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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Solutions Chapter 7 Decolonisation to Political Integration of India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Std 12 History Chapter 7 Question Answer Decolonisation to Political Integration of India Maharashtra Board

Class 12 History Chapter 7 Decolonisation to Political Integration of India Question Answer Maharashtra Board

History Class 12 Chapter 7 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
In 1946, under the leadership of the movement of ____________ ‘Civil Disobedience’ was launched in
Goa.
(a) Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia
(b) Dr. T.B. Kunha
(c) Dr. P.P. Shirodkar
(d) Dr. Ram Hegde
Answer:
(a) Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia

Question 2.
Hyderabad’s struggle of freedom was led skillfully by ____________
(a) King Hari Singh
(b) Swami Ramanand Tirth
(c) Pandit Mahadevshastri Joshi
(d) Keshavrao Jedhe
Answer:
(b) Swami Ramanand Tirth

Question 3.
The princely states in India were merged in India mainly through the efforts of ____________
(a) Jayantrao Tilak
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Dr. T.B. Kunha
Answer:
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Merger of the princely state of Hyderabad	Swami Ramanand Tirth
2. Merger of the princely state of Kashmir	Shaikh Abdullah
3. Significant contribution in the ‘Goa Liberation Movement	Mohan Ranade
4. The trade unionist leader in Puducherry	V. Subbayya

Answer:
The merger of the princely state of Kashmir – King Hari Singh (Instrument of Accession)

2. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
The President of Goa Congress Committee –
Answer:
Dr. T.B. Kunha

Question 2.
The princely states that did not merge in India immediately after its independence –
Answer:
Junagadh, Hyderabad, Kashmir, Dadra and Haveli, Goa and Puducherry

3. Observe the map on textbook page 61 and answer the questions based on it.

Question 1.
Name the countries located at the northwest border of India.
Answer:
Pakistan and Afghanistan.

Question 2.
Which places in India were the centers of Portuguese rule?
Answer:
Goa, Dadra and Nagar haveli, Diu and Daman.

Question 3.
Which place on the eastern coast of India were the centers of French rule?
Answer:
Puducherry, Yanam and Karaikal.

Question 4.
Which nation is located at the southern tip of India?
Answer:
Sri Lanka

4. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

5. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
Ultimately the princely state of Hyderabad was merged in India.
Answer:

• Hyderabad was under Nizam rule, it was the largest amongst princely states along with Telugu, Kannada, and Marathi regional sections.
• The various organisation was formed to fight against Nizam’s policies for his people.
• Swami Ramanand Tirth alongside loyal workers were leading this organisation to gain freedom from the Nizam.
• Hyderabad State Congress passed a resolution that Hyderabad will merge in India and this was not liked by Nizam, he was willing to join Pakistan.
• The people of Hyderabad wanted to merge in India.
• Kasim Razvi formed a ‘Razakar’ organisation against people.
• In the end, the Indian Government launched a police campaign against Nizam, under the name ‘Operation Polo’.
• In 1948 Nizam surrendered and Hyderabad merged in India.

Question 2.
Puducherry was declared as a Union territory.
Answer:

• Puducherry was under the French colony. India was under the impression that the British and Portuguese will send a message to the French to leave India, however, this did not happen.
• Puducherry, Mahe, Yanam, and Chandranagar in West Bengal were under French control.
• The people of Puducherry got united under Subbayya, a communist politician and leader.
• The government noticed it as serious and strongly demanded that French governments should return all the regions held by them.
• In 1948, a bilateral agreement was signed by both governments. In 1949, Chandranagar was merged.
• In 1954, all French colonies were merged in India. In 1962, the French Parliament approved the bilateral agreement and in 1963, Puducherry became the ‘Union Territory’ of India.

6. State your opinion.

Question 1.
Andhra, Karnataka, Maharashtra Councils (Parishad) were found in the princely state of Hyderabad.
Answer:

• Hyderabad was the largest amongst princely states in India. It comprised Telugu, Kannada, and Marathi regional sections. It was ruled by Nizam.
• Nizam of Hyderabad had put many restrictions on the Civil and Political rights of his subjects to a great extent.
• To fight against such restrictions in the state, people had formed organizations like ‘Andhra Parishad’ in Telangana, ‘Maharashtra Parishad’ in Marathwada, and ‘Karnataka Parishad’ in Karnataka.

Question 2.
The Portuguese rule in Goa remained untouched till 1961.
Answer:

• Goa was under Portuguese control. There prevailed a general notion among Indians that the departure of the British from India would send a signal to the Portuguese and the French to leave India on their own.
• However, this did not happen and many freedom fighters like Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia, Dr. Kunha, and many more have contributed to the struggle against the Portuguese.
• At last, the Indian govt has sent the army, under Operation Vijay, to make Goa free from Portuguese control and became a part of India on 19th December 1961.

Class 12 History Chapter 7 Decolonisation to Political Integration of India Intext Questions and Answers

Try to do this (Textbook Page No. 58)

Try to collect information about the newspapers published during ‘Hyderabad Freedom Struggle’ with the help of the internet.
Answer:
Students should do it on their own.

Try to do this (Textbook Page No. 60)

Collect information about the fort of Panaji and make a poster about the fort.
Answer:
Students should do it on their own.

Project (Textbook Page No. 62)

Collect information about the ‘Gorta Massacre’ a very important instance in the struggle for liberating Hyderabad. To get more information about it visit the following website: www.bhausahebumate.com
Answer:
(i) As we know Qasim Razvi, had founded the Razakar organisation (Nizam’s private military) to help Nizam to suppress the voice of people against Nizam of Hyderabad. Gorta was the name of a village (Karnataka) and people were massacred by Razakars of Hyderabad in 1948. Gorta Village is also known as Jaliyanwala Bag of Karanataka, it was a mass killing on May 9th and 10th 1948. Though a plaque kept in front of the village gives fight date May 5th, and it continued for two weeks. It is said that around 200 people were killed by Razakars and property destruction was worth ₹ 70 lakhs.

(ii) A folk song called ‘Bhulai pada’ sung by village women in bitter memory of the massacre. There is demand from village people in front of the Government for the construction of the memorial at Gorta. Local people and local political parties had collected ₹ 27 lakh for a 35-foot memorial and laid the foundation on September 17th, 2014.

12th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Renaissance in Europe and Development of Science Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• European Colonialism Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India and European Colonialism Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Colonialism and the Marathas Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India: Social and Religious Reforms Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Indian Struggle against Colonialism Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Decolonisation to Political Integration of India Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• World Wars and India Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• World: Decolonisation Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Cold War Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India Transformed Part 1 Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India Transformed Part 2 Class 11 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

The Indian Judicial System Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 4 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
Laws are made by …………………. .
(a) Legislature
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Judiciary
(d) Executive
Answer:
(a) Legislature

Question 2.
The Chief Justice of Supreme Court is appointed by the …………………… .
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Home Minister
(d) Law Minister
Answer:
(b) President

2. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Judicial Review:
Answer:

1. The Constitution is the fundamental law of the nation and to protect it is the prime responsibility of the Supreme Court.
2. The Parliament cannot pass any law that violates the Constitution.
3. Every act or policy made by the Executive should be consistent with the Constitution.
4. If any law passed by the Legislature or any act of the Executive violates any provision of the Constitution, the said law or act is declared illegal.
5. So, it is struck down by the Supreme Court.
6. This power of the Supreme Court is known as Judicial Review.

Question 2.
Public Interest Litigation (PIL):
Answer:

1. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) refers to litigations filed on issues of public importance and issues related to the welfare of the people.
2. It can be filed by individual citizens, social organisation or Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs) on behalf of all the people.
3. Issues related to rehabilitation of people who have lost their homes/lands, protection of environment, protection of the weaker sections of society, etc. have been effectively handled through PIL.
4. PILs are effective tool which require minimum expenditure and get immediate justice.

3. Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Civil Law:
Answer:

1. It is one of the two main branches of law.
2. It deals with conflicts which affect or interfere with the rights of an individual.
3. Conflicts regarding land and property, rent agreement, divorce, etc. are included under Civil law.
4. After filing a petition in the relevant court, the court gives a decision.

Question 2.
Criminal Law:
Answer:

1. Serious crimes are dealt under Criminal law.
2. Crimes like theft, robbery, dowry, murder, etc. are included under Criminal law.
3. In these cases, the first step is to file a ‘First Information Report’ (FIR) with the police, who investigate the matter and file a petition in the court.
4. If the charges are proved, there are provisions for severe punishment.

4. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Why are laws necessary in society?
Answer:

1. Differences in opinions, thoughts, perspectives, different cultures of people give rise to conflicts. These conflicts can be resolved impartially by the Judiciary.
2. Social justice and equality in society can be established with the help of law.
3. It also helps to bring weaker sections of the society, women, children differently-abled and transgenders into the mainstream of the society.
4. Law helps the common man to get the benefits of values of freedom, equality and democracy.
5. Law helps to protect the rights of the people.
6. It prevents emergence of repressive and authoritarian groups and individuals.
   Hence, laws are necessary in society.

Question 2.
Enumerate the functions of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
The functions of the Supreme Court are as follows:

1. As a federal court, it has the responsibility to settle disputes between the centre and the states; and states on one side and states on the other.
2. It gives orders to relevant authorities to protect the fundamental rights of the people.
3. It has the power to review decrees and orders of the lower courts and also review its own decisions.
4. It provides necessary advice to the President if he/she asks for advice to understand the legal aspects in matters of public importance.

Question 3.
Which are the provisions that preserve the independence of the judiciary?
Answer:
The Constitution has made following provisions to preserve the independence of the judiciary:

1. To avoid any political pressure, judges are appointed by the President.
2. Judges enjoy the security of tenure. They cannot be removed from the post for trivial reasons or for political motives.
3. The salaries of the judges are drawn from the Consolidated Fund of India. No discussion regarding this takes place in the Parliament.
4. Personal criticism cannot be made on judges for their acts and decisions. It is considered as contempt of court and is a punishable offence.
5. The Parliament cannot discuss the decisions of the judges.

5. Complete the table:

Question 1.

Answer:

See this example:

1. The court had asked the candidates contesting in elections to declare their property and income details and educational qualifications through or affidavit.
2. The idea behind this was to ensure that the voters will vote on the basis of accurate information about the candidates.
3. This is an attempt to make our election process more transparent.
4. It is mandatory for the contesting candidates to declare whether there are any charges filed against them,
and the nature of the charges whether civil or criminal also has to be declared.

Do it:

High Courts having jurisdiction over more than one state:

1. Mumbai High Court: Maharashtra, Goa and Union Territories of Diu Daman and Dadra-Nagar Haveli.
2. Guwahati High Court: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland.
3. Kerala High Court: Kerala and Union Territory of Lakshadweep islands.
4. Kolkata High Court: West Bengal and Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar islands.
5. Chandigarh High Court: Punjab and Haryana.

Project:

Question 1.
Organise a Moot Court’ in your school, prepare and ask questions related to Public Interest Litigations in this Moot Court.

Question 2.
Visit the nearest police station and understand the procedure of filing a First Information Report (FIR) with the help of your teacher.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
When the common man benefits from the values of freedom, equality and justice, it leads to the widening and deepening of ……………… .
(a) values
(b) democracy
(c) Judiciary
(d) Law
Answer:
(b) democracy

Question 2.
…………. helps to protect the rights of people.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Judiciary
(d) Social Organisation
Answer:
(c) Judiciary

Question 3.
The …………. is the fundamental law of the nation.
(a) Parliament
(b) Judiciary
(c) Constitution
(d) President’s order
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 4.
If any law passed by the Legislature or any act of the Executive violates any provision of the Constitution, the said law or act can be declared illegal by the ………….
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) President
(d) Supreme Court
Answer:
(d) Supreme Court

Question 5.
The …………. has the power to establish a High Court in every state of India.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) Parliament

Question 6.
Currently, there are ……………. High Courts in India.
(a) 20
(b) 29
(c) 24
(d) 22
Answer:
(c) 24

Find and write:

Question 1.
Nature of Judiciary in India:
Answer:
Integrated System

Question 2.
In the criminal cases, the first step is to file:
Answer:
First Information Report (FIR)

Question 3.
The District judges are appointed by
Answer:
The Governor

Question 4.
The High Court judges are appointed by:
Answer:
The President.

Complete the following concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Judicial Activism:
Answer:

1. The courts settle the disputes whenever they are approached for that purpose.
2. But, in the recent times, this image of the courts has undergone a change.
3. They have become increasingly active.
4. The courts are now trying to fulfill the constitutional goals of justice and equality.
5. The courts have tried to provide legal protection to the marginalised sections of society, women, tribal, workers, farmers and children.
6. Public Interest Litigations related to issues like victimisation of women, malnourishment among children, etc. have played an important role in boosting Judicial Activism

Question 2.
High Court:
Answer:

1. The Indian Constitution confers the Parliament with the power to establish a High Court in each constituent state in the Union.
2. Normally, each state has a High Court. But, in certain cases where the population and area of the states is less, one High Court has jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. For example, the Bombay High Court’s jurisdiction covers the states of Maharashtra and Goa, and the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
4. Currently, there are 24 High Courts in India.

Question 3.
Supreme Court of India:
Answer:

1. Judiciary in India is an integrated system where Supreme Court is at the apex position.
2. The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the head of the Supreme Court of India.
3. By convention, the seniormost judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the Chief Justice.
4. The President appoints the Chief Justice of India and other judges of the Supreme Court.
5. The Supreme Court of India is located at New Delhi.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Judiciary in India is an integrated system.
Answer:

1. India is a Union of States. The Centre and the Constituent States have a separate Legislature and Executive.
2. But there is one judicial system for the whole of India.
3. The Supreme Court is the apex court under which there are High Courts.
4. The High Courts control the district courts and below them are the lower courts. Hence, this structure makes Judiciary in India an integrated system.

Question 2.
The Constitution has made provision for independence of Judiciary.
Answer:
1. The Constitution wants Judiciary to work freely, without any kind of pressure.
2. The independence of the judiciary is maintained so as to enable the judges to fearlessly carry out the function of giving justice.
For this purpose, the Constitution has made provisions for independence of Judiciary.

Question 3.
The Indian judiciary has made a significant contribution in the development of the country.
Answer:

1. The Indian judiciary has always given importance to social values while protecting the Constitution.
2. It has exposed wrong practices like superstitions, discrimination, injustice to weaker sections, etc. and forced the legislature to pass laws against them.
3. It has protected individual freedom, the federal system and the Constitution of India.
4. Common people have a lot of respect and trust in the judicial system.

Thus, the Indian judiciary has made a significant contribution in the development of the country.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What are the eligibility criteria for appointment of Supreme Court judges?
Answer:
The eligibility criteria laid down by the Constitution for appointment of Supreme Court judges are as follows:

1. He/She must be a citizen of India.
2. He/She must be a legal expert.
3. He/She must have served as a High Court judge or as an experienced advocate in the High Court.

Question 2.
Mention the functions of the High Court.
Answer:
The functions of the High Court are as follows:

1. To supervise over the District and other lower courts in its jurisdiction.
2. To maintain control over the functioning of the lower courts.
3. To give orders to protect the fundamental rights of the citizens.
4. To give advice to the governor while appointing judges in the district courts.

Question 3.
Should the Supreme Court have the power of Judicial Review?
Answer:
The Supreme Court must have the power of Judicial Review for following reasons:

1. Protecting the Constitution is the most important responsibility of the Supreme Court.
2. Many a times, laws violating the Constitution are passed under public pressure or for gaining popularity.
3. The Executive may pass laws or frame policies violating the Constitution.
4. Laws violating the fundamental rights of the citizens may be passed which may prove to be harmful for democracy.
5. The power of Judicial Review helps in curbing all anti-constitutional practices and protects and strengthens democracy.
6. It also helps in keeping the Executive under control.

Question 4.
Why does the President seek the advice of the Supreme Court on any issue of public importance? Can you tell?
Answer:

1. Decisions taken on issues of public importance have long-lasting effect on the lives of the people.
2. Such decisions should also be according to the Rule of Law which treats everyone equally.
3. Care has to be taken that such decisions should not violate the Constitution.
4. Since the President is not a legal expert, he has to seek advice of the Supreme Court on any issues of public importance.

8th Std Civics Questions And Answers:

• Introduction to the Parliamentary System Class 8 Civics Questions And Answers
• The Indian Parliament Class 8 Civics Questions And Answers
• The Union Executive Class 8 Civics Questions And Answers
• The Indian Judicial System Class 8 Civics Questions And Answers
• The State Government Class 8 Civics Questions And Answers
• Bureaucracy Class 8 Civics Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Solutions Chapter 2 European Colonialism Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Std 12 History Chapter 2 Question Answer European Colonialism Maharashtra Board

Class 12 History Chapter 2 European Colonialism Question Answer Maharashtra Board

History Class 12 Chapter 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
‘Declaration of Independence was drafted by __________
(a) George Washington
(b) Thomas Jefferson
(c) Lord Amherst
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Answer:
(b) Thomas Jefferson

Question 2.
The second Anglo-Burmese war was fought during the times of __________
(a) Lord Amherst
(b) Lord Dufferin
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Ashley Eden
Answer:
(c) Lord Dalhousie

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. Togoland	German colony
2. Egypt	British colony
3. Orange Free State	Dutch colony
4. Ivory Coast	Portuguese colony

Answer:
Ivory Coast – French colony

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
The region from Florida to California on the southern coast of America was under the control of-
Answer:
Spain

Question 2.
The sea voyages for exploration were encouraged in the reign of-
Answer:
Queen Elizabeth I

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The British wanted to gain control over Myanmar because __________
(a) they wanted to expand their empire
(b) it was very important to control the natural resources and the market in Myanmar
(c) they wanted to be at the forefront of the colonial competition amongst the European nations
(d) they wanted to teach a lesson to King Thibaw of Myanmar
Answer:
(b) it was very important to control the natural resources and the market in Myanmar

3. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

4. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Nature of Colonialism.
Answer:

• Colonialism is the act of a developed nation occupying the land of a less developed, distant nation and establishing its rule on the occupied country. Europeans travelled all over the world with various intentions such as the urge for adventures, to earn a name, to discover unknown lands, to search for gold mines, etc.
• The Europeans established colonies wherever they went and in doing so there was a competition to gain economic, social, and political supremacy among the nations. Extreme nationalism, feeling of racial superiority, industrialization, aggressive approach, etc., are the factors that led to the growth of colonialism.
• Thus, Europeans went to America, Australia, and New Zealand. The Europeans also colonised Asia. However, the climate of Asia did not favour them. Favourable or unfavourable, Europeans disposed of the indigenous people in their own lands.
• The Europeans saw these colonies as potential marketplaces to sell their surplus goods which were accumulated as a result of mass production. The Europeans also needed additional sources that would provide ample raw material.
• In the latter half of the 19th century, England built a flourishing trade as a result of the industrial revolution.

Question 2.
American War of Independence.
Answer:
The colonies got into several battles with the British army even after gaining independence. The colonies finally at Saratoga got a decisive victory over the British army. This victory proved to be a turning point for the colonies as the French agreed to support them in their conflict against the British. Eventually, Spain also joined the conflicts in their struggle for independence.

On 7th October 1780, George Washington defeated the British army. On 19th October, British General Lord Cornwallis surrendered and America became independent. The American revolt for independence is also known as the ‘American Revolution’. America proved to the world that the subjects have a right to fight their rulers who deny them their natural rights.

5. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
The industrial revolution gave momentum to colonialism.
Answer:
Colonialism was a result of the industrial revolution. Production increased enormously because of the new machines. However, the rate of local consumption was much less compared to the surplus rate of production. Hence, the immediate need of the Europeans was to find new markets for selling their products. It was also necessary that these markets be dependable and easy to dominate.

Question 2.
European nations established colonies in America.
Answer:
The stronger European nations dominated the weaker countries by establishing colonies there and pushed them to subjection. The lands of the original inhabitants in America were seized by the Europeans and were also massacred. The original inhabitants were forced into slavery. The Europeans discovered gold mines and the Spanish colonizers brought African slaves to work in sugarcane and tobacco fields. Farming and mining earned them enormous wealth. Essential raw materials were exported to Spain and the finished goods used to be imported for sale in the local markets for the colonies. The trade of gold and silver also earned huge profits for the king. Witnessing Spain’s prosperity England, Holland and France also began to establish colonies in America.

Class 12 History Chapter 2 European Colonialism Intext Questions and Answers

Try to do this. (Textbook Page No. 11)

Locate the following regions under British domination on the map: Gibraltar, Malta in the Mediterranean Sea; British Guyana, British Honduras, British West Indies, Bermuda and Falkland islands in the Western Hemisphere; Aden, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Hongkong, India; also, the countries in Africa.
Answer:

Project (Textbook Page No. 18)

Question 1.
Collect information about the biodiversity and sources of minerals in the African continent.
Answer:
1. Meaning of Biodiversity:
Biodiversity consists of two words ‘Biological’ and ‘Diversity’. It refers to all the variety of life that can be found on earth (plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms) as well as to the communities that they form and the habitats in which they live.

2. Biodiversity in Africa:

• Rich in biodiversity.
• Africa supports the earth’s largest assemblages of large mammals which roam freely in many countries.
• Africa is home to a rich and diverse animal, plant, and marine biodiversity that provide critical ecosystem services.

3. Minerals in Africa:
Africa is rich in mineral reserves and ranks first or second in quantity of world reserves of bauxite, cobalt, industrial diamond, phosphorite, platinum, etc.

12th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Renaissance in Europe and Development of Science Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• European Colonialism Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India and European Colonialism Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Colonialism and the Marathas Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India: Social and Religious Reforms Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Indian Struggle against Colonialism Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Decolonisation to Political Integration of India Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• World Wars and India Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• World: Decolonisation Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Cold War Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India Transformed Part 1 Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India Transformed Part 2 Class 11 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 The Union Executive Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 The Union Executive Questions And Answers Maharashtra Board

The Union Executive Class 8 Questions And Answers Chapter 3 Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 The Union Executive Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and rewrite the statement:

Question 1.
In India, the executive power is vested in the ………………. .
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
Answer:
(a) President

Question 2.
The tenure of the President is of ………… years.
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
Answer:
(c) five

Question 3.
The Council of Ministers is led by the ………………. .
(a) Party Chief
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
Answer:
(b) Prime Minister

2. Find and write:

Question 1.
The President, the Prime Minister, the Council of Ministers are called the ……………. .
Answer:
Executive

Question 2.
During the Parliamentary session, the period around 12 noon is known as ……………… .
Answer:
Zero hour

3. write the following concepts in your own words:

Question 1.
Impeachment procedure:
Answer:

1. The responsibility of protecting the Constitution is shouldered by the President.
2. But, if any act of the President violates the Constitution, the Parliament has the authority to remove him.
3. This process known as process of Impeachment.

The procedure for impeachment is as follows:

1. Anyone House can lay the charge of violation of the Constitution.
2. The investigation of the charge is carried out by the other House.
3. If the resolution is passed by special (2/3rd) majority of both the Houses, the President can be removed from his post.

Question 2.
No-confidence motion:
Answer:

1. In the Parliamentary system of government, the Legislature tries to keep control over the Executive.
2. The Executive stays in power till it enjoys the support of the majority in Lok Sabha.
3. The members of the Lok Sabha can move a No-confidence motion by simply expressing “We do not have confidence in the government”.
4. If the motion is passed with majority support, the Council of Ministers (the Executive) has to resign.
5. Thus, this is the most effective way to keep a check on the Council of Ministers.

Question 3.
Jumbo Ministry:
Answer:

1. A huge Council of Ministers with more than necessary ministers is referred to as Jumbo Ministry.
2. There was a trend to keep large Council of Ministers in our country.
3. Later, a constitutional amendment was made to limit the size of the Council of Ministers.
4. As per this amendment, the number of ministers in the Council should not be more than 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

4. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Enumerate the functions of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The functions of the Council of Ministers are as follows:
1. The Council of Ministers takes initiative in the process of Law-making by drafting the bills/proposals.
2. It introduces and discusses the bills/ proposals in the House.
3. It introduces bills on various subjects like education, agriculture, industry, health, foreign relations, etc. in the Parliament, conducts discussions on them and tries to get them approved by the Parliament.
4. It also takes the responsibility of implementing the policies approved by the Parliament.

Question 2.
How does the Parliament keep a check on the Executive?
Answer:
The Parliament keeps a check on the Executive in the following ways:
1. The bills/proposals presented by the Council of Ministers are discussed in the Parliament.
2. These discussions and debates help the members to scrutinize the bills/ proposals and point out the shortcomings and help in a creation of healthy laws.
3. During Parliamentary sessions, the proceedings of the House begins with questions asked by the members of the House. The concerned Ministers are expected to give satisfactory answers to these questions.
4. During the Parliamentary sessions, the period around 12 noon is called as ‘Zero House’. During this period, any question of public importance can be raised and discussed.
5. The Parliament can pass a No-confidence motion on the Executive. If the motion is passed with majority support, then it has to resign.

5. Complete the concept picture. 

Question 1.

Answer:

Do it:

Find out the text of the oath taken by the President. Understand its meaning with the help of your teachers.

Do you know:

Jumbo Ministry:

1. Earlier, there was a trend to keep large Council of Ministers.
2. Such huge Councils were known as jumbo Ministry’.
3. Later, a constitutional amendment was made to limit the size of the Council of Ministers.
4. As per this amendment, the number of ministers in the council should not be more than 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Can you tell?

What should the members of the Parliament do to participate effectively in debates and discussions?

Understand it :
(The gist of the conversation between Rama and Vidya.)

1. The President is the nominal head and the Prime Minister is the executive head.
2. The Prime Minister meets the President regularly and informs him about the conduct of administration.
3. The President has the right to seek information about new laws and policies framed by the Parliament. from the Prime Minister.

Project:

Question 1.
If you become the Prime Minister what works will you prioritise? Create a priority-wise list and present it in class.

Question 2.
Collect pictures and information of India’s Presidents since independence.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 The Union Executive Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statement:

Question 1.
The ………………. bears the responsibility of protecting the Constitution and ensuring that the government runs as per the Constitution.
(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Vice-President
Answer:
(b) President

Question 2.
The President can be removed if the impeachment resolution is passed by ………………. majority in both the Houses of Parliament.
(a) 1/3rd
(b) 2/3rd
(c) 3/4th
Answer:
(b) 2/3rd

Question 3.
The ………………. is the Commander-in-Chief of the armed forces.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice-President
(c) President
(d) Brigadier
Answer:
(c) President

Question 4.
In case a minister is not a member of the Parliament, he/she has to get elected to the Parliament within ………………. months.
(a) three
(b) six
(c) nine
(d) two
Answer:
(b) six

Question 5.
As per the amendment, the number of minister’s in the council should not be more than ………………. % of the total number of members in Lok Sabha.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 15
(d) 25
Answer:
(c) 15

Question 6.
The Council of Ministers stays in power till it enjoys the support of majority in ………………. .
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Legislative Council
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Lok Sabha

Question 7.
In the absence of the President, ………………. carries out his functions.
(a) Vice-President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
Answer:
(a) Vice-President

Find and write:

Question 1.
The group of Parliamentarians and members of the state legislatures who elect the President ……………… .
Answer:
Electoral college

Question 2.
One who has the right to declare emergency in case of crisis …………… .
Answer:
President

Complete the concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Vice-President:
Answer:

1. The Vice-President is elected by members of both the Houses.
2. The person contesting the election for the post of Vice-President should be a citizen of India and should have completed 35 years of age.
3. He is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha and exercises control over the functioning of Rajya Sabha.
4. In the absence of the President, his functions are carried out by the Vice President.

Question 2.
President:
Answer:

1. The President is the Constitutional Head of India.
2. He is elected by the directly elected representatives of the Central and State legislatures.
3. The person elected to the post of the President has to take an oath while accepting the post.
4. According to the oath, the President bears the responsibility of protecting the Constitution and ensuring that the government runs as per the Constitution.
5. The President governs in accordance with the advice given by the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
6. He has Legislative, Executive, Judicial, Defence and Emergency powers.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The President is the nominal and constitutional Head of India.
Answer:

1. The Constitution has vested all executive powers in the President.
2. The government carries out its functions in the name of the President.
3. However, in reality, the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers run the government.

Hence, the President is the nominal and Constitutional Head of India.

Question 2.
The Council of Ministers has to take the Parliament into confidence while framing policies.
Answer:

1. The Council of Ministers has to decide specific policies on subject like education, agriculture, industry, health, foreign affairs, etc.
2. The Ministers of respective departments have to lay their policy plans in the House and discuss them thoroughly.
3. The policies cannot be implemented without the approval of the Parliament.
4. Also, the Council of Ministers can stay in power till it enjoys the support of the Parliament.
5. Hence, it has to take the Parliament into confidence while framing policies.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
How is the President elected?
Answer:

1. The President is not directly elected by the people of India.
2. The common people do not vote in the election of the President.
3. He is elected by the Electoral College.
4. The Electoral College includes all members/elected representatives of Parliament and the members of the State Legislatures.

Question 2.
How is the Council of Ministers formed?
Answer:

1. The party which attains majority in the Lok Sabha election, nominates its leader as the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is given an oath by the President.
3. The Prime Minister then, chooses his trustworthy and efficient colleagues from within the party to form the Council of Ministers.
4. He gives priority to his colleagues considering their administrative experience, governance skills, efficiency and technical expertise.
5. The President administers oath to all the Council of Ministers. In this way, the Council of Ministers is formed.

Question 3.
State the qualifications necessary for contesting the Presidential election.
Answer:

1. The person contesting the Presidential election should be a citizen of India.
2. He should be 35 years of age.
3. He should also fulfill other conditions mentioned by the Constitution.

Question 4.
Mention the functions of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
The functions of the Prime Minister are as follows:

1. To form the Council of Ministers, selecting trustworthy, experienced and efficient people.
2. To allocate portfolios and chair all the meetings of the Council of Ministers.
3. To lead the Council of Ministers, maintain coordination among various departments, facilitate cooperation among departments and supervise to bring about efficiency and efficacy.
4. To raise the image of the country at international level.
5. To support the people during disasters.

Question 5.
What should the MPs do to enable them to participate effectively in Lok Sabha discussions?
Answer:
For effective participation in Lok Sabha, the MPs have to practise following things:

1. They should come prepared to the Lok Sabha with deep study of the problems of their constituencies and effective solutions to the same.
2. They should thoroughly understand the functioning of the Parliament and express people’s problems in a precise manner, without wasting other’s time.
3. They should be able to criticise the shortcomings and defects in bills/policies effectively.
4. They should be well-versed with the various effective tools, granted by the Constitution, for keeping a check on the Council of Ministers.
5. They should strictly keep away from unparliamentary practices like creating chaos, shouting slogans, tearing papers, being physically aggressive or fighting, etc. as such practices are not helpful in any manner..

8th Std Civics Questions And Answers:

• Introduction to the Parliamentary System Class 8 Civics Questions And Answers
• The Indian Parliament Class 8 Civics Questions And Answers
• The Union Executive Class 8 Civics Questions And Answers
• The Indian Judicial System Class 8 Civics Questions And Answers
• The State Government Class 8 Civics Questions And Answers
• Bureaucracy Class 8 Civics Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Solutions Chapter 6 Indian Struggle against Colonialism Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Std 12 History Chapter 6 Question Answer Indian Struggle against Colonialism Maharashtra Board

Class 12 History Chapter 6 Indian Struggle against Colonialism Question Answer Maharashtra Board

History Class 12 Chapter 6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
The region of __________ had become a stronghold of Hansaji Naik.
(a) Satara
(b) Nanded
(c) Pune
(d) Nagpur
Answer:
(b) Nanded

Question 2.
The British plant owners in Bihar were pressing the local farmers to grow only __________
(a) indigo
(b) tea
(c) coffee
(d) sugarcane
Answer:
(a) indigo

Question 3.
The first session of the Indian National Congress was presided by __________
(a) Dwarkanath Tagore
(b) Vyomeshchandra Banerjee
(c) Dadabhai Nauroji
(d) Surendranath Banerjee
Answer:
(b) Vyomeshchandra Banerjee

1B. Find the incorrect pair from group ‘B’ and write the corrected one.

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1.Kunwar Sinh	Lucknow
2. Nanasaheb Peshwa	Kanpur
3. Queen Lakshmibai	Jhansi
4. Chimasaheb	Kolhapur

Answer:
Kunwar Singh – Patna

2. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
The region of the regime of the parallel government established in 1942 –
Answer:
Satara District

Question 2.
The islands were conquered by Azad Hind Sena from the British in 1943 –
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar Islands

3. Write short notes.

Question 1.
The Extremists.
Answer:

• The Indian National Congress split into two groups-The Moderates and The Extremists at the Surat session of the Congress in 1907.
• The ‘Extremists’ wing of thinkers insisted that independence should be a natural priority. An independent nation could provide the right set-up for social reformation.
• Lokmanya Tilak who was the leader of the Extremists said that the home taken over by others should be recovered first, then only we can reform it.
• He also felt that the British Government will not yield to applications, requests, and speeches.
• The Extremists did not agree with the Moderators’ policy of avoiding the resolutions of ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ and wanted to stop these attempts of the Moderators.
• The three leaders of the Extremists group were Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal. (Lal-Bal-Pal).

Question 2.
Azad Hind Sena.
Answer:

• The Azad Hind Sena was built by Rasbihari Bose by recruiting Indian soldiers and later on was reorganized under the leadership of Subhash Chandra Bose.
• These were the Indian soldiers of the British army who were taken captive by the Japanese army.

Question 3.
Prati Sarkar.
Answer:

• Prati Sarkar or Parallel Government was established by Krantisinha Nana Patil, a revolutionist in the Satara district of Maharashtra.
• He, with the help of his associates, put an end to the British regime in the Satara district and established ‘People’s Government’.
• This government took over the administrative task of collecting revenue, maintaining law and order, solving court cases, and punishing criminals.

4. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Lieutenant Outram was successful in crushing the revolt by the Bhils by the end of 1822.
Answer:

• A revolt of the Bhils in which thousands of Bhils participated was crushed by Lt. Outram.
• However, he also stayed among the Bhils and won their confidence. He tried to bring them into the mainstream of urban life.
• He adopted measures like the declaration of amnesty, land grants, agricultural loans and reprieve from the past crimes, and recruitment in the army to weaken the opposition from the Bhils.

Question 2.
Ravindranath gave up his title (Sir.)
Answer:

• On 13th April 1919, the day of Baisakhi thousands of people had gathered for a meeting at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar for celebrating the festival.
• Many of them were not aware of the ban put by the government on public gatherings.
• Genera Dyer opened fire on these people without any prior warning.
• About four hundred innocent people were killed and thousands were injured in this incident. It is known as the ‘Jallianwala Bagh Massacre’.
• It created a wave of rage all through India.
• Rabindranath Tagore criticized this act and gave up his title (Sir).

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
The rise of colonialism was the result of the spreading of European trade.
Answer:

• The Europeans reached all over the world for several reasons such as the urge for adventures, to earn a name to discover unknown lands, to search for gold mines, etc.
• Later, trade and commerce increased to such a great extent for which there was economic, social, and political supremacy among them.
• The Europeans found potential markets in continents like Asia, America, and Africa where they established their colonies. And the first to do so were the Portuguese.

Question 2.
According to Swatantryaveer Savarkar, the Independence War of 1857 was the First War of Independence.
Answer:

• The revolt of 1857 was a unified and national uprising against the British authority.
• The Indian war of Independence as described in his book ‘1857-The First War of Independence was considered to be the first war where the entire nation irrespective of caste, creed, race, and religion had come together and staged an armed protest against the British to gain independence from their colonial rule.

Class 12 History Chapter 6 Indian Struggle against Colonialism Intext Questions and Answers

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 43)

Collect more information about ‘Kayamdhara’, ‘Ryotwari’, ‘Mahalwari’ land revenue systems and discuss it in the class. Also, discuss the present land system of ‘Anewari’.
Answer:
(A) Kayamdhara or Jamindari:

• This system was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793.
• It was introduced in the provinces of Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, and Varanasi.
• Zamindars were recognized as the owners of the lands.
• Zamindars were given the right to collect rent from the peasants.

(B) Ryotwari:

• The Ryotwari system was a land revenue system in British India introduced by Thomas Munro in 1820 based on a system administered by Captain Alexander Read in the Baramahal district.
• This was practiced in Madras and Bombay areas as well as Assam and Coorg provinces.
• In this system, the peasants or cultivators were regarded as the owners of the land.
• Ryot means peasant cultivator.

(C) Mahalwari system:

• The government of Lord William Bentinck Governor-General of India (1828-1835) introduced the Mahalwari system of land revenue in 1833.
• This system was introduced in N W Frontier, Agra, Gangetic Valley, Central Provinces, Punjab, etc.
• Had elements of both the Zamindari and the Ryotwari systems.
• This system divided the lands into Mahals. Sometimes the Mahals constituted one or more villages.
• The tax was assessed on the Mahal.
• Each individual farmer gave his share.
• Revenue was collected by the village headman or village leaders (Lambardar).

(D) Anewari System:

• Paisewari (originally known as Anewari) is a system of survey used by the government to decide whether a village is drought-hit or not
• Prior to the harvest, the Tehsildar along with farmers and representatives of the agricultural department takes stock of the crop and compares it with the yield of the last ten years
• If the value is less than 50 paise, the village is declared drought-hit, and drought mitigating measures are put in place.

Try to do this: (Textbook Page No. 46)

Vishnubhat Godse from Vasai was in Jhansi in 1857. Get the book, ‘Maza Pravas’ authored by him as the eyewitness of the happenings and read it.
Answer:

• ‘Maza Pravas’ translates into English as “My Travels: The story of 1857 Mutiny” is a Marathi travelogue written by Vishnubhat Godse, who traveled on foot from Varsai, a village near Pen (present-day Maharashtra) to the Central and Northern parts of India during 1857-1858 and witnessed several incidents of what he calls “The Mutiny of 1857” also known as the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
• During his travel, he witnessed the events at Mhow, worked for the Rani of Jhansi for a few months, visited Ayodhya, eventually returning penniless to his village.
• Apart from his encounters with the mutiny he also visited most of the Hindu holy places.

Try to do this: (Textbook Page No. 55)

Collect information and pictures about revolutionaries and freedom fighters from your area and make a presentation.
Answer:
Students should do this activity by themselves

Projects (Textbook Page No. 56)

(a) The Rising Ballad of Mangal Panday
(b) The Legend of Bhagat Singh
(c) Khele Hum Jee Janse
These are some Hindi films. Watch them and verify the historical truth of the incidences shown in it.
Answer:
Students do by themselves

12th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Renaissance in Europe and Development of Science Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• European Colonialism Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India and European Colonialism Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Colonialism and the Marathas Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India: Social and Religious Reforms Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Indian Struggle against Colonialism Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Decolonisation to Political Integration of India Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• World Wars and India Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• World: Decolonisation Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Cold War Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India Transformed Part 1 Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India Transformed Part 2 Class 11 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 History Solutions Chapter 11 India Transformed Part 1 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Std 12 History Chapter 1 Question Answer India Transformed Part 11 Maharashtra Board

Class 12 History Chapter 11 India Transformed Part 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

History Class 12 Chapter 11 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statement.

Question 1.
A legal agreement was signed in Geneva which is known as ____________
(a) SEATO
(b) NATO
(c) GATT
(d) SAARC
Answer:
(c) GATT

Question 2.
An act similar to ‘Right to Information’ was first applied in ____________ in 1776.
(a) Sweden
(b) France
(c) England
(d) India
Answer:
(a) Sweden

Question 3.
The birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda is observed as ____________
(a) National Education Day
(b) National Youth Day
(c) National Integration Day
(d) National Science Day
Answer:
(b) National Youth Day

2A. Write the names of historical places/persons/events.

Question 1.
In 2004, this became the biggest firm in Asia providing software services –
Answer:
Tata Consultancy Services

Question 2.
In 2002, the Metro railway was flagged off –
Answer:
The Delhi Metro Railway

2B. Choose the correct reason from those given below and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
India became member of World Trade Organisation, because ____________
(a) India want to compete with other nations
(b) India cannot stay aloof from the global economy
(c) India adopted the policy of liberalisation
(d) India wanted to be in the leading position at the global level
Answer:
(c) India adopted the policy of liberalisation

3. Complete the following concept map.

Question 1.

Answer:

4. Write short notes.

Question 1.
The Youth Policy of Government of India.
Answer:

• India is a country with a maximum proportion of young people. Individuals in the age group of 15-29 are considered as ‘youth’.
• Youth, if provided with opportunities, for education and skill training, can contribute significantly to the development of India.
• A number of centers of‘Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan’ were established in 1972 for the training of young people in various skills.
• The programmes run by these centers were eventually merged in the ‘National Youth Empowerment Programme’. This programme put a thrust on topics like literacy, education, health and hygiene, family welfare, preservation and conservation of the environment, awareness of social issues, rural development, and self-employment.
• 12th January the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekanand is celebrated as ‘National Youth Day. National Youth Festival is also celebrated in the month of January. This festival is designed to provide a platform for the artistic talents of young individuals.
• ‘Youth Hostels Association of India’ has established youth hostels in various parts of the country which works for encouraging adventure skills among young people.
• Training programmes are arranged by this association through ‘Bharat Scout and Guides, National Service Scheme and National Cadet Corps’.

Question 2.
‘Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana’.
Answer:

• The Government of India knows the importance of having roads in good condition in the interior areas started ‘Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana’ in 2000.
• Initially, the work of building roads began by linking the villages of population strength up to 1000. In 2001 this programme was merged in ‘Pradhan Mantri Gramoday Yojana’.
• The roads measuring about 75000 km. were completed till 2005. The purpose of this work was to extend the benefits of the country’s economic growth to people living in rural areas and to bring transformation in their lives.
• It aimed at providing amenities for good health, education, drinking water, dwellings, roads, and electricity.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
India is a leading country in the field of space research.
Answer:

• In 2007, India entered a new field of space research. It commercially launched the Italian satellite.
• Other countries had submitted tenders quoting very high rates, to get this contract. However, India got this contract by quoting reasonable rates.
• Before entering this field on a commercial basis, India had already successfully launched the satellite of Argentina, Belgium, South Korea, Indonesia, and Germany.
• In 2008, India launched ‘Chandrayaan-1’, the first lunar probe. India could collect evidence for the presence of water on the moon through this satellite.
• After that India also launched ‘Chandrayaan-2’ and ‘Mangalyaan’.
• All these achievements proved that India is a leading country in the field of space research.

6. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Which programmes were launched in India for making the opportunities of wage-earning?
Answer:
Creating employment opportunities for an ever-increasing population is a major challenge for the government. There are several programmes launched by the government of India for wage earners.
These programs are as follows:

• Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Yojana and ‘Rojgar Hami Yojana’: To create job opportunities for educated youth the ‘Ministry of Commerce and Industry of the Government of India started this plan on 2nd October 1993 on the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
• Rojgar Hami Yojana was to assure daily wages to the unemployed agricultural labourers. The objective of this plan was to provide wage-earning opportunity, who was in search. This programme was launched in 257 districts in India. A goal was to provide work to two young laborers in each family below the poverty line. In 2001, this plan was merged in ‘Gramin Rojgar Yojana’.
• In 1998, to provide support to farmers in difficult times “Kisan Credit Card” plan was started. It helps the farmer to avail funds for essential equipments and seeds for cultivation. Later, an insurance facility was also offered to farmers, who were Kisan Credit Card holders.
• Suvarnajayanti Gramin Svayam Rojgar Yojana: This plan was launched in 1999 by merging various plans together namely ‘Ekatmik Gramin Vikas Yojana’, Self-employment training programmes, ‘Ganga Kalyan Yojana’ etc.
• Jawahar Gram Samruddhi Yojana: In 1999, a new plan was implemented with the intention to provide adequate employment for unemployed men and women. It was merged in ‘Sampoorna Gramin Rojgar Yojana’ in 2001.
• Sampoorna Gramin Rojgar Yojana: This plan made provision for creating opportunities in rural areas of earning wages, to provide food grains in exchange for work, etc. This scheme was started in 150 economically backward districts in the country. In 2006, this scheme was merged in ‘Rashtriya Gramin Rojgar Hami Yojana’.
• Rashtriya Gramin Rojgar Hami Yojana: Under this scheme, each family in rural areas were given assurance of at least 100 days of work.

7. Answer the following question with the help of the given points.

Question 1.
Give information about the ‘Right to Information Act.
(a) Background of the act and the beginning of this movement in India.
(b) Definition of ‘Information’.
(c) The rights of citizens under this act.
Answer:
(a) Background of the act and the beginning of this movement in India:

• This kind of Act was first implemented in Sweden in 1776. In 1946, ‘United Nations’ declared the ‘Right to Information to be the fundamental human right.
• In 1982, L.K. Kulwant, a resident of Jaipur in Rajasthan, a social activist initiated the process by applying to know the Jaipur Municipal Corporation’s work for cleaning the city.
• The High Court gave a clear verdict stating that ‘Right to Information is a fundamental right of all citizens.
• In 1990, Aruna Roy started the movement called ‘Majdoor Kisan Shakti Sanghatan’. A need for ‘Right to Information was started through this movement.
• Harsh Mander, the Divisional Commissioner of Bilaspur showed courage to disclose official information while serving as a bureaucrat.
• The struggle of Anna Hazare in 2001, had a decisive role in Maharashtra in this matter. The Act was implemented in Maharashtra on 12th October 2005.

(b) Definition of ‘Information’:
The definition of term ‘Information’ includes official records, documents, memoranda, emails, comments, consultations, press notes, circulars, orders, logbooks, tenders, reports, correspondence, formats, models, electronic data, the information of a private institution or an individual that is available in the records of any public establishment.

(c) The rights of citizens under this act:

• Right to information grants access to official documents, records, permission to obtain their copies, to take notes, to extract passages, to get samples of authorised material and prints of data stored in CDs, Floppy discs, tapes, video cassettes, or in any other form, or stored on computers.
• Citizens can get the desired information after submitting an application to the ‘Information officer’ of a ‘Public Authority.

Class 12 History Chapter 11 India Transformed Part 1 Intext Questions and Answers

Collect information of following schemes: (Textbook Page No. 92)

National Pension Scheme, Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Vima Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Vima Yojana, Atal Pension Yojana, Indian Post Payments Bank.
Answer:
(A) National Pension Scheme:

• The National Pension Scheme is a voluntary contribution of the pension system in India which is sponsored by the government of India.
• This scheme was started by the Government of India in 2004 for all government employees.
• The scheme was made open to all citizens in 2009. It is a voluntary and long-term retirement scheme. It is regulated by Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) and the central government.
• Any employee from the public, private, and even the unorganized sectors can opt for this.
• Personnel from the armed forces are not allowed. The scheme is open to all across industries and locations.

(B) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Vima Yojana:

• The scheme is available to people in the age group 18 to 70 years with a bank account who give their consent to join/enable auto-debit on or before 31st May for the coverage period 1st June to 31st May on an annual renewal basis.
• Aadhar would be the primary KYC for the bank account. The risk coverage under the scheme is ₹ 2 lakh for accidental death and full disability and ₹ 1 lakh for partial disability.
• The premium of 112 per annum is to be deducted from the account holder’s bank account through ‘auto-debit facility in one installment.

(C) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Vima Yojana:

• Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Vima Yojana is available to people between 18 and 50 years of age with a bank account.
• This scheme was launched on 9th May 2015 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Kolkata.
• It has an annual premium of ₹ 330. In case of death due to any cause, the payment to the nominee will be ₹ 2 lakh.
• As of 31st March 2019, 5.92 crore people have already enrolled for this scheme.

(D) Atal Pension Yojana:

• Atal Pension Yojana is a pension scheme under the Government of India.
• This scheme replaces the Swavalamban Yojana and was established to provide old age income security to the workers belonging to the unorganized sector.
• The Atal Pension Yojana was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 9th May 2015 in Kolkata.
• The scheme focuses on encouraging workers of the unorganized sectors to save for their future (Age limit 18-40 years).

(E) Indian Postal Payments Bank :

• The Indian Postal Payment Bank was launched on September 1, 2018, by Prime Minister Narendra Modi that aims at making banking services available at people’s doorstep.
• This is a 100% Government-owned public sector bank, operating with the Department of Posts under the Ministry of Communications.
• IPPB would be like any other bank but it will operate at a smaller scale without involving any credit risks and can’t issue advance loans or issue credit cards.

Let us know: (Textbook Page No. 92)

Collect information with the help of the internet about the ‘Rafi Ahmad Kidwai National Postal Academy (Gaziabad).

Answer:

• Rafi Ahmad Kidwai National Postal Academy, recently called Postal Staff College India (PSCI) is the apex training institution of Indian postal services.
• It was set up in the year 1977. Initially, the college functioned from Sanchar Bhavan and later from Dak Bhavan in Delhi.
• It was shifted to its present location in Gaziabad in the year 1990. It is a central training institute and has the primary role of training and grooming the young officers who get recruited to the Indian Postal Service.
• It also conducts various in-service training programmes on postal management for Postal Service officers in India and other foreign postal administrations.
• Its goal is to make the officers of the department of posts professionally competent to handle the ever-changing communication market.
• Training Program:
  • Advanced Development Program
  • Executive Development Program
  • Technology Management Program
  • Postal Life Insurance
  • Leadership Development for postmasters and mangers
  • Quality Management

Let us collect information (Textbook Page No. 92)

Collect information about various services like ‘Sarvabhaum Suvarn Rokhe’ (Gold Bonds issued by the Government), ‘Electronic Indian Postal Order’, ‘E-Dakghar’, ‘E-Payment Portal’, ‘Mobile App’ etc. by interviewing the Postmaster of any branch.
Answer:
(A) Sarvabhaum Suvarn Rokhe:

• This scheme was launched by Government in November 2015, under Gold Monetisation Scheme. The issues are made open for subscription in tranches by RBI in consultation with GOI.
• As per RBI instructions, every application must be accompanied by the PAN number issued by the income tax department to the investors as the PAN number of the first/ sole applicant is mandatory.
• SGBs are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are substitutes for holding physical gold. Investors have to pay the issue price in cash and the bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity. The bond is issued by Reserve Bank on behalf of the government of India.
• The SGB offers a superior alternative to holding gold in physical form. The quantity of gold for which the investor pays is protected since he receives the ongoing market price at the time of redemption /premature redemption.

(B) Electronic Indian Postal Order:

• The Department of Personnel and Training and Department of Posts have launched a service called e-IPO (Electronic Indian Postal Order) to enable the Indian citizens abroad to purchase an Indian Postal Order electronically by paying fee on-line through the e-post Office portal i.e., http://www.epostoffice.gov.in.
• It also facilitates them to file the Right to Information (RTI) application. Registration is mandatory to avail of this facility. Options for new account creation, user verification, search e-IPO, etc are available.

(C) e-Payment portal:

• e-Payment is a smart option for businesses and organizations to collect their bills or other payments through post office networks.
• When businesses require the collection of bills and other payments from customers across the country, Post offers them a simple and convenient solution in the form of e-payment.
• e-Payment is a many-to-one solution that allows the collection of money (telephone bills, electricity bills, examination fees, taxes, university fees, school fees, etc) on behalf of any organization. The collection is consolidated electronically using web-based software and payment is made centrally through cheque from a specified Post Office of billers choice.
• The information and MIS regarding the payment can be seen by the biller online. The MIS will contain the five fields of billers choice like name, telephone number, application number, etc. The services are currently available through more than 14,000 Post offices across the country.
• There is an agency in the market today with a large reach and establishing trust as the Post Office where the public can comfortably deposit all their bills in their neighbourhood.

(D) e-Dak Ghar:
The e-Post Office of India post offers a variety of online Postal services to the users. One can avail services-philately (purchase of stamps), PLI/RPLI (payment of the premium), and IPO (purchase order for RTI).

(E) Mobile app:

• The IPPB app is available on both Android and iOS platforms. This app, however, can only be used by those individuals who have an account in a core banking-enabled post office. KYC of the account should also be completed in advance.
• Internet banking and mobile banking services should also be completed in advance.
• Using the mobile app, account holders can also view account balances and statements, transfer funds, request a checkbook, stop payment on a cheque, use sweep-in-sweep-out facilities, and pay utility bills.

Project (Textbook Page No. 98)

Collect information about the States of India and Union Territories, as well as the names of their capital cities, with the help of the internet.
Answer:
The states of India and its capitals are as follows:

States	Capital
1. Andhra Pradesh	Hyderabad
2. Arunachal Pradesh	Itanagar
3. Assam	Dispur
4. Bihar	Patna
5. Chhattisgarh	Raipur
6. Goa	Panaji
7. Gujrat	Gandhinagar
8. Haryana	Chandigarh
9. Himachal Pradesh	Shimla
10. Jharkhand	Ranchi
11. Karnataka	Bengaluru
12. Kerala	Thiruvananthapuram
13. Madhya Pradesh	Bhopal
14. Maharashtra	Mumbai
15. Manipur	Imphal
16. Meghalaya	Shillong
17. Mizoram	Aizawl
18. Nagaland	Kohima
19. Odisha	Bhubaneswar
20. Punjab	Chandigarh
21. Rajasthan	Jaipur
22. Sikkim	Gangtok
23. Telangana	Hyderabad
24. Tamil Nadu	Chennai
25. Tripura	Agartala
26. Uttar Pradesh	Lucknow
27. West Bengal	Kolkata
28. Uttarakhand	Dehradun

Union Territories and its Capitals:

Union Territories	Capitals
1. Anadaman and Nicobar Island	Port Blair
2. Chandigarh	Chandigarh
3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu	Daman
4. Delhi	New Delhi
5. Lakshadweep	Kavaratti
6. Puducherry	Pondicherry
7. Ladakh	Leh (summer), Kargil (winter)
8. Jammu and Kashmir	Srinagar (summer) Jammu (winter)

12th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Renaissance in Europe and Development of Science Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• European Colonialism Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India and European Colonialism Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Colonialism and the Marathas Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India: Social and Religious Reforms Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Indian Struggle against Colonialism Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Decolonisation to Political Integration of India Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• World Wars and India Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• World: Decolonisation Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• Cold War Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India Transformed Part 1 Class 11 History Questions And Answers
• India Transformed Part 2 Class 11 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Soils Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 7 Question Answer Soils Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Soils Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Soils Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Complete the following table.

Factor/Process	Role in the formation of soil
(1) Parent rock	…………….
(2) Regional climate	……………
(3) Organic material	…………..
(4) Micro­organisms	……………..

Answer:

Factor/Process	Role in the formation of soil
(1) Parent rock	The rock gets weathered depending on the hardness of the rock and the climate of the region. It turns into powdery material which further turns into soil.
(2) Regional climate	When the rock is exposed to a different climates, the same type of rock gives rise to different types of soil.
(3) Organic material	The organic material gets mixed into weathered powdery material and turn it into soil.
(4) Micro­organisms	Microorganisms help in decomposing the dead remains of organic materials and get mixed into the soil to form humus.

2. Why do the following occur?

Question 1.
To the west of Sahyadris, laterite soils are formed from the basalt rock.
Answer:

• Laterite soils are formed in regions of heavy rainfall.
• The climate of western Sahyadris is hot & humid.
• This leads to leaching of basalt rocks due to which there is formation of laterite soils.

Question 2.
Humus content in the soil increases.
Answer:

• Microorganisms and certain other organism help in decomposing the dead remains of organic materials.
• The biotic material thus produced is called humus.
• If organic manures, vermicompost compost are used regularly, the humus content in the soil increases.

Question 3.
Soil formation process is faster in the equatorial climate.
Answer:

• In the region of high rainfall and higher temperature the process of soil formation is faster.
• Equatorial climatic region have high temperature and receive high rainfall.
• Thus soil formation process is faster in the equatorial region.

Question 4.
The salinity of the soil increases.
Answer:

• Due to excessive irrigation, the salts from the soil are drawn upwards.
• This increases the salinity of the soil.

Question 5.
Rice is the staple diet of the people from Konkan.
Answer:

• Hot & humid climate, heavy rainfall & fertile alluvial soil are favourable for rice cultivation.
• This soil has good water holding capacity. Since these conditions are found in the konkan region, rice is grown on a large scale here.
• So rice is the staple diet of the people from Konkan.

3. Give information on:

Question 1.
Measures of soil conservation
Answer:
The following are the measures of soil conservation:

(i) Afforestation / Planting trees: Planting trees can control the velocity of wind. This helps reducing erosion by wind. The plant roots hold the soil and also reduces the erosion of soil.

(ii) Continuous contour trenches: Construction of continuous contour trenches at different height checks the velocity of water running along the slopes & hence reduces soil erosion. The water arrested in these trenches percolates into the ground.

(iii) Implementation of watershed Development program: The Government of Maharashtra has implemented the watershed development programme under which constructing embankment along slopes in rural areas, introducing CCTs along steep slopes etc. are undertaken. This led to the success of the scheme ‘Arrest water, let it percolate’. This has resulted in raising the ground water levels & reducing the erosion of soil.

(iv) Implementation of Jalayukt Shivar: Under the scheme of Jalayukt Shivar, works like construction of farm bunds, arresting waters of small streams, connecting the streams etc. are being carried out on a large scale.

Question 2.
Organic Manures.
Answer:
(i) Organic manures in farming, helps to maintain the pH balance.
(ii) It also increases the proportion of humus, and retain the fertility of soil.

Question 3.
Place where you will get the information about the suitability of a soil for a particular crop.
Answer:
(i) The information about the suitability of a soil can be obtained from Department of Agriculture of Government of Maharashtra, Natural Resource conservation services, soil testing laboratories in various states and at many agricultural universities.

(ii) The type of soil, soil fertility, pH status of the soil, etc. are determined in soil testing.

(iii) Based on the testing, an analysis of the soil is done & information about the suitability of a soil for a particular crop is provided.

Question 4.
Importance of soils for plant growth.
Answer:
(i) Soil is important for plant as it hold roots that provide support for plants and stores nutrient for the growth of plants.
(ii) Fertile soils favour plant growth.

4. Complete the following table with reference to soil.

Action	Effect	Result (W.R.T. fertility)
Construction of embankments.
	Wind speed decreased.
Farm land is kept fallow for some period.	Helps to maintain the pH balance and increase the proportion of humus.	Increases the fertility of soil.
Regular use of organic manures, vermicompost and compost.
	Check the velocity of water running along the slopes.
Litter is burnt in the farm.
Decomposed vegetal litters, roots of plants and remains of animals.
	Salt content in the soil increases.
	Leads to the lowering of humus content in the soil.

Answer:

Action	Effect	Result (W.R.T. fertility)
Construction of embankments.	Protects soil from being washed away.	Protects fertility of soil.
Planting trees.	Wind speed decreased.	Protects fertility of soil
Farm land is kept fallow for some period.	Helps to maintain the pH balance and increase the proportion of humus.	Increases the fertility of soil.
Regular use of organic manures, vermicompost[1] and compost.	Humus content increased.	Increases the fertility of soil.
Trenches are dug across a slope.	Check the velocity of water running along the slopes.	Protects fertility of soil
Litter is burnt in the farm.	Decreases the amount of organic material in soil.	Decreases the fertility of soil.
Decomposed vegetal litters, roots of plants and remains of animals.	Proves favourable for micro organism.	Increases the fertility of soil.
Excessive Irrigation	Salt content in the soil increases.	Decreases the fertility of soil
Chemical fertilizers used excessively.	Leads to the lowering of humus content in the soil.	Decreases the fertility of soil

Activity:

1. Visit a soil testing centre/laboratory and note the work that is carried out in the centre.
2. Prepare compost at home or in your housing society.
3. Visit a place where ‘Arrest water, let it percolate’ is being implemented. Collect information about it and make a note of it.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Soils InText Questions and Answers

Think about it:

Question 1.
Rohit and Prateeksha noted that their field had yielded a bumper crop. But they also noted that a part of their field had a stunted growth of plants. What investigation will you suggest to them?
Answer:
I would suggest that they should check whether organic manures, are used evenly on all the parts of the field. Also, they should check whether that part of the field is getting adequate supply of water or not.

Question 2.
Why do equatorial regions have fertile soils?
Answer:
The sun rays are perpendicular in equatorial
regions so the climate is very hot and humid. This region also receives very heavy rainfall. As the process of soil formation is faster in these regions, equatorial regions have fertile soil. Also vegetal litter roots of plants, remains of animals, etc.; get decomposed adding to soil fertility.

Question 3.
Why is the vegetation sparse in deserts?
Answer:
A desert is a barren area of land where a little precipitation occurs and consequently living conditions for plant and animal life are very hostile. It is an area where the soils are not fertile & hence vegetation is scanty.

Try this:

• Take three flower pots of the same size.
• Keep one pot empty. Fill the second pot. With water after closing the hole at the bottom and fill the third pot with soil.
• Put a few seeds in all of them. (You may use aserio, peas, gram, fenugreek, wheat, green gram, coriander seeds, etc.)
• Keep all the three pots in the sun. and water the empty pot and the soil-filled pot for 4-5 days. Observe and answer the following.

Question 1.
What happened to the seeds put in the empty pot and pot filled with water?
Answer:
Seeds in the empty pot and the pot filled with water did not germinate and did not show any sign of growth.

Question 2.
What happened to the seeds put in the pot (c) filled with soil?
Answer:
Seeds germinated and we could see some small twigs branching out.

Question 3.
What do you learn from this?
Answer:
We learn that plants need sunlight, water and soil to grow.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Soils Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_____ rock in a region is an important factor in soil. (Parent, Basalt, Granite)
Answer:
Parent

Question 2.
The process of weathering depends on the _____ of the region. (climate, weather, soil)
Answer:
climate

Question 3.
The _____ rock of the Deccan Plateau in Maharashtra turns into black soil after weathering. (granite, basalt, parent)
Answer:
basalt

Question 4.
______ soils along the river beds give higher yields. (Infertile, Fertile, Coarse)
Answer:
Fertile

Question 5.
The _____ material comes from the decomposition of the remains of the plants and animals in that region. (biotic1, abiotic, pH)
Answer:
biotic1

Question 6.
______ is a complete ecosystem.(Soil, Humus, weathered rocks)
Answer:
Soil

Question 7.
Food crops like jowar and bajra are produced in the _____ soils of Maharashtra Plateau. (regur, coarse, laterite)
Answer:
regur

Question 8.
The local agriculture produce determines the _______ diet of the people. (staple, supplementary, secondary)
Answer:
staple

Question 9.
The proportion of humus is negligible in _____ soil. (coarse, black, laterite)
Answer:
coarse

Question 10.
Planting trees can also control the _____ of the wind. (velocity, direction, temperature)
Answer:
velocity

Question 11.
Rocks like granite or gneiss in South India give rise to ____ soil. (black, red, regur)
Answer:
red

Question 12.
In the humid climate of western Sahyadris the leaching of basalt rocks leads to formation of ___ soil. (black, lateritic, red)
Answer:
lateritic

Question 13.
The excessive spraying of chemicals and use of chemical fertilizers lead to ______; (soil degradation soil fertility, soil powder)
Answer:
soil degradation

Complete the following sentences:

Question 1.
The biotic material comes from _____.
Answer:
the decomposition of the remains of the plants and animals in that region

Question 2
Microorganisms ajnd certain other organisms help decompose the dead remains of ______.
Answer:
organic materials

Question 3.
Production of compost needs sufficient period of time and ______.
Answer:
elements like organic waste, water, heat, etc.

Question 4.
In the region of high rainfall and higher temperatures, _____.
Answer:
the process of soil formation is faster

Question 5.
In regions of low temperatures and low rainfall the _____.
Answer:
soil formation takes more time

Question 6.
High use of chemical fertilizers, insecticides _____.
Answer:
leads to the degradation of soils

Question 7.
In the areas where the soil is not fertile, _______.
Answer:
egetation is scanty

Question 8.
When man realized that sowing of seeds in the soil leads to the growth of plants and yields crops, ______.
Answer:
he started using soil as a resource

Question 9.
Excessive irrigation draws the salts from the soil upwards and ______.
Answer:
makes the soil saline and then unproductive

Question 10.
Keeping the farmland fallow for some period and cultivating different crops alternatively is important ________.
Answer:
to help retain the fertility of soils.

Give one word for the following:

Question 1.
Soil formed due to weathering of basalt rock.
Answer:
Black soil

Question 2
Soil formed due to the leaching of the basalt rock.
Answer:
Lateritic soil

Question 3.
Biotic material mixed into the soils.
Answer:
Humus

Question 4.
The excessive spraying of chemicals and use of chemical fertilizers.
Answer:
Soil degradation

Question 5.
The govt, scheme, work like construction of farm bunds, arresting waters of small streams, etc.
Answer:
Jalayukt Shivar.

Who am I?

Question 1.
I am a very important rock factor in soil formation.
Answer:
Parent rock

Question 2
I form due to weathering of basalt rock. Jowar and Bajra mostly grow on this soil.
Answer:
Regur soil / Black soil

Question 3.
I am found in the hilltops of the western part of the Deccan plateau.
Answer:
Coarse soil

Question 4.
I am black in colour and have less organic components.
Answer:
Regur or Black soil

Question 5.
I am orange in colour and mostly found in the coastal belt of Konkan.
Laterite soil

Question 6.
I am found at the mouth of the river in the western coastal strip.
Answer:
Alluvial soil of the coastal strip

Question 7.
I am mainly found in areas of extreme rainfall but not very useful for agriculture.
Answer:
Yellow brown soil

Question 8.
I am a method of soil conservation which controls the velocity of wind.
Answer:
Afforestation / planting trees

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
(1) Coarse soil	(a) Alluvium deposition
(2) Regur soil	(b) Eastern part of Bhandara
(3) Laterite soil	(c) Ajanta, Balaghat, Mahaden hills
(4) Alluvial soil	(d) Coastal belt of konkan
(5) Yellow-brown soil	(e) Weathering of basalt rock

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – d
4 – a
5 – b

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
What do you mean by ‘Soil’?
Answer:
(i) The uppermost layer of the earth’s crust is called ‘Soil’.
(ii) It contains the organic as well as mineral matter necessary for the growth of plants.

Question 2
What are the factors necessary for the soil formation?
Answer:
Soil is formed by:

• Weathering of the parent rock material.
• Climatic conditions of the region.
• The decomposition of plant remains.
• Animal manures and dead animals.
• Very long period of time.

Question 3.
What is leaching ?
Answer:
(i) Leaching is a process is which the salts & other soluble material are washed out of the rock through percolation of water.
(ii) This process is dominant in the areas of high rainfall & humid climate.

Question 4.
What is Humus?
Answer:
(i) The decaying of organic material such as dead leaves, stems, root of the plant, vegetal litters, decomposed remains of animals get mixed into the soil.
(ii) This results in the formation of “Humus” thus retaining the fertility of soil.
(iii) If the proportion of humus in the soil is greater, the soil becomes fertile.

Question 5.
What leads to the degradation of soils?
Answer:
(i) For getting higher production, different types of chemical fertilizers, insecticides are used profusely.
(ii) This leads to the degradation of soils.

Question 6.
What led to record agricultural production?
Ans,
(i) To get richer harvests man made efforts to increase the fertility of soils.
(ii) In the process, use of different fertilizers became a practice which led to record agricultural production.

Question 7.
What is soil erosion?
Answer:
(i) When a layer of soil (top layer of soil) get removed due to wind or water it is called soil erosion.
(ii) Running water, climate and diversity in physiography are the reasons of soil erosion.

Question 8.
What helps to maintain the pH balance of the soil?
Answer:
(i) Organic manures, vermicompost, compost are used regularly.
(ii) It helps in maintaining the pH balance and retaining the fertility of the soil.

Why do the following occur:

Question 1.
Rice is the staple diet of the people from Konkan.
Answer:
(i) Hot & humid climate, heavy rainfall & fertile alluvial soil are favourable for rice cultivation.
(ii) This soil has good water holding capacity. Since these conditions are found in the konkan region, rice is grown on a large scale here.
(iii) So rice is the staple diet of the people from Konkan.

Question 2.
Soil Erosion.
(i) A layer of soil gets removed due to wind or water.
(ii) Running water, climate and diversity in physiography are the reasons of soil erosion.

Question 3.
Soil degradation.
Answer:
(i) To obtain a higher agricultural yield, chemical fertilizers, insecticides, weedicides, etc. are used.
(ii) The excessive spraying of chemicals and use of chemical fertilizers leads to soil degradation.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Planting trees is necessary to conserve the soil.
Answer:
(i) A layer of soil gets removed due to wind or water which leads to soil erosion.
(ii) Planting trees controls the velocity of the wind, thus reducing the erosion of soil by wind.
(iii) The roots of the plants hold the soil which also prevents soil erosion.

Question 2
Continuous contour trenches are constructed along the slopes.
Answer:
(i) Construction of continuous contour trenches (CCTs) at different heights checks the velocity of water running along the slopes.
(ii) This reduces soil erosion.

Question 3.
It is advisable to use organic manures, vermicompost and compost regularly.
Answer:
(i) Use of organic manures, vermicompost, compost helps maintain the pH balance.
(ii) It also increases the proportion of humus thus retaining the fertility of soil.
(iii) Hence, it is advisable to use organic manures, vermicompost & compost regularly.

Question 4.
There emerged competition among the people to discover fertile lands and settle there.
Answer:
(i) Man started producing greater amount of food crops for the growing population.
(ii) He realized that crop production and prosperity in agriculture depends on the fertility of soil and the optimum availability of water.
Hence, there emerged competition among the people to discover fertile lands & settle there.

Question 5.
There was a rise of Indus civilization.
Answer:
(i) When man realized that the fertile soils along the river beds give higher yields.
(ii) He settled in the valleys and started living there in groups.
(iii) This led to the rise of Indus civilization.

Question 6.
Countries like Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman, etc., fulfil their requirements by importing food from other countries.
Answer:
(i) In countries like Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman etc. the soils are not arable so there is need to fulfil their food requirement.
(ii) Hence, countries like Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman import food from other countries.

Question 7.
Lets find the names of the soils we have learnt and which regions they are found?
Answer:

Soils	Answers	Regions
(1) RUGER	Regur	(a) Western part of Deccan Plateau and eastern part of Vidarbha.
(2) LUILALVA	Alluvial	(b) Panvel, Uran Coast, Dharamtar creek.
(3) OARCSE	Coarse	(c) Ajanta, Balaghat and Mahadeo hills.
(4) AEILTRITE	Laterite	(d) Coastal belt of Konkan, West of Sahyadris and East of Vidarbha.

Make Friends with maps!
Observe the map given below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which soil occupies most of the areas in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Black (Regur) soil occupies most of the areas in Maharashtra.

Question 2
In which areas are laterite soils found?
Answer:
Laterite soil is found in Raigad, Ratnagiri,Sindhudurg and some parts of Gadchiroli and Nashik.

Question 3.
Which soil is found in parts of the Sahyadri ranges?
Answer:
Yellow Brown soil is found in parts of the Sahyadri ranges.

Question 4.
In which region is alluvial soil found?
Answer:
Alluvial soil is found in Mumbai Suburban District, Mumbai city district some parts of Thane & Palghar district.

Question 5.
Which soil is found in the river valleys of Maharashtra?
Answer:
Fertile Alluvial Soil is found in the river valleys of Maharashtra.

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Tides Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 3 Question Answer Tides Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Tides Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Prepare a chain by matching the following:

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’	Group ‘C’
(1) Waves	(a) 8th phase of the moon (Quarter)	(i) Objects get thrown towards the outer side.
(2) Centrifugal force	(b) Newmoon day	(ii) Highest high tide occurs on this day.
(3) Gravitational force	(c) Rotation of the earth	(iii) These are also generated due to earthquakes and volcanoes.
(4) Spring Tide	(d) The moon, the sun and the earth	(iv) The forces of the sun and the moon operate in different directions.
(5) Neap tide	(e) Wind	(v) Operates in the direction towards the centre of the earth.

Answer:

1 – e – iii
2 – c – i
3 – d – v
4 – b – ii
5 – a – iv

2. Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Tides are influenced more by the moon than the sun.
Answer:

• The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth is one of the factor responsible for occurrence of tides.
• But compared to the sun, the moon is closer to the earth.
• Due to this the gravitational force of the moon becomes more effective than that of the sun.
• Therefore, tides are influenced more by the moon than the sun.

Question 2.
At some places along the coast, the low lying areas turn into lagoons or marshy lands.
Answer:
(i) Generally the areas along the sea coast are low lying and get flooded easily by the sea water during high tide.

(ii) This leads to accumulation of sea water over a long period of time leading to formation of swamps & marshes.

(iii) The tides help in maintaining the mangroves and the coastal biodiversity here.

(iv) Certain areas near the sea coast being low lying & waters being shallow also lead to sediment deposition by sea waves leading to formation of lagoons.

(v) In this way, at some places along the coast, the low lying areas turn into lagoons or marshy lands.

Question 3.
Place located on the opposite meridian experiencing high or low tide will also experience high or low tide respectively.
Answer:
(i) The gravitational force of moon, the sun & the earth and the centrifugal force generated due to the rotation of the earth are two major factors responsible for the occurrence of tides.

(ii) When a place (meridian) faces the moon the gravitational force of the moon exceeds the centrifugal force of the earth leading to high tide here as the water is pulled towards the moon.

(iii) At the same time the place on the earth located at the opposite meridian to the place experiencing high tide, the centrifugal force of the earth exceeds the gravitational force of the moon. Thus, the water is pulled in the direction away from the moon leading to high tide.

(iv) The water required for the high tide moves in from places that are at right angles to those having high tides causing a low tide at those places.

(v) Thus, place located on the opposite meridian to the place experiencing high or low tide will also experience high or low tide respectively.

3. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
If there is high tide at 7 am, find the timings of the next high and low tides on the same day at a given place.
Answer:

• There is high tide & low tide twice a day i.e. in 24 hours.
• One cycle of high tide & low tide is completed after every 12 hours & 25 minutes.
• If there is a high tide at 7 am, the next low tide will be at 1.12 pm (after 6 hrs & 12 min.) & the next high tide will be at 7.25 pm (after 12 hrs & 25 min.)

Question 2.
If at Mumbai (73° E meridian), there is high tide at 1.00 pm on Thursday, then on which other meridian will there be a high tide too? State with reasons.
Answer:
The other meridian which will experience high tide will be 107°W (180°-73°) because it is exactly 180° opposite from 73°E.

Question 3.
Explain the reasons for the generation of waves.
Answer:

• The main reason of wave generation is the force of the wind i.e. water appears to be moving.
• But at times waves get generated due to earthquake or volcanic eruptions occurring below the floor of the sea.
• Large or small waves are formed continuously at the surface of the sea.
• Generation of waves is a natural and regular phenomenon.

4. In what way will the following depend on the tides:

Question 1.
Swimming:
Answer:
A lack of an understanding of the timings of high and low tides may cause accidents to swimmers entering the sea.

Question 2.
Steering a ship:
Answer:
Ships can move up to the ports during high tide.

Question 3.
Fishing:
Answer:
With the high tide, fish moves into the creeks and this helps the fishing activity.

Question 4.
Salt Pans:
Answer:
During high tide, seawater can be stored in salt pans from which salt can be obtained.

Question 5.
Going to coastal areas for trips:
Answer:
Plan for going to trips after full moon or new moon day. Also one must have details about the timings of the tides for better enjoyment.

5. Observe figure of neap tide and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which phase of the moon does it show?
Answer:
The diagram shows the phase of the quarter moon.

Question 2.
What are the relative positions of the moon, the sun and the earth?
Answer:
The moon, the earth and the sun make an angle of 90° (right angle)

Question 3.
What effect will it have on the tides?
Answer:
It will lead to neap tide. Due to such conditions during high tide the water level will rise less than usual while during low tide water level will fall less than usual.

6. Differentiate between:

Question 1.
High tide and low tide:
Answer:

High tide	Low Tide
(i) The rise in the level of sea water is caused by the combined effect of centrifugal and gravitational force of the moon and the sun.	(i) The fall in the level of sea water is caused by the combined effect of centrifugal and gravitational force of the moon and the sun.
(ii) At the time of high tide, sea water is very close to the coast.	(ii) At the time of low tide, sea water is far away from the coast.

Question 2.
Spring tide and neap tide.
Answer:

Spring tide	Neap Tide
(i) It occurs on the new moon day and the full moon day.	(i) It occurs on the the first and the third quarter days.
(ii) The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth are in a straight line and act in the same direction.	(i) The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun are at right angle.
(iii) Spring tides are a little higher than the average high tides and a little lower than the average low tides.	(iii) Neap tides are a little lower than the average high tides and little higher than the average low tides.

7. Describe the positive and negative effects of tides:
Answer:
The positive effects of tides are as follows:

• The tides clear the waste and hence the coasts become clean.
• Ports do not get filled with sediments .
• Ships can move up to the ports during high tide.
• During high tide, sea water can be stored in salt pans from which salt can be obtained.
• The tidal force can be used to generate electricity.
• With the high tide, fish move into the creeks and this helps fishing activity.
• The tides help in maintaining the mangroves and the coastal biodiversity.

The negative effects of tides are as follows:

• A lack of an understanding of the timings of high and low tides may cause accidents to swimmers entering the sea.

Activities:

1. Visit the nearest sea coast. From a higher location, observe the waves approaching the coast. See if the approaching waves change their direction. With the help of your teacher find the answer to why this change occurs.
2. Collect information from the internet about how electricity is generated from waves. Find places where such electricity is being generated.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides InText Questions and Answers

Differentiate between:

Question 1.
Centrifugal force and Gravitational
Answer:

Centrifugal force	Gravitational force
(i) Due to rotation, the earth gets a type of power of force. This force works away from the centre. It is called centrifugal force. (ii) Centrifugal force works away from the centre. (iii) Due to centrifugal force an object on the earth would be thrown into the space.	(i) Gravitational force is working towards the centre of the earth. This force is many times greater than the centrifugal force. (ii) Gravitational force works towards the centre. (iii) Due to gravitational force an object on the surface of the earth remains at the place where it exists.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Spring tide
Answer:
(i) On new moon & full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon act in the same direction due to which the total pull increases.

(ii) Hence, the tide on these days is much higher than the average high tide.

(iii) This is known as spring tide.

Question 2.
Neap tide
Answer:
(i) While revolving around the earth, the moon makes a right angle with respect to the earth and the sun, twice a month.

(ii) This position occurs on the first and third quarter of each month. On both these days the forces of both the sun & the moon operate at right angles on the earth.

(iii) At the places where the sun causes high tide, the gravitational pull of the moon which is at right angles also acts on the water.

(iv) Due to such conditions the water level rise is less than usual at the time of high tide. Similarly, fall in water level is less than usual at the time of low tide.

(v) Such tides are called neap tides.

Question 3.
Waves
Answer:

• The sea water gets pushed by the wind and ripples are generated on the water surface. These are called waves.
• The sea water moves up & down or slightly forward & backward due to the waves.
• The waves bring the energy contained in them to the coast.
• Large & small waves are formed continuously at the surface of the sea.
• Generation of waves is a natural & regularly occurring phenomenon.

Question 4.
Struture of the waves
Answer:
(i) The sea water gets pushed up & down because of the wind. The raised up portion of the wave is called crest & the depressed one is called trough.

(ii) The vertical distance between a crest and the following trough is called the amplitude of the wave whereas the distance between two successive crests or troughs is called wave length.

(iii) The wave length, its amplitude & its velocity depend on the velocity of the wind.

Formative Assessment:
Observe the activity on pages 9, 10 of the textbook & discuss the result of the activities and answer the question given below:

Question 1.
In which direction will the piece of chalk fall? (fig. 1)
Answer:
The chalk will fall to the right.

Question 2.
Where did the water in the glass show a bulge? (fig. 2)
Answer:
At the sides of the glass.

Question 3.
What effect did the movement have on the things attached to the keyring? (fig. 3)
Answer:
The things attached to the keyring will move round.

Question 4.
What happened to the water in the container and the mixer? (fig. 1)
Answer:
The water will swirl round forming a bulge at the sides and a depression in the centre.

Question 5.
Which forces could be operating in activities listed above?
Answer:
In the first activity (fig. 1) gravitational force acted and in the fig. 2, fig. 3 centrifugal force.

Question 6.
In the following activities, which force is greater, centrifugal or gravitational?
Answer:
The centrifugal force was greater than the gravitational force.

Can you tell?
Answer the following of questions with the help of figure

Question 1.
How do the tides occur?
Answer:
Tides occur due to the relative positions of the moon, the sun, and the earth.

Question 2.
Which force is applied when the moon is closer to the earth?
Answer:
Gravitational force becomes more effective than that of the sun when the moon is closer to the earth.

Question 3.
If it is high tide those having high tide at 0° and 180° meridian then at which meridians will low tide occur?
Answer:
The meridians that are at right angle to those having high tide will experience low tide at the same time ie. at 90°E & 90°W.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
Due to rotation, the force that works away from the centre of the earth is the ______force. (gravitational, rotational, centrifugal)
Answer:
centrifugal

Question 2.
Neap tide occurs on the days of the ______ and _______ quarter of each month. (first, second, third)
Answer:
first, third

Question 3.
The tidal range in open seas is ______ cms. (20, 30, 40)
Answer:
30

Question 4.
The highest tidal range in the world is observed at _______.(Bay of Fundy, Bay of Biscay, Bay of Bengal)
Answer:
Bay of Fundy

Question 5.
The main reason for wave generation is ______ (wind, gravitational force, centrifugal force)
Answer:
wind

Question 6.
The raised up portion of a wave is called a _______ .(trough, wave length, crest)
Answer:
crest

Question 7.
The depressed portion of a wave is called a ______. (trough, wave length, crest)
Answer:
trough

Question 8.
The vertical distance between a crest and a trough is called the _____.(wave length, amplitude, tide)
Answer:
amplitude

Question 9.
The distance between a crest or trough is called _____ (amplitude, wave length, tide)
Answer:
wave length

Question 10.
Tall sea waves caused by earthquakes below the floor of the sea are called _____.(cyclones, tsunamis, eruption)
Answer:
tsunamis

Match the following:

Question 1.

‘A’	‘B’
(1)  Bay of Fundy (2)  Gulf of Khambhat (3)  Open Seas (4)  Peninsular India	(a)  1100 cm (b)  100 -150 cm (c)  1600 cm (d)  30 cm

Answer:
1 – c
2- a
3 – d
4 – b

Fill in the blanks:
Question 1.
High and low tides are _______ phenomena.
Answer:
Natural

Question 2.
_________ are movements of sea water occurring daily and regularly.
Answer:
Tides

Question 3.
Any object on the surface of the earth remains at the place due to the ______ force.
Answer:
Gravitational

Question 4.
The meridians that are at right angles to those having high, tide will experience tide _______.
Answer:
Low

Question 5.
On the days of the first and the third quarter, the high tide is at its _____.
Answer:
Minimum

Question 6.
On new moon and full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon acting the ______ direction.
Answer:
Same

Question 7.
At every ______ a cycle of high tide and low tide gets completed.
Answer:
12 hrs & 25 min

Name the following:

Question 1.
Movement of sea water.
Answer:
Tides.

Question 2.
Two forces directly related with tides.
Answer:
Gravitational and Centrifugal forces.

Question 3.
Two types of tide.
Answer:
Spring tide and Neap tide.

Question 4.
The difference in the water level of the high tide and low tide.
Answer:
Tidal range.

Question 5.
The region with highest tidal range in India.
Answer:
The Gulf of Khambhat.

Question 6.
Tall waves caused by earthquakes in the shallow waters near the coast, which are very destructive.
Answer:
Tsunami.

Question 7.
Place where tsunami waves were generated in 2004.
Answer:
Sumatra islands of Indonesia.

Question 8.
Type of tide occuring on full moon day.
Answer:
Spring tide.

Question 9.
Type of tide occuring when sun and the moon are at right angles to each other.
Answer:
Neap tide.

Question 10.
Distance between two successive crests or troughs.
Answer:
Wavelength.

Define the following:

Question 1.
Tide:
Answer:
The alternate rising and falling of the sea water after a specific period is called tide.

Question 2.
Centrifugal force:
Answer:
Due to the earth’s rotation, the earth gets a type of power or force. This force works away from the centre. It is called the centrifugal force.

Question 3.
Tidal range:
Answer:
The difference in the water level of the high tide and low tide is called tidal range.

Question 4.
Waves:
Answer:
The sea water gets pushed by the wind and so ripples are generated on the water surface. These are called waves.

Question 5.
Amplitude of the wave:
Answer:
The vertical distance between a crest and the following trough is called the amplitude of the wave.

Question 6.
Wave length:
Answer:
The wave length is the distance between two successive crests or troughs.

Write whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
The gravitational force is many times greater than the centrifugal force.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Spring tides are lower than average high tides.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Centrifugal force is generated due to the revolution of the earth.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
When there is high tide at 0° meridian, the 180° meridian also experiences high tide.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Tides occur due to the relative positions of the moon, the sun and the earth.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
The tides clean the waste and hence the coastal areas become clean.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
The tides worsen the maintaining of mangroves and the coastal biodiversity.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Generation of waves is a natural and regularly occurring phenomenon.
Answer:
True

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1
Any object on the surface of the earth remains at the place where it exists.
Answer:

• Due to the earths rotation, it gets a type of power or force
• The force acting in the centre is centrifugal force.
• Due to this force any object on the earth would be thrown into the space.
• But the gravitational force is working towards the centre of the earth at the same time.
• This force is greater than the centrifugal force.
• Hence, any object on the surface of earth remains at the place where it exists.

Question 2.
On new moon and full moon days the tides are higher than average.
Answer:

• On new moon and full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon act in the same direction.
• Due to this, the total pull increases.
• Hence, the tide on these days is much higher than the average high tide.

Question 3.
Neap tides are a little lower than average high tides.
Answer:

• While revolving around the earth, the moon makes a right angle with respect to the earth and the sun.
• This position occurs on the first and the third quarter of each month.
• On both these days, the forces of both the sun and the moon operate at right angles on the earth.
• The attraction of the sun and the moon are not complementary but at right angles to each other.
• Due to this, the water level rise is less than usual at the time of high tide

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Which factors are responsible for the occurrence of tides?
Answer:
The following factors are responsible for the occurrence of tides.

• The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth.
• Revolution of the earth around the sun and the indirect revolution of the moon around the sun.
• Centrifugal force generated due to the rotation of the earth.

Draw a neat labelled diagram of:

Question 1.
The structure of a wave:
Answer:

Question 2.
Springtide:
Answer:

Question 3.
Neap tide:
Answer:

Question 4.
Occurrence of tides:
Answer:

Observe the following pictures and answer the following questions given below and discuss:


Question 1.
Do the above photographs show the same place or different places?
Answer:
Both the photographs show the same place.

Question 2.
Observe and note the spread of water seen in both the photographs.
Answer:
The level of water is higher in the first picture and lower in the second.

Question 3.
What is this natural event called?
Answer:
This natural event is called tide.

Try this:

Take a wide open large dish.
Keep the dish on a table or a flat surface.
Fill water in the dish up to the rim,(we have to generate waves in the dish).

Question 1.
Is it possible to generate waves without touching or shoving the dish? Try doing so.
Answer:
By blowing air with your mouth on the water surface of the dish.

Question 2.
In what different ways can you generate waves in the dish?
Answer:

• By dropping an object in the dish.
• By blowing air on the water surface.
• By strong fan breeze.

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Civics Chapter 6 Question Answer Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. List the restrictions on the powers of the Government.

Answer:
Restrictions upon the powers of the Government are listed below:

• State should not discriminate between and among citizens on the basis of caste, religion, race, language or gender.
• State shall not deny anybody equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.
• No person shall be deprived of his life.
• State shall not impose any religious taxes.

2. Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

Question 1.
The jobs advertised in the newspaper are for men and women both.
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
Men and women doing the same work in a factory get different wages.
Answer:
No

Question 3.
Government implements various schemes for the improvement of public health.
Answer:
Yes

Question 4.
State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:
Yes

3. Tell why:

Question 1.
The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:

• It is one of important Directive Principles of State policy.
• Monuments are a part of India’s rich cultural heritage. A rich source to learn history, it is our collective responsibility to protect them.

Question 2.
A pension scheme is implemented for old people.
Answer:

• The pension scheme is the State’s way of offering public assistance to citizens who have retired from work.
• This ensures that the retired person can lead a comfortable life.
• Hence a pension scheme is implemented for old people.

Question 3.
Free and compulsory education has been made available to children in the age group 6 to 14.
Answer:

• No child should be deprived of education. So it is made available.
• Right to Liberty now also includes Right to Education and all children are entitled to get education as a Fundamental right.

4. Say right or wrong. Correct and write the wrong ones:

Question 1.
Not to let the National Flag fall down on the ground.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to respect the National Flag.

Question 2.
To stand in attention while the National Anthem is playing.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to respect our National Anthem.

Question 3.
To carve or paint our names on the walls of a historic place like a fort.
Answer:
Wrong: It is our Fundamental Duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Question 4.
To give lesser wages to women than to men for the same work.
Answer:
Wrong: Fundamental Rights put restrictions on the power of the government and one of the restriction states that the state should not discriminate between and among citizens on the basis of gender amongst other things.

Question 5.
To keep public places clean.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to safeguard public property.

5. Write about the following:

Question 1.
The Directive Principles of the Constitution enumerated in the textbook.
Answer:
(i) The State should secure adequate means of livelihood to all citizens without any gender discrimination.

(ii) The State should secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

(iii) The State should secure the improvement of public health.

(iv) The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.

(v) The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.

(vi) The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Tribes.

(vii) The State shall offer public assistance to citizens in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, etc.

(viii) The State shall secure a uniform civil code applicable to the entire country.

Question 2.
The provision of a Uniform Civil Code for citizens in the Directive Principles of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
(i) The provision of a Uniform Civil Code for citizens in mentioned in the Constitution.

(ii) It aims to replace personal laws based on the customs and scriptures of the different religious communities living in India with a common set of laws, which is uniform to all the citizens of India.

Question 3.
Why is it said that the Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights are two sides of the same coin?
Answer:

(i) Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights are two sides of the same coin.

(ii) Due to Fundamental Rights, citizens get the most needed liberty, while Directive Principles of State Policy creates an atmosphere conducive to the growth of democracy.

6. What are the ways in which citizens can conserve the environment ? Write with examples.
Answer:
There are various ways in which citizens can conserve the environment:

(i) Citizens can support the endeavour of the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.

(ii) Citizens should collectively take responsible actions to protect and improve the natural environment we are a part of.

(iii) Citizens should put to an end cruelty towards animals and have compassion for living creatures.

Activities

• Education is our right. Form groups and discuss our duties in this respect.
• The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance. This is one of the Directive Principles. Find out the efforts made by the State about the conservation and protection of forts and make a chart.
• Gather information about the schemes implemented by the Government for children’s health.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
Due to citizens get the most needed liberty. (Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Fundamental Duties)
Answer:
Fundamental Rights

Question 2.
In order that the Indian citizens become conscious of their responsibilities ______ were included in the Constitution.
(Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, Directive Principles of State Policy)
Answer:
Fundamental Duties

Question 3.
We should perform all the tasks that we have undertaken honestly always striving for ______. (excellence, progress, prosperity)
Answer:
excellence

Question 4.
Fundamental Rights restricts the power of the government to impose any ________. (laws, restrictions, religious taxes)
Answer:
religious taxes

Question 5.
Every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian should provide opportunities of education to his or her child or ward between the age of six and _______years. (eighteen, fourteen, seventeen)
Answer:
fourteen

Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’:

Question 1.
The state should secure the improvement of public health.
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
Public assistance is provided to citizens in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness etc.
Answer:
Yes

Name the following:

Question 1.
Put restriction on the power of the government.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights

Question 2.
Direction or guidelines in the Constitution about how to achieve the goals expressed in the Preamble of the Constitution.
Answer:
Directive Principles of the State Policy

Question 3.
Any two challenges faced by India after independence.
Answer:
Establishing order, carrying out smooth administration.

Question 4.
Any one directive which ensures that there is no gender discrimination.
Answer:
State should secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

Question 5.
It is our Fundamental Duty to respect these two national symbols.
Answer:
National Flag, National Anthem.

Question 6.
Any one practice we are expected to renounce according to the Fundamental Duties listed in our Constitution.
Answer:
Practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Question 7.
It is our Fundamental Duty to develop these values.
Answer:
Scientific temper, Humanism, Spirit of inquiry and reform.

Say right or wrong with reason. Correct the write down the corrections:

Question 1.
To sacrifice our life for the sake of our motherland.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty .to defend the country, and to render national service when called upon to do so.

Question 2.
The State protects all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:
Right: It is one of the important Directive Principles of the State Policy.

Answer in one or two sentence:

Question 1.
Which restrictions on the power of the government by the Fundamental Rights ensure that no discrimination is practised by the State?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights restrains the State from discriminating between and among citizens on the basis of caste, religion, race, language or gender.

Question 2.
When India got independence, why was it necessary to draw up new policies?
Answer:
When India got independence the task of nation building had to be undertaken and for this new policies had to be drawn up.

Question 3.
What is included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy with respect to environment?
Answer:
It is included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forest and wild-life of the country.

Question 4.
What is stated in the Directive Principles of State Policy with respect to weaker sections of the Society?
Answer:
It is stated in the Directive Principles of the State Policy that State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interest of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Tribes.

Question 5.
What is the State expected to secure as per the Directive Principles of State Policy which is applicable to the entire country?
Answer:
The State is expected to secure a Uniform Civil Code applicable to the entire country according to the Directive Principles of State policy.

Question 6.
What can we do if a Directive is not implemented by the Government.
Answer:
If a Directive is not implemented by the Government, we can put pressure on the Government in various ways to make a policy in order to meet the goals.

Question 7.
When will the benefits of the various schemes of the Government not reach all the people?
Answer:
The benefits of the various schemes of the government cannot reach all the people if they do not fulfil their Fundamental Duties.

Question 8.
Why were the Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution?
Answer:
Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution so that the Indian citizens become conscious of their responsibilities.

Question 9.
Why is it mentioned in our Fundamental Duties that we should strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity?
Answer:
It is mentioned in our Fundamental Duties that we should strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation can constantly rise to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
What are the ways in which citizens can conserve the environment?
Answer:
There are various ways in which citizens can conserve the environment:

• Citizens can support the endeavour of the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.
• Citizens should collectively take responsible actions to protect and improve the natural environment we are a part of.
• Citizens should put to an end cruelty towards animals and have compassion for living creatures.

Question 2.
State any five Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens.
Answer:
Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens are as follows:

• To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
• To defend the country, and to render national service when called upon to do so.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood transcending diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Give reason:

Question 1.
The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:

• It is one of important Directive Principles of State policy.
• Monuments are a part of India’s rich cultural heritage. A rich source to learn history, it is our collective responsibility to protect them.

Question 2.
A pension scheme is implemented for old people.
Answer:

• The pension scheme is the State’s way of offering public assistance to citizens who have retired from work.
• This ensures that the retired person can lead a comfortable life.
  Hence a pension scheme is implemented for old people.

Question 3.
Free and compulsory education has been made available to children in the age group 6 to 14.
Answer:

• No child should be deprived of education. So it is made available.
• Right to Liberty now also includes Right to Education and all children are entitled to get education as a Fundamental right.

Give your own response:

Question 1.
What else do you think the Government should do for students? Make a list of your demands. How would you convince others that your demands are just?
Answer:
The list of our demands are:

• Emphasis on skill training in school.
• Choice of a wide variety of subjects based on one’s interest.
• Compulsory training in a particular Sport.
• Making a foreign language compulsory in the curriculum.
• Better facilities in schools.
• Programme of mid-day meals should be implemented in all the schools in the rural areas.
• Inspection of schools from time to time to check the quality of education imparted.
• I will convince others through dialogues and discussion and go by the will of the majority.

Question 2.
Which improvements will be possible with the following facilities offered by the Government?
Answer:

• Public toilets: Maintenance from time to time and continuous water supply.
• Clean water supply: Ensuring that water treatment to remove contaminants is done before it reaches homes and other places for consumption.
• Vaccination of children:
• Create awareness among parents about different vaccinations through different media of communication.
• Organise vaccination drives from time to time.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
There is a directive to ensure ‘equal pay for equal work’.
Which principles and ideals of the Constitution will be realised with this directive? Why does it happen that inspite of doing the same work, women are paid less than men?
Answer:
(i) Right to Equality and the assurance that State shall not discriminate among citizens will be realised with this objective.

(ii) Due to lack of awareness of rights and no strict implementation of law, we witness gender discrimination at work.

Observe the Picture and answer the questions given below:

Which of the Fundamental Duties are not being followed in the situations above?

Question 1.
A boy scribbling on a historical structure.
Answer:
The duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Question 2.
Hanging lemon, chillies
Answer:
The duty to develop the scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform.

Question 3.
Damaging a public bus
Answer:
The duty to safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

Question 4.
A woman emptying a garbage can on the street.
Answer:
The duty to protect and improve the natural environment.

What do you think?

Question 1.
Girls and boys between the ages 6 and 14 have got the Right to Education. All the girls and boys in this age group should be in school. Yet many girls and boys are not able to go to school because of many reasons. They have to work to help their parents earn a living for the family. Do you think that it is unfair to such children to insist that they go to school?
Answer:
No I don’t think it is unfair to such children to insist that they go to school.

(i) Practising child labour is a form of exploitation and we have the Right against Exploitation which extends constitutional protection to children.

(ii) Similarly it is the Fundamental Duty of every citizen who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities of education to his or her child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

Question 2.
Which improvements will be possible with the following facilities offered by the Government?
Answer:
(i) Public toilets :

• Public toilets will eradicate open defecation and will improve the overall public health
• As the availability of toilets at close proximity to highway will ensure that people do not face inconvenience while traveling.

(ii) Clean water supply:

• Water is our basic need hence providing clean water is very important
• It will prevent the spread of water borne diseases like cholera, jaundice, etc.

(iii) Vaccination of children:

• Vaccination will improve the health of infants
• Vaccination will reduce the occurrence of diseases like polio in infants

7th Std Civics Questions And Answers:

• Introduction to Our Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Preamble to the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Features of the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 1 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 2 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 11 Question Answer Contour Maps and Landforms Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How can the distribution of the height and landform in a region be shown?
Answer:
(i) While studying different landforms on the surface of the earth, one has to consider various facets of landforms like altitude, relief, slope, direction of slope and the drainage.
(ii) For this maps prepared using mathematical survey methods are used.
(iii) These maps help us to understand the above characteristics of the landforms.

Question 2.
To whom are contour maps useful?
Answer:
(i) Contour maps are useful to mountaineers, trekkers, soldiers, defence officers.
(ii) The nature of the ground and its shape can be estimated .
(iii) Defence officers use contour maps for strategic planning.
(iv) It is possible to identify suitable site for any project from the contour map of the region.

Question 3.
What do you understand by observing contour lines?
Answer:
(i) Contour lines are isolines of height.
(ii) These are drawn by joining the places of equal altitude.
(iii) These help in identification of land forms and their altitude from sea level.
(iv) These lines also help us to understand the nature and direction of the slope.

Question 4.
How will a contour map be useful to a fanner?
Answer:
(i) It is helpful selecting the type of farming to be practiced plantation farming in hilly regions, intensive farming in low lying region.
(ii) In order to reduce the erosion of soil, trenches are dug out in the direction perpendicular to the slope of the land.
(iii) Trees are planted along such trenches. When the farmer digs out such trenches, he will be careful in maintaining the level.

2. Fill the blanks with appropriate words:

Question 1.
If the contour lines are closer to each other, the slope is ______.
Answer:
steep

Question 2.
The contour lines on the map represent ______.
Answer:
places of same altitude

Question 3.
The slope can be understood from the distance between the ______.
Answer:
contour lines

Question 4.
If the distance between two contour lines is more then the ______ is gentle.
Answer:
slope

3. Identify the landforms in the following map:

Class 7 Geography Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms InText Questions and Answers

A model of the relief in an area is shown in fig. Observe it carefully and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which landforms do you seen in the model?
Answer:
Mountains & river valleys are seen in the model.

Question 2.
Which colours have been used on them?
Answer:
Yellow & blue colours have been used in the model.

Model of the Earth’s surface:

Question 1.
What all you seen in the map?
Answer:
We can see many contour lines on the map showing a hilly region. We can see the altitude of the hill ranges as well as its slope.

Question 2.
What is the general direction of the ranges shown in the map?
Answer:
The general direction of the ranges shown in the map is east-west

Question 3.
Towards which direction is the flat land located in the map?
Answer:
The flat land is located towards the east.

Question 4.
What are the maximum and minimum values of the lines in the map?
Answer:
The maximum value of the lines in the map is 800 & minimum value is 600.

Question 5.
What do these values indicate?
Answer:
These lines indicate the altitude of the region from the sea level.

Question 6.
Do you find any similarities in the map and the model in fig. (a)? What are those?
Answer:
The model in figure (a) & the contour line map in figure (b) are of the same region. The values of latitudes & longitudes are same on both the maps.

Question 7.
Which figure give us more information and what is that information?
Answer:
Fig. (b) Contour line map gives more information. It gives us information about the altitude of the landforms slope of the land forms with latitudes & longitudes

Question 8.
Is there any similarity between this map and the sketch map of the potato hill?
Answer:
Yes, similar to the sketch map of the potato hill,
the contour line map too is a 3D figure (Model of earth’s surface) which has been converted into a 2D map. The Contour line map is depicting contour line intervals.

Consider you have gone for mountaineering. You have to conquer a peak on the hill “A”. A map of this hill is given below. Studying the contour lines in the map, find the side from which you will reach the peak safely and easily. Mark your path on the map with a pencil.

Answer:
I will climb from eastwards to reach the peak safely as the slope eastwards is gentle and not steep. Lesser distance between the contour lines, indicates steep slope. The distance between the lines is greater eastwards, which shows the slope is more gentle on that side.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Contour lines join places with the same on a map.
Answer:
altitude

Question 2.
Generally, contour lines do not _______ each other.
Answer:
cross.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How are contour maps helpful to us?
Answer:
(i) Contour maps help us to understand various facets of landforms, like altitude, relief, slope, direction of slope and the drainage.
(ii) These maps are of immense use to mountaineers, trekkers, soldiers, defence officers, etc.
(iii) These maps prove to be of great use in planning of a region.

Question 2.
Contour lines generally do not cross each other. Give reason.
Answer:
(i) Contour lines join places with the same altitude on a map.
(ii) Therefore they generally do not cross each other.

Observe the model and the map given below and answer the following questions:

A 3D model is given in fig. (a) The northern part of the model shows the basin of the rivers Mula-Mutha. To its south is the Katraj. Diveghat range extending from the west to the east. Beyond that some portion of Karha basin is seen.

Question 1.
In which direction does fort Purandar lie?
Answer:
Fort Purandar lies in the south direction.

Question 2.
What is the direction of flow of the river Karha?
Answer:
River Karha flows from west to east.

Question 3.
In which parts are the hill ranges not observed?
Answer:
The hill ranges are not observed in the eastern parts.

Question 4.
Which part of the model is not seen in the map? Why?
Answer:
The Karha river & the direction of its flow, the contour height and the slope of the land are part of map & not seen in the model.

Question 5.
In which direction does the altitude of Katraj- Diveghat range decrease?
Answer:
The altitude of katraj-Diveghat range decreases from west to east.

Question 6.
In which direction are higher hill ranges located?
Answer:
Higher hill ranges are located in the southern direction.

Use your brain!

When one sees a landform on a contour map, what is the observer’s position with respect to landform? For example, a hill is shown with the help of contours on a map. From where do you think you are looking at it?
Answer:
Aerial view. From somewhere above, may be from an aeroplane or helicopter.

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers