principal was so busy that the only free moment she had was during lunch.
(5) She had read a book of mine and had written to me about it.
(6) Exclamatory sentence
(7) (1) attract-atractting
(2) write-written
(3) pass-passing
(4) bear-bearring
(5) eat-eatten
(6) meet-meeted
(8) table, tablespoon, teaspoon, tumbler

Question 56.
Use the following word and its homograph in two separate sentences : mine
Answer:
(i) I knew that the book was mine,
(ii) Three people entered the coal mine to inspect it.

Question 57.
‘I’m not in the least hungry,” my guest sighed, “but if you insist, I don’t mind having some asparagus.” (Rewrite in reported speech.)
Answer:
My guest told me with a sigh that she was not in the least hungry, but that if I insisted, she wouldn’t mind having some asparagus.

Question 58.
Word Register: Complete the web showing the things that the woman ate or drank throughout the luncheon.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.2 The Luncheon 2
Answer:

Question 59.
Why don’t you follow my example? (Change the voice beginning Why ….)
Answer:
Why isn’t my example followed (by you)?

Question 60.
Use the following word as a verb and a noun in two separate sentences: mind
(2) I chose the cheapest dish on the menu. (Rewrite in the positive and comparative forms.)
Answer:
(1)

“Mind your language, young man,” said the shopkeeper angrily, (verb)
I knew that I had to keep all the instructions in my mind, (noun)

(2) I chose the dish that was cheaper than all the other dishes on the menu, (comparative)
No other dish on the menu was as cheap as the one I chose, (positive)

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Night Of The Scorpion Poem Questions And Answers Question 1.
Get into pairs and discuss the following with your partners and complete the table.
Many people are superstitious. This means that they have belief for which they have no logical reason.
An example of superstition is that – walking under a ladder brings bad luck.
In pairs, list any superstitions that you know of.

Superstition	What it implies
(1) Smashing a mirror (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7)	Brings seven years of bad luck.

Answer:

Superstition	What it implies
(1) Walking under a ladder	Brings bad luck.
(2) Smashing a mirror	Brings seven years of bad luck.
(3) A black cat crossing your path	A bad omen.
(4) Twitching of the eye	Brings bad luck.
(5) Sweeping your house after sunset	Goddess Lakshmi will walk out.
(6) Going near a peepal tree at night	The ghosts will kill you.
(7) Putting a black dot on your child’s face	Will ward off the evil eye.

Night Of The Scorpion Questions And Answers Question 2.
Brainstorm what you know about Scorpions. Use the points given below.
The Night Of The Scorpion Questions And Answers
Answer:

Night of the Scorpion Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Night Of The Scorpion Question 1.
After reading the poem, complete the following. What happens? There are three main parts of the poem. Do you know what they are about? The first one is done for you.

Lines	What is happening?
1-7	The scorpion comes into the home to escape the rain and stings the poet’s mother.
8-33
34-48

Answer:

Lines	What is happening
1-17	The scorpion comes into the house to escape the rain and stings the poet’s mother. It then braves the rain again. The peasants come when they hear the news and search for the scorpion. They click their tongues to show their disappointment. They say that with eveiy movement the scorpion makes, the poison moves in the victim’s blood.
18-33	The villagers sympathize with the mother and offer consolation in various ways. They sit round the floor with the mother in the centre. More neighbours came in to help, with more candles and more lanterns.
34-48	The father is desperate and though he is a rationalist, he tries all sorts of things to cure the mother. He calls a holy man to perform rites and even poured paraffin on the bitten toe and set fire to it. After twenty hours the scorpion loses Its sting. All that the mother says Is that she is thankful to God that the scorpion picked her and spared her children.

Night Of Scorpion Question Answers Question 2.
Complete the following tables.
(A)

Background/setting of the poem
Type	Evidence (Quote lines from the poem)
Rural/Urban	……………………………………….

Answer:

Background/setting of the poem

Type

Evidence (Quote lines from the poem)

Rural

(1) ‘The peasants came like swarms of flies’.
(2) ‘and buzzed,the name of God a hundred times’.
(3) To paralyse the evil one’.
(4) ‘With candles and with lanterns’
(5) ‘on‘the mud-baked walls’
(6) ‘His poison moved in Mother’s blood, they said.’
(7) They sat around on the floor with my mother in the centre’
(8) More candles, more lanterns’.
(9) groaning on a mat
(10) trying every curse and blessing, powder, mixture, herb and hybrid
(11) I watched the holy man perform his rites

(B)

Scorpion
Many images of the scorpion contrast in the opening lines of the poem. Find examples of each and add them to the columns below.
Timid	Dangerous
(1) hides …………………. (2) …………………. back	(i) Diabolic …………………. (ii) ………………….

Answer:

Scorpion
Timid	Dangerous
(1) Hides beneath a sack of rice	(1) Diabolic tail
(2) Is afraid of the people and goes back	(2) The Evil One
	(3) His poison moved in Mother’s blood

(C)

Imagery
Look at the description of the village peasants. What does the imagery suggest about them?
The Images	What images suggest
They came like swarms of flies.
They buzzed the name of God.
They threw giant scorpion shadows on the mud-baked walls.
They clicked their tongues.

Answer:

Imagery
The images	what the images suggest
1) They came swarms of flies.	(1) They came it very large numbers, a huge crowd of people moving towards the house, like a swarm of flies.
(2) They buzzed the name of God.	(2) They kept repeating the name of God softly and continuously, like the buzzing of bees.
(3) They threw giant scorpion shadows on the mud-baked walls.	(3) The lanterns they carried threw shadows on the walls, which looked like huge scorpion shadows to the frightened villagers.
(4) They clicked their tongues.	(4) They made sorrowful and frightening sounds with their tongues.

Night Of The Scorpion Question Answers Question 3.
Choose the correct alternative.

1. The child is afraid but admires …………………………
(a) the initiative of the peasants.
(b) his father trying every way to cure.
(c) the bravery of his mother.
Answer:
(c) the bravery of his mother

2. His father and the villagers panic and hastily suggest ………………………….
(a) to take her to the hospital.
(b) ayurvedic treatment.
(c) religious remedies to help.
Answer:
(c) religious remedies to help

3. The poet seems to see the villagers as impractical and almost irritating which suggests that …………………………
(a) the poet is critical of caste
(b) the poet is critical of religion
(c) the poet is critical of tradition.
Answer:
(c) the poet is critical of tradition

4. This is a ………………………… poem as it tells a story.
(a) reflective
(b) imaginative
(c) narrative
Answer:
(c) narrative

5. Using the first person gives the feeling that it is told from …………………………
(a) personal experience
(b) public experience
(c) private experience
Answer:
(a) personal experience

6. ‘The scorpion picked on me. And spared my children’ depicts …………………………
(a) mother’s bravery
(b) mother’s endurance
(c) selfless and unconditional love of mother.
Answer:
(c) selfless and unconditional love of a mother

7. The poem does not have a rhyme scheme, which means the poem is a perfect example of a …………………………
(a) Ballad
(b) Sonnet
(c) Free verse
Answer:
(c) free verse

8. The poem is titled ‘Night of the Scorpion’, for, the major part of the poem, …………………………
(a) the mother remains triumphant at the end.
(b) the scorpion is the victor.
(c) the father succeeds in curing the mother.
Answer:
(b) the scorpion is the victor

9. The peasants chant the name of God to …………………………
(a) nullify the stinging experience
(b) praise God.
(c) appease God.
Answer:
(a) nullify the stinging experience

10. The click of tongues reflects their ………………………… to the predicament.
(a) individual response
(b) collective response
(c) group response
Answer:
(b) collective response

Night Of The Scorpion Questions Question 4.
From the poem provide evidence for the following :

Stages	Evidence (lines from the poem)
(a) the attempts by the peasants to help alleviate the mother’s pain. (b) the action of these same peasants to kill the scorpion (c) the reaction of the rational father. (d) the various superstitions versus the ‘scientific’ (e) evil versus good.

Answer:

Stages	Evidence (lines from the extract)
(a) the attempts by the peasants to help alleviate the mother’s pain.	(1) The peasants came like swarms of flies’ (2) ‘and buzzed the name of God a hundred times to paralyse the Evil One.’ (3) ‘With candles and with lanterns’
(b) the action of these same peasants to kill the scorpion.	(1) ‘they searched for him’ (2) ‘they clicked their tongues’
(c) evil versus good	‘and buzzed the name of God a hundred times to paralyse the Evil One.’ ‘

Night Of Scorpion Question Answers Question 5.
Read the poem and complete the table showing the qualities of the father and mother giving sufficient evidences from the poem.

Qualities
Father	Mother

Answer:

Qualities
Father	Mother
sceptic, rationalist, loving, desperate	patient, long-suffering, brave, self-sacrificing, selfless
Lines as evidence: My father, sceptic, rationalist, Trying every curse and blessing, Powder, mixture, herb and hybrid. He even poured a little paraffin Upon the bitten toe and put a match to it. I watched the holy man perform his rites to tame the poison with an incantation.	Lines as evidence : My mother twisted through and through, groaning on a mat. My mother only said Thank God the scorpion picked on me and spared my children.

Night Of The Scorpion Question Answers Question 6.
(A) Match the Figures of Speech with the correct definition.

Poetic Devices
Figure	Definition
(1) Metaphor (2) Alliteration (3) Onomatopoeia (4) Simile	(a) The use of the same sound at the beginning of words (b) An implied comparison. (c) A comparison between two different things, especially a phrase, containing the words ‘like’ or ‘as’ (d) A word which resembles the sound it represents.

Answer:

Poetic Devices
Figure	Definition
(1) Metaphor (2) Alliteration (3) Onomatopoeia (4) Simile	(b) An implied comparison. (a) The use of the same sound at the beginning of words (d) A word which resembles the sound it represents. (c) A comparison between two different things, especially a phrase, containing the words ‘like’ or ‘as’

(B) Find examples from the poem that contain :
Similie : …………………………
Metaphor : …………………………
Onomatopoeia : …………………………
Answer:
Similie: A comparison between two different things, especially a phrase, containing the words ‘like’ or ‘as’
Metaphor: An implied comparison.
Onomatopoeia: A word which resembles the sound it represents.

Question 7.
Expand the flow chart in writing a paragraph in your own words.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions 3.1 Night of the Scorpion 3
Answer:
The poet’s mother is bitten by a scorpion and is in great agony. She fights the venom of the scorpion with the help of her husband and the villagers. She is unable to say anything, but only groans in pain. Finally, the poison is tamed after twenty hours. In the end, the mother thanks God that she has survived the ordeal, and that the scorpion had picked on her and spared her children.

Question 8.
The poet has used various kinds of imagery to create an image which appeal to our senses. Pick out various kinds of imagery and complete the table.

Visual imagery appealing to eyes	Tactile imagery (sense of touch)	Sound imagery	Internal sensations, feelings and emotions
(1) Scropion crawling beneath a sack of rice	(1) …………………………… …………………………… ……………………………	(1) buzzed the name of God	(1) fear
(2)	(2) Father pouring paraffin on the toe	(2) …………………………… …………………………… ……………………………	(2) ……………………………

Answer:

Visual imagery appealing to eyas	Tactile imagery (Sense of touch)	Sound imagery	Internal sensations, feelings and emotions
(1) Scorpion crawling beneath a sack of rice	(1) I watched the flame feeding on my mother	(1) buzzed the name of God	(1) fear
(2) With Candles and lanterns throwing giant scorpion shadows on the mud-baked walls.	(2) Father pouring paraffin on the toe	(2) They clicked their tongues	(2) pain

Question 9.
Write an appreciation of the poem in a paragraph format.
Answer:
Point Format
(for understanding)
The title of the poem : Night of the Scorpion’
The poet: Nissirn Ezekiel
Rhyme scheme : written In frcc verse without any rhyme scheme or mctrc
Figures of speech : Onomatopoeia, Metaphor, Alliteraüon, Sim Ile, Antithesis, etc.
Theme/Central idea : The poet depicts the selflessness and unconditional love of a mother who stung by a scorpion.

Paragraph Format
Thc poem ‘Night of the Scorpion’ is written by Nissim Ezekiel. The poem is written in free verse without any rhyme scheme or metre. There are many figures of speech e.g. Onomatopoeia like ‘and buzzed the name of God a hundred times’. Here, we feel we can actually hear the buzzing of the prayers of the many peasants. The other figures of speech are Metaphor. Alliteration. Simile. Antithesis, etc.

The theme of the poem is the sense of sacrifice shown by a devoted mother. Even as she suffers the pangs of a scorpion-bite, she thanks God for sparing her children from such an ordeal.

Question 10
Project
Prepare a Presentation (on paper or on a PC) as a piece of reference to other students. Make use of the following points.
(1) Title page
(2) Introduction of the poet
(3) The Complete poem (All 48 lines)
(4) Learning objectives
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions 3.1 Night of the Scorpion 4
(5) Style of writing
(6) Scorpion lines (1-7)
(7) The peasants
(8) The poet’s father
(10) The poet’s mother
(11) Vocabulary
(12) Credits (positive aspects)

Question 11.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) The scorpion was forced to take shelter in the poet’s house to …………………
(2) In line no. 3, the word ‘him’ refers to …………………
(3) To ‘paralyse the Evil One’ in stanza 3 means ………………….
(4) ‘They’ in stanza 4 refers to ………………….
Answer:
(1) escape the heavy rain.
(2) the scorpion.
(3) to stop the activity of the devil, the scorpion.
(4) the peasants M10 had come to help.

Question 12.
Explain why the poem begins with the poet \ remembering the night.
Answer:
The poem begins with the poet remembering | the night because the whole incident that is narrated in the poem was very memorable and took place in the night. It created a strong impression on the poet.

Question 13.
Write the reactions of the people when they knew that the mother was stung by a scorpion.
Answer:
When the people knew that the poet’s mother was stung by a scorpion:
(i) The peasants came in swarms to help.
(ii) They buzzed the name of God a hundred times.
(iii) They searched for the scorpion with candles and lanterns.
(iv) They clicked their tongues because he was not found.

Question 14.
Pick out an example of Simile from the extract.
Answer:
The peasants came like swarms of flies. The peasants are compared directly to swarms of flies, with the use of the word like’.

Question 15.
Pick out an example of Metaphor from the extract.
Answer:
to paralyse the Evil One’. The scorpion is Implicitly compared to the devil.

Question 16.
Pick out examples of Onomatopoeia from the extract.
Answer:
(1) ‘and buzzed the name of God’
The word ‘buzzed’ indicates sound.

(2) ‘They clicked their tongues.’
The word ‘clicked’ indicates sound.

Question 17.
Pick out examples of Alliteration from the extract.
Answer:
(1) Parting with his poison-flash
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘p’.

(2) of diabolic tail in the dark room
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘d’.

(3) throwing giant scorpion shadows.
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘s’.

Question 18.
Pick out an example of Antithesis from the extract:
Answer:
‘they searched for him: he was not found’ Words having opposite or contradictory meanings are used in the same line.

Question 19.
Write down the rhyming words from the stanzas for the following:
(i) fight
(ii) clash
Answer:
(i) fight-night
(ii) clash-flash.

Question 20.
Complete the following: The peasants consoled the mother, saying:
(1) the poison will burn away ………………………
(2) her suffering will decrease …………………….
(3) the evil in this world will be …………………………
(4) the poison will purify her …………………………..
Answer:
(1) the sins of her previous birth
(2) the misfortunes of her next birth
(3) diminished by her pain.
(4) flesh of desire and her spirit of ambition.

Question 21.
(a) Pick out examples of Alliteration from the extract:
Answer:
(1) ‘May he sit still, they said’.
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘s’.

(2) ‘May the poison purify your flesh’
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘p’.

(b) Pick out an example of Antithesis from the extract:
Answer:
‘May the sum of all evil balanced in this unreal world against the sum of good’ Words having opposite meanings are placed close for contrast.

(c) Pick out an example of Repetition from the extract:
Answer:
‘More candles, more lanterns, more. neighbours’ Repetition of the word ‘more’ for emphasis.

Question 22.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) The mother found relief …………………….
(2) All through the ordeal, the poet’s mother ………………..
Answer:
(1) after twenty hours.
(2) twisted and groaned in pain.

Question 23.
(1) Pick out an example of Onomatopoeia from the extract.
Answer:
‘groaning on a mat’ The word ‘groaning’ indicates sound.

Question 24.
Pick out examples of Alliteration from the extract.
Answer:
(1) ‘powder, mixture, herb and hybrid’
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘h’.

(2) ‘He even poured a little paraffin’
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘p’.

(3) ‘I watched the flame feeding on my mother’
Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘f.

Question 25.
Pick out an example of Antithesis from the extract:
Answer:
‘trying every curse and blessing’ Words having opposite meanings are placed close for contrast.

Question 26.
Pick out an example of Personification from the extract:
Answer:
‘I watched the flame feeding on my mother’ The flame is given the human quality of feeding.

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