Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
After the Second World War, East Germany came under the control of ____________ (Soviet Union, USA, West Germany, England)
Answer:
Soviet Union

Question 2.
After World War I, ____________ was created to maintain peace and security. (European Union, League of Nations, UNO, SAARC)
Answer:
League of Nations

Question 3.
The ____________ is the Chief Administrative Officer of the UN. (Trusteeship Council, President, Security Council, Secretary-General)
Answer:
Secretary-General

Question 4.
The UN Security Council has ____________ permanent members. (5, 10, 15, 193)
Answer:
5

Question 5.
The seat of the International Court of Justice is in ____________ (New York, Geneva, Paris, The Hague)
Answer:
The Hague

Question 6.
____________ coined the name United Nations. (Woodrow Wilson, Pandit Nehru, Franklin Roosevelt, Josef Stalin)
Answer:
Franklin Roosevelt

Question 7.
The UN Charter was signed in 1945 by representatives of ____________ countries. (24, 50, 101, 172)
Answer:
50

Question 8.
____________ used the term ‘iron curtain’ to refer to the division of Europe into the West and the East. (Woodrow Wilson, Franklin Roosevelt, Richard Nixon, Nikita Khrushchev)
Answer:
Woodrow Wilson

Question 9.
The Asian nation ____________ had a war from 1950-1953. (Japan, China, Korea, Vietnam)
Answer:
Korea

Question 10.
In 1959, heads of USA and USSR met at ____________ to seek serious dialogue. (New York, Moscow, Berlin, Camp David)
Answer:
Camp David

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Mao Zedong – Korea
(b) Nikita Khrushchev – Soviet Union
(c) President Eisenhower – USA
(d) Woodrow Wilson – England
Answer:
(a) Mao Zedong – China

Question 2.
(a) France – Capitalist Bloc
(b) Bulgaria – Communist Bloc
(c) Turkey – NATO
(d) Thailand – SEATO
Answer:
(c) Turkey – CENTO

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
The policy suggested by Khrushchev that the US capital system and Soviet system would have to co-exist.
Answer:
Peaceful Co-existence

Question 2.
Process of regional cooperation.
Answer:
Regionalism

Question 3.
Meetings of heads of states or governments to discuss pertinent issues.
Answer:
Summit Meetings

1D. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
Which organization was created after World War I to maintain peace and order in the world?
Answer:
The League of Nations was created after World War I to maintain peace and order in the world.

Question 2.
Which countries emerged as superpowers after the Second World War?
Answer:
USA and USSR emerged as superpowers after the Second World War.

Question 3.
What is the main purpose of the UNO?
Answer:
The main purpose of the UNO is the maintenance of international peace and security.

Question 4.
Name some countries under Soviet influence post-1945.
Answer:
Some countries under Soviet influence post-1945 were East Germany, Poland, Hungary, Bulgaria Romania, Albania, and Czechoslovakia.

Question 5.
Name some countries under US influence post-1945.
Answer:
Some countries under US influence were England, France, Spain, Belgium Netherlands, Greece, and West Germany.

Question 6.
Which Asian nation adopted communism in 1949?
Answer:
China, under Mao Zedong, adopted communism in 1949.

Question 7.
Which communist nations signed a pact in 1950?
Answer:
USSR and China signed a pact in 1950.

Question 8.
In 1959, which world leaders met at Camp David?
Answer:
In 1959, President Dwight Eisenhower of the United States and Prime Minister Nikita Khrushchev of the Soviet Union met at Camp David in the United States.

Question 9.
What is sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development refers to development that promotes the protection of the environment and social well-being along with economic progress.

1E. Complete the sentences by choosing the appropriate reason.

Question 1.
SAARC is considered a regional organisation because
(a) it aims to establish regional cooperation in South Asia.
(b) it is a narrow scope organisation that leads to hostility in the region.
(c) it is in opposition to world peace and stability
Answer:
(a) it aims to establish regional cooperation in South Asia.

Question 2.
Camp David Summit was a turning point in the history of the Cold War
(a) it was an open expression of Cold War hostility
(b) it led to the formation of NATO and other military alliances
(c) it was the first serious attempt at seeking a dialogue between the Cold War rivals.
Answer:
(c) it was the first serious attempt at seeking a dialogue between the Cold War rivals.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
USA, China, Russia, India.
Answer:
India (it is the only NAM nation)

Question 2.
NATO, ASEAN, CENTO, SEATO.
Answer:
ASEAN (not a Cold War military alliance)

Question 3.
ASEAN, NATO, SAARC, E.U.
Answer:
NATO (a military alliance)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
The League of Nations failed in achieving its purpose.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The League of Nations was created in 1920 after the First World War as an international organisation to establish peace and order in the world.
• However, the League failed to stop aggression by the Nazi and Fascist parties or to eliminate conflicts in Europe eventually leading to the Second World War.

Question 2.
After the Second World War, the world ceased to be ‘Eurocentric’.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The world had been described as ‘Eurocentric’ because of the dominant position enjoyed by major European powers like England, Francs, etc, in the 19th and early 20th centuries.
• Most of these powers such as France, Italy, Germany, England were devastated during the Second World war leading to the USA and USSR becoming superpowers in the world. Thus there were bipolarity post-1945.

Question 3.
The UNO was established in 1945.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The League of Nations which was established after the First World War failed to secure world peace and stability.
• After the Second World War, the UN was established in 1945 to maintain world security and peace, protect human rights, and promote sustainable development.

Question 4.
The Trusteeship Council is the most significant organ of the UNO.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• The Trusteeship Council was set up to provide international supervision for 11 Trust Territories to prepare these towards self-government.
• The Security Council is considered the most significant organ of the UNO. It suspended operations on 1st November 1994, as all the Trust Territories had attained independence.

Question 5.
The hostile relations between the USA and USSR were called the Cold War.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• USA and USSR became superpowers after the Second World War (1945). There were ideological and economic differences between the USA and USSR and also a struggle for political influence in Europe.
• The hostile relations led to the East-West division of Europe, setting up of military alliances and armaments build-up but stopped short of a war actual war. This is referred to as the cold war.

Question 6.
The Korean War was actually a proxy of the Cold War.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The Korean War (1950-1953) began when North Korea backed by Communist China and the USSR attacked South Korea.
• South Korea was helped by the US and its allies. Thus, the Korean War seemed to be an actual manifestation of the Cold War.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

3. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Write about the Berlin Wall (Division of Berlin).
Answer:
When the Second World War ended, the Soviets had control over East Germany while the USA, UK, and France had control over West Germany. This was the division of Germany. The city of Berlin, which was the capital of Germany was also divided between East and West Berlin. East Berlin was under Soviet influence while West Berlin was under American, British and French control. The city of Berlin was inside the territory of East Germany. Thus, West Berlin was surrounded by East Germany on all sides.

Question 2.
What was referred to as the “Iron Curtain”?
Answer:
The former British Prime Minister, Winston Churchill, during his visit to the United States in 1946, gave a speech at the Westminster College in Fulton where he described the situation in Europe as “From Stettin in the Baltic to Trieste in the Adriatic, an iron curtain has descended across the continent.”. This speech was the first clear expression of the division of Europe between the West and the East, between the capitalist and communist ideology.

Question 3.
Write about the Bandung Conference.
Answer:
The Bandung Conference (1955) was the first Afro-Asian conference that sought to broad base the concept of regionalism to include the countries of Africa. The conference had 24 participating countries besides the sponsoring countries, namely Burma (now, Myanmar), Ceylon (now, Sri Lanka), India, Indonesia, and Pakistan.
The main purposes of the conference were

• To promote goodwill and cooperation
• To consider social, economic, and cultural problems and problems of special interest to Asian and African people.
• To view the position of Asia and Africa in the world today and the contribution they can make to world peace.

The Bandung Conference was a historic event. It tried to spread the concept of regionalism to Asia and Africa.

Question 4.
Write about NATO.
Answer:
The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) is an inter-government military alliance of 29 countries from North America and Europe. It was established in April 1949. The members include its 12 original members and others who joined later. The founding countries were the USA, UK, Belgium, Canada, France, Denmark, Norway, Iceland, Italy, Portugal, Netherlands, and Luxembourg other NATO members are Greece, Turkey, West Germany, Spain, Poland Hungary, Czech Republic, Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Romania, Albania. The last nation to join NATO in 2017 was Montenegro.

Question 5.
Write about military alliances formed by the U.S (1945 – 55).
Answer:
The US-led capitalist bloc included alliances such as NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organisation) formed in 1949 with 12 founding countries like USA, UK, Canada, France, etc., and later joined by Greece, Turkey, West Germany, Spain, Poland Hungary, Czech Republic, Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Romania, Albania. Montenegro.

• ANZUS: (1952) comprising of Australia, New Zealand, and the USA.
• southeast Asia Treaty Organisation (SEATO): (1954) which included Thailand, Philippines, Australia, New Zealand, France, UK, US.
• Central Treaty Organisation (CENTO): (1955) which included Turkey, Iraq (Iraq withdrew in 1958), Iran (Iran withdrew in 1979), and Pakistan.

Question 6.
Write about the UN Security Council. (UNSC).
Answer:
The UN Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security. It has 15 Members (5 permanent and 10 non-permanent members).

The permanent members include the USA, UK, Russia, France, and China. They have ‘veto’ power. Non-permanent members are elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly. Some of these members are Belgium, South Africa, Indonesia, and Germany. India has been a non-permanent member of the UNSC.

4. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate on the UNO.
(i) Establishment and Total membership of the UNO.
(ii) Main organs of the UNO.
(iii) Permanent members of the Security Council.
(iv) Secretary-General of the UN.
Answer:
(i) Establishment and Total membership of the UNO: The UNO was established on 24th October 1945. The UN declaration was signed in San Francisco by 50 member states. At present, it has 193 members.

(ii) Main organs of the UNO: The main organs of the UNO are General Assembly, Security Council, Economic and Social Council, Trusteeship Council (suspended operations in 1994), International Court of Justice, and Secretariat.

(iii) Permanent members of the Security Council: There are 5 permanent members of the Security council i.e., the USA, the UK, Russia, France, and China.

(iv) Secretary-General of the UN: The Secretariat comprises the Secretary-General and UN staff members, who carry out the day-to-day work of the UN. The Secretary-General is the Chief Administrative Officer of the UNO. He is appointed by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council for a five-year term.

The present Secretary-General is Antonio-Guterres. The first Secretary-General was Trygve Lie (1946-1952) Other Secretary-General were Dag Hammarskjold, U Thant, Kurt Waldheim, Javier Perez, Boutros Boutros-Ghali, Kofi Annan, Ban-ki-Moon.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 8 Development Administration Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 8 Development Administration

1A. Choose the appropriate alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Panchayati Raj institutions were given constitutional status in 1992 by the ____________ Amendment Act. (42nd, 73rd, 74th, 91st)
Answer:
73rd

Question 2.
To establish a socialist pattern of economy, ____________ year plans were introduced. (3, 5, 7, 10)
Answer:
5

Question 3.
To increase agricultural production, the ____________ revolution was introduced in 1966-67. (Rural, White, Green, Swachh Bharat)
Answer:
Green

Question 4.
MGNREGA aims to guarantee ‘the right to ____________’. (nutrition, education, irrigation, work)
Answer:
work

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
It has replaced the Planning Commission since 2015.
Answer:
NITI Aayog

Question 2.
A modern approach to Public Administration.
Answer:
Development Administration

1C. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What does ‘red tape’ refer to?
Answer:
In government administration, when official rules and procedures create unnecessary delays in the work, it is called ‘red tape.

Question 2.
What does the ‘holistic perspective’ of development include?
Answer:
A holistic perspective of development includes a focus on social change, economic growth, cultural progress and political development.

Question 3.
Name two Parliamentary Committees.
Answer:
Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee.

Question 4.
Name 4 tribunals in the field of Indian administration.
Answer:
Income Tax Appellate Tribunal, Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT), National Green Tribunal (NGT), Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT).

Question 5.
What was the focus of the Community Development Programme (1952)?
Answer:
The focus of CDP (1952) was to promote development in rural and remote areas.

Question 6.
What is the significance of the 74th Amendment Act (1952).
Answer:
The 74th Amendment Act gave constitutional status to the municipalities so that they function effectively as units of local government in urban areas.

Question 7.
Name 4 areas that five-year plans focused on.
Answer:
Agriculture, Industrialization, Self-reliance, Infrastructure.

Question 8.
What was the objective of the Twenty Point Programme?
Answer:
The objective of the Twenty Point Programme was poverty eradication and raising of the standard of living, of the people.

Question 9.
Write 2 development programmes to deal with unemployment.
Answer:

• Jawahar Rozgar Yojna (JRY – 1989)
• Mahatma Gandhi Nation Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA – 2005)

Question 10.
What is the role of YASHADA?
Answer:
The role of YASHADA is as an Administrative Training Institute and a State Institute of Rural Development.

1D. Expand the abbreviations.

Question 1.
NITI Aayog
Answer:
NITI Aayog – National Institution for Transforming India.

Question 2.
IRDP
Answer:
IRDP – Integrated Rural Development Programme.

Question 3.
MGNREGA
Answer:
MGNREGA – Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

Question 4.
UIDAI
Answer:
UIDAI – The Unique Identification Authority of India.

Question 5.
JNNURM
Answer:
JNNURM – Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission.

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Citizen participation is significant in development administration.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Development is a process of social and economic change, it is important that people participate actively in it.
• This necessitates peoples’ participation in the process of planning, implementation, and eventual evaluation.

Question 2.
Land reforms were a major development goal in India after independence.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• When India became independent (zamindars). the ownership of agricultural land was mainly concentrated in the hands of a few landowners.
• To solve this issue land reforms were initiated and the land was freed up to be given to the actual tillers of the land e.g., the Zamindari system was abolished.

Question 3.
NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission in 2015.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• In the 1990s India adopted the New Economic Policy that focused on economic liberalisation. In this new setup, there was a need to change the approach to planning.
• In 2015 the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog. India moved away from centralized planning to decentralized planning. The NITI Aayog proposes grassroots planning.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

4. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain how development administration evolved.
Answer:
After the Second World War, several Asian and African nations became independent. They did not want a government that merely carried out routine administration like law and order, external security, revenue, etc. These countries had heterogeneous societies, struggling economies and faced serious challenges like hunger, poverty, and socio-economic inequality. They needed to be planned and properly executed government action which would be holistic i.e., focusing on social change, political development, and economic growth.

The government had to become the instrument of development by taking up tasks like centralized economic planning, promotion of industrial growth, provision of social services, and encouraging people’s participation. The concept of the ‘Welfare State’ which had dominated the early part of the 20th century grows stronger. The state was expected to play a key role in the promotion of the economic and social well-being of its citizens. This led to the idea of the Development Administration.

Question 2.
Explain the features of development administration.
Answer:
Development Administration is the modern approach to public administration. Its features are-
(i) Change-oriented: Development administration seeks to re-orient towards development goals in the socio-economic and political sphere through transformation, innovation, and growth. In India after Independence, the two biggest challenges before the government were food scarcity and poverty, and economic backwardness. Hence, the focus was on agriculture as well as on industrial and infrastructural development.

(ii) Output-oriented: Development administration seeks to achieve certain outcomes on the basis of clear, quantitative norms of performance. This focus on targets motivates, the administration to produce the desired results, for e.g., pegging a target of 8 – 10% growth rate for the economy is a reasonable goal to be achieved.

(iii) Citizen participation: It is necessary that people actively participate in the development processes of planning, implementation and evaluation e.g., the 73rd and 74th amendments are a landmark in the evolution of grassroots democratic institutions both in rural and urban areas in India.

(iv) Public commitment: The process of development is filled with challenges and barriers. Hence, the civil servants (bureaucracy) need to have a strong sense of involvement, commitment, and concern to achieve the development objectives.

Question 3.
What were the goals of development in India post-1947?
Answer:
Post-independent India was struggling to rise from the ill effects of colonial exploitation i.e., from poverty and underdevelopment. The objectives of development in India were hence directed towards resolving these issues.

The goals of development include:
(i) Modernisation of the economy: The focus was on industrialization, which would increase employment facilities as well national income.

(ii) Land Reforms: aimed to free up land which was concentrated in the hands of a few rich landholders (zamindars).

(iii) Agriculture: The focus was to reduce rural poverty by developing agriculture. The use of machines, better fertilizers and pesticides, high yielding seeds, and irrigation would help to increase agricultural production i.e., through the Green Revolution.

(iv) Self-reliance: Although foreign aid was accepted by India for its industrial and infrastructural development, it did not want to be dependent on foreign capital for long.

(v) Socialist pattern of the economy: India decided to adopt the socialist pattern of the economy towards creating a Welfare State and reducing inequalities of wealth and income. The Planning Commission was created and 5-year plans were implemented.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 7 Public Administration Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 7 Public Administration

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Civil Service/Bureaucracy refers to the _____________ executive. (political, temporary, statutory, permanent)
Answer:
permanent

Question 2.
_____________ is also called ‘government in action’. (Federalism, Public Administration, Centralization, Dyarchy)
Answer:
Public Administration

Question 3.
In a narrow perspective, focus is only the _____________ branch of the government. (legislature, judiciary, executive, collector)
Answer:
executive

Question 4.
_____________ is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of Government of India at present. (Planning Commission, NITI Aayog, Election Commission, Comptroller, and Auditor-General)
Answer:
NITI Aayog

Question 5.
India’s central recruiting agency for All-India Services is the _____________ (UPSC, NITI Aayog, HRD Ministry, Finance Ministry)
Answer:
UPSC

Question 6.
Public Administration as academic discipline originated in _____________ (Germany, USA, UK, France)
Answer:
USA

Question 7.
Arthashastra influenced administration during the reign of _____________ (Vikram Aditya, Chandragupta Maurya, Aristotle, Emperor Akbar)
Answer:
Chandragupta Maurya

Question 8.
Gram Panchayats are headed by a _____________ (Sarpanch, Minister, Tehsildar, Gram Sevak)
Answer:
Sarpanch

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Rural areas – Gram Panchayat
(b) Urban areas – Municipal Corporations
(c) Military areas – Town Area Samitis
Answer:
Military areas – Cantonment Boards

Question 2.
(a) Cameralism – George Zincke
(b) Modern Public Administration – Woodrow Wilson.
(c) Adnyapatra – Emperor Akbar
Answer:
Adnyapatra – Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
Science of management as applied to affairs of the state.
Answer:
Public Administration

Question 2.
The step-in administration involves preparing a blueprint.
Answer:
Planning

Question 3.
A new approach to understanding complex government activities.
Answer:
Public Policy

1D. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What is the function of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)?
Answer:
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is India’s central recruitment agency which is responsible for conducting examinations and recruitment for All India Services and Group A, B of Central Services.

Question 2.
What approach has the NITI Aayog adopted?
Answer:
It has adopted a bottom-up approach where planning begins at the grassroots (local) level and then reaches to the top level.

Question 3.
Why is Coordination important in administration?
Answer:
Coordination helps in eliminating any overlapping of work and prevents conflict of responsibility.

Question 4.
Write four specialized functions of the government.
Answer:
Providing education, ensuring public health, promoting agriculture, providing social security are some specialized functions of the government.

Question 5.
Which Public Policy aims to electrify rural India?
Answer:
Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana aims to electrify rural India.

Question 6.
Write some important administrative acts given by the British.
Answer:
Indian Councils Act (1909), Government of India Act (1919) Government of India Act (1935), Local Self Government Act.

Question 7.
What is meant by political neutrality?
Answer:
All civil servants owe allegiance only to the constitution and not to any political party. This is political neutrality.

1E. Complete the following sentences by using the appropriate reasons.

Question 1.
Reporting is important in public administration because
(a) it ensures accountability and responsibility within the administration.
(b) it ensures proper recruitment and training.
(c) it prevents jurisdictional conflict.
Answer:
(a) it ensures accountability and responsibility within the administration.

Question 2.
NITI Aayog is called the ‘Think Tank’ of the government because
(a) it carries out specialized government functions.
(b) it designs strategic and long-term programmes for the Government of India.
(c) It recruits civil servants for administration.
Answer:
(b) it designs strategic and long-term programmes for the Government of India.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Mayor, Sarpanch, Tehsildar, Gram Sevak.
Answer:
Mayor (from urban administration)

Question 2.
Staffing, Directing, Budgeting, CSR.
Answer:
CSR (not included in POSCORB)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Civil Servants must follow the principle of political neutrality.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Civil Service (Bureaucracy) is called the permanent or non-political executive which carries out the implementation of government policy.
• Personnel owes allegiance to the constitution and not to the party in power or to any other party. This is called political neutrality.

Question 2.
NITI Aayog is identified as the ‘Think Tank’ of the government of India.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) was established on 1st January 2015 to provide directional and policy inputs to the government.
• NITI Aayog designs strategic and long-term policies and programmes as well as provides relevant technical advice to both the Union as well as State governments.

Question 3.
Coordination is an important step in public administration.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Gullick and Urwick explained the scope of public administration by the acronym POSDCORB. i.e., planning organization staffing, directing, coordinating, reporting and budgeting.
• Co-ordination involves an interrelation of the different branches and sections of administration to eliminate overlapping and duplication of work.

Question 4.
Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) has great significance today.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The broad perspective of public administration views it as a cooperative group effort, engaged in collaborations with private groups in providing basic services to the community
• CSR means that companies try to integrate social and environmental concerns into their operations as a way to contribute to society. These activities include activities like disaster relief, limiting pollution, social awareness, and educational programmes.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

3. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of Public Administration.
Answer:
Public Administration is a subdiscipline of Political Science. It focuses on ‘government in action’ i.e., implementation of government decisions, policies, and programmes in fields of social security and welfare, law and order, transport and communication, health and sanitation, etc.

The executive branch of government consists of the Political Executive (council of ministers) and Permanent /Non-political Executive or Bureaucracy.

Public Administration as a subject studies the activity and process of the government.
According to Waldo, ‘Public Administration is the art and science of management as applied to the affairs of the state’.

Public Administration broadly includes the following:

• Activities of all three branches of government, especially that of the executive branch.
• Non-political public bureaucracy operating in a political system.
• Management of public affairs and policy execution.
• Concerned with public welfare and hence provides service and regulatory functions to the people to attain a good life.

Question 2.
How did the discipline of Public Administration evolve?
Answer:
Since ancient times, various thinkers have contributed to administrative thought and practice e.g., Kautilya’s ‘Arthashastra’ (a text on administration and political economy), Aristotle’s ‘Politics’ (in ancient Greece), and Machiavelli’s ‘The Prince’ (in Medieval Italy).

In the 18th century, Cameralism in Germany and Austria was concerned with the systematic management of governmental affairs. It stressed descriptive studies of the structure and procedures of public administration as well as the professional training of public officials. George Zincke was the most distinguished scholar of this group.

Public administration as a separate subject of study originated in the USA mainly due to factors like-

• Large scale organisations that arose due to industrialization
• Scientific Management Movement by Taylor.
• The emergence of a welfare state where the government had to perform a variety of functions.

Woodrow Wilson’s celebrated essay ‘The Study of Administration’ (1887) laid the foundation for the systematic, separate study of public administration. He is regarded as ‘The Father of Public Administration’. He advocated politics administration dichotomy i.e., separation of administration from politics, according to him politics is concerned with policy-making while the administration is concerned with the implementation of policy decisions, Wilson emphasized the need to increase government efficiency.

Today, the subject matter of public administration has expanded to include areas like comparative studies, public policy, new public management, and good governance.

Question 3.
Explain Corporate Social Responsibility.
Answer:
Companies try to integrate social and environmental concerns into their business operations. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) is not charity but a way to improve society. CSR activities include work like limiting pollution, disaster relief, clean water, and educational programmes in developing countries, etc.

4. Observe the given image and write in brief about it.

Answer:
In a narrow sense, it focuses on those aspects of administration that are related to only the executive branch of the government. This view was given by Gullick and Urwick in their famous acronym POSDCORB.

P-Planning: The first step in administration is planning where a broad outline or a blueprint is prepared. This happens at all three levels: National, State, and Local, For instance, the NITI Aayog has adopted a bottom-up approach where planning begins at the grassroots level and then reaches the top.

O-Organisation: The planned objectives and goals are achieved by establishing the formal structure of authority through which the work is arranged, defined, and coordinated. For example, All India Services, Central, State, and Local Services.

S-Staffing: Human resources are the backbone of any administrative system. The personnel who actively engage in the process of administration are to be recruited and trained. It is also important to maintain favorable working conditions for them. For example, recruitment through UPSC.

D-Directing: Administration is a continuous activity. Therefore making decisions and embodying them in specific and general orders and instructions is also necessary.

CO-Co-ordination: Administration is a complex and interrelated process hence different parts of organisation such as branches, divisions, sections need to be coordinated. This helps in the elimination of overlapping work and prevents conflict.

R-Reporting: Information related to the ongoing or completed task and its reporting to higher authorities is a key aspect of administration. This ensures accountability and responsibility within the administration.

B-Budgeting: Finance is a key aspect of any activity. Therefore accounting, fiscal planning, and its control are maintained through budgeting.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
___________ equality is reflected in Universal Adult Franchise. (Social, Political, Natural, Economic)
Answer:
Political

Question 2.
In ancient Indian society, justice was associated with ___________ (Moksha, Artha, Dharma, Yodha)
Answer:
Dharma

Question 3.
According to ___________, the state is an instrument of oppression of workers. (Karl Marx, Robert Nozick, Dr. Ambedkar, Plato)
Answer:
Karl Marx

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set and correct it.

Question 1.
(a) Aristotle – The Politics
(b) Thomas Hobbes – Leviathan
(c) Plato – The Republic
(d) Karl Marx – A Theory of Justice
Answer:
(d) Karl Marx – Communist Manifesto or John Rawls – A Theory of Justice

Question 2.
(a) Aristotle – Natural equality
(b) Karl Marx – Classless society
(c) Tarabai Shinde – Emancipation from caste system
(d) Laski – Justice as truth and morality
Answer:
(d) Plato – Justice as truth and morality

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Application of the abstract concept of justice through the implementation of the law.
Answer:
Legal justice

Question 2.
Law treats all citizens equally.
Answer:
Equality before the law

Question 3.
Section of society that owns means of production.
Answer:
‘Haves’

1D. Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
Who propounded the idea of a classless society?
Answer:
Karl Marx propounded the idea of a ‘classless society.

Question 2.
Name two Indian reformers who focused on gender inequality.
Answer:
Mahatma Phule, Mahatma Gandhi focused on gender inequality.

Question 3.
What was Tocqueville’s idea of equality?
Answer:
Tocqueville’s idea of equality developed in the process of abolition of the feudal system and the establishment of democracy.

Question 4.
What is the significance of Article 17?
Answer:
Article 17 deals with the abolition of Untouchability.

Question 5.
What is John Rawls’s view of Justice?
Answer:
John Rawls’s view of justice relates to Distributive Justice and the principle of fairness.

1E. Complete the following sentence using appropriate reason.

Question 2.
Equality is fundamentally a leveling process because
(a) it is an attempt to create conditions where everyone has an equal opportunity to progress.
(b) it refers to the absence of special privileges to or discrimination against any person or group.
(c) it is one of the pillars of democracy.
Answer:
(b) it refers to the absence of special privileges to or discrimination against any person or group.

Question 2.
Karl Marx advocated a socialist system because
(a) it will ensure an equitable distribution of resources.
(b) it advocated procedural justice.
(c) it would lead to capitalism.
Answer:
(a) it will ensure an equitable distribution of resources.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau, Marx.
Answer:
Marx (all others wrote about state of nature)

Question 2.
Socrates, Plato, Aristotle, Rawls.
Answer:
Rawls (all others were ancient Greek thinkers)

Question 3.
Justice Ranade, Dr. Ambedkar, Dr. Amartya Sen, Gandhiji.
Answer:
Dr. Amartya Sen (differing view of equality)

Question 4.
Political equality, Civil equality, Economic equality, Social equality.
Answer:
Political Equality (available only to citizens)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Karl Marx propounded the idea of a classless society.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Karl Marx rejected the liberal view of equality and instead propounded the concept of Socialism. He felt that the State, which is in the hands of the capitalist class (Haves) is an instrument of exploitation of workers.
• A Socialist system will ensure the dignity of workers an equitable distribution of resources and eliminate class distinctions, leading to a classless society.

Question 2.
Absolute equality is neither possible nor desirable.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Equality implies a society where any person is not denied opportunities or facilities merely on criteria such as gender, race, etc. It means the absence of discrimination or special privileges.
• Equality does not mean uniformity Natural inequality is a fact. Absolute equality is not desirable as it will destroy individuality.

Question 3.
Social justice is essentially reformative and distributive.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The concept of social justice implies equal social opportunities for every individual to progress to the fullest possible extent. Social justice is reformative i.e., it aims at a revision of the social order and involves the eradication of existing social evils.
• Social justice is also distributive i.e., available resources should be equitably distributed to ensure social welfare.

Question 4.
Considering the special needs of certain sections of society conflicts with the principle of equality.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• Equality means the absence of discrimination or special privileges to some as well as the presence of adequate opportunities for every individual.
• Consideration of the special needs of some disadvantaged sections of society like women, the disabled, senior citizens, Dalits, tribals, etc. is a democratic necessity and in fact, helps to promote social equality.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

3. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the facets of equality.
Answer:
The facets of equality are:

• Absence of special privileges to or of discriminations against anyone in the matter of socio-economic and political rights. No person or group should have special conditions that are denied to a large majority.
• For e.g., in the caste hierarchy, the lower castes were discriminated against while upper castes flourished, as they had special status and privileges.
• Equality before the law and equal protection of the law – The law is equally applicable to everyone irrespective of economic or social status, race, creed, etc.
• Equality of opportunity – To enhance one’s potential and to develop one’s personality irrespective of considerations like ethnicity, gender, community, etc., deprived sections must have provisions for education, employment, and social well-being to enable fair competition with others.
• Absolute equality is neither possible nor desirable as equality in no way implies uniformity.

Question 2.
Explain Karl Marx’s view of equality and justice.
Answer:
Karl Marx rejected the liberal idea of equality and propounded the socialist idea of equality. According to him, equality can be achieved through the creation of a classless society. Marx gave importance to the emancipation of workers from exploitation and stressed equal distribution of means of production. According to him, equality thus achieved would be different from the liberal ideas of equality.

Karl Marx considered the State as an instrument of exploitation of workers. This instrument was in the hands of the capitalist class. Since laws are made by the State, it is natural that they protect the interests of the capitalists. Marx maintained that the transformation of the capitalist system into a socialist system will ensure an equitable distribution of resources. The socialist system gives a priority to the right to equality of the ‘have-nots’ rather than the right of property of the ‘haves’. Thus, according to Marx, implementing socialist agenda is considered to be justice, and that the judiciary should be committed to Socialism.

Question 3.
Explain John Rawl’s concept of justice.
Answer:
John Rawls was an advocate of Social Justice, who advocated the concept of Distributive Justice. Rawl’s theory of social justice focuses on the just desire of individuals in society. In his book, ‘A Theory of Justice’, Rawls argues that the concept of freedom and equality are not mutually exclusive. He concludes that for justice to be truly just, everyone must be accorded the same rights under the law.

Rawls has put forth two principles of social justice:

• Fundamental rights and duties must be uniformly acceptable. A system can be just only when those at the bottom of the system are able to benefit from it.
• There must be equality of opportunity for all the public offices that are available. This is Rawls’s concept of fairness.

Question 4.
Explain the three indicators of equality.
Answer:
The concept of equality is a central idea of political philosophy. There are three indicators of this concept-

• Welfare equality: Fulfillment of needs of an individual is more important than what is readily available for him.
• Equality of resources: It means equitable distribution of the available resources.
• Equality of capabilities: The usage of resources by people is more important than merely the availability of those resources.

4. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain equality.
(i) Meaning of Equality
(ii) Facets of Equality
(iii) Importance of Equality
Answer:
(i) Meaning: Equality is an important ideal in society. Equality does not mean uniformity. It signifies that all human beings have equal worth, irrespective of their ethnicity, religion, caste, etc. Today, equality is looked at as a political goal as well as the basis of Liberty and Justice. It has a moral and collective dimension as it includes empathy and tolerance.

Natural inequalities are a reality since humans are not equal in physical or intellectual aspects. The struggle for equality is to do away with the restrictions and burdens of man-made inequalities that are created on the basis of religion, caste, race, status, wealth, etc. Equality is the attempt to create conditions where every individual is given equal opportunity to develop and progress.

(ii) The facets of equality are:

• Absence of special privileges to or of discriminations against anyone in the matter of socio-economic and political rights. No person/group should have special conditions that are denied to a large majority. For e.g., In the caste hierarchy, the lower castes were discriminated against while upper castes flourished.
• Equality before the law and equal protection of the law – The law is equally applicable to everyone irrespective of economic or social status, race, creed, etc.
• Equality of opportunity – To enhance one’s potential and to develop one’s personality irrespective of considerations like ethnicity, gender, community, etc. Deprived sections must have provisions for education, employment, and social wellbeing to enable fair competition with others.
• Absolute equality is neither possible nor desirable as equality in no way implies uniformity.

(iii) Importance of Equality:

• Equality is necessary to uphold the dignity of the individual.
• It is necessary to create a just society.
• It is necessary to promote mutual respect among members of society.
• It helps to bring about the fraternity.
• Liberty and equality are the cornerstones of a democracy.

Question 2.
Explain the types of equality.
(i) Natural Equality
(ii) Social Equality
(iii) Civil Equality
(iv) Political Equality
(v) Economic Equality
Answer:
(i) Natural Equality considers that all human beings are equal though they differ in inabilities. Every person should get an equal opportunity to develop his/her potential. Early Greek thinkers like Plato and Aristotle did not believe in natural equality. However, thinkers like Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau explained natural equality in the ‘State of Nature’.

(ii) Social Equality refers to the absence of unreasonable social barriers or discrimination such as those based on race, religion, caste, gender, status, etc. No person must be viewed as superior or inferior merely on the basis of birth, ethnicity, or social position. However, social inequality is prevalent all over the world even today. Legislations, education, and economic progress can help to reduce social inequality for e.g., in India Article 17 of the constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability.

(iii) Civil Equality means that civil rights are equally available to all individuals. There is equality before the law and equal protection of the law. However, special laws made for the protection or upliftment of weaker sections of society such as tribals, backward classes, women, etc., do not violate the principle of equality.

(iv) Political Equality is possible only in a democracy. It refers to the right of citizens to participate in the affairs of the state. It is based on the principle of political participation and Universal Adult Franchise.

(v) Economic Equality – When wealth is concentrated in the hands of a few (economic inequality), then political power and social ranking are also monopolized by them, resulting in exploitation of the underprivileged sections of society.
Economic equality does not imply equal distribution of wealth or equal income irrespective of the nature of work.

Economic equality implies the following:

• Reduction in wide disparities of wealth.
• Prevention of concentration of wealth and income in the hands of a few persons.
• Absence of any kind of economic exploitation, denial, or subjugation.
• Availability of essential goods and services i.e. minimum needs must be satisfied first.
• Reasonable economic opportunities for individuals to develop themselves and to progress.
• Adequate scope for work and for decent wages.

Question 3.
Explain Justice.
(i) Meaning of Justice
(ii) Types of Justice
Answer:
(i) Meaning: Justice implies righteousness which is used as a basis for judging values and conduct. It is an ancient concept. Greek philosopher, Socrates considered justice as a political virtue. Plato identified justice with truth and morality while Aristotle expressed that justice can be achieved in a society only when there is equality and balance. In ancient India, justice was associated with the concept of ‘Dharma’. The term justice refers to ‘a state of affairs in which every individual has exactly those burdens and benefits which are due to him.

(ii) Types of Justice:

• Natural Justice – This concept is linked to the very existence of human beings and was advocated by ancient Greek and Roman philosophers. Humans can intrinsically and universally understand concepts of right and wrong. Hence there is no need for man-made law.
• Legal Justice – John Austina considered law as a means to eliminate injustice and to establish a just society. Justice is a precondition to law.
• Social Justice – The concept of social justice implies equal social opportunities for every individual to progress to the fullest possible extent. Social justice is reformative i.e., it aims at a revision of the social order. It involves the eradication of existing social evils.Socialjusticeisalsohisfridufioei.e., available resources should be equitably distributed to ensure social welfare. It is not just related to individuals or groups, but to society at large. Social justice is dynamic i.e. it modifies according to changing needs and situations.

The two approaches of social justice are

• Procedural justice advocated by Nozick i.e., everyone should be treated equally before the law and proper legal procedures must be followed.
• Social justice was propagated by Marx, Rawls, and Dr. Ambedkar.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The word ‘liberty’ is derived from the Latin word _________ (libre, liber, libel, little)
Answer:
liber

Question 2.
_________ viewed liberty from a collective perspective. (Rousseau, Hobbes, Bentham, Mill)
Answer:
Rousseau

Question 3.
_________ rights are granted by the state and are codified in law. (Natural, Moral, Legal, National)
Answer:
Legal

Question 4.
Part _________ of the Indian Constitution deals with fundamental rights. (I, II, III, IV)
Answer:
III

Question 5.
Right to _________ was introduced as fundamental right in 2002. (Education, Information, Property, Privacy)
Answer:
Education

Question 6.
Right to _________ was removed as a fundamental right in 1978. (Education, Information, Property, Privacy)
Answer:
Property

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Herbert Marcuse – German-American Philosopher
(b) John Locke – American Philosopher
(c) Thomas Hobbes – English Philosopher
(d) Friedrich Hayek – Anglo-Austrian Philosopher
Answer:
(b) John Locke – English philosopher

Question 2.
(a) Isaiah Berlin – Two concepts of liberty
(b) John Stuart Mill – On liberty
(c) Herbert Marcuse – One Dimensional man
(d) Jean-Jacques Rousseau – Eros and Civilization
Answer:
(d) Jean – Jacques Rousseau – The Social Contract or Herbert Marcuse – Eros and civilisation.

Question 3.
(a) Jeremy Bentham – The greatest happiness of the greatest numbers
(b) Jean-Jacques Rousseau – The General Will
(c) Isaiah Berlin – I am a slave to no man
(d) Mahatma Gandhi – Promoted western education and culture
Answer:
(d) Mahatma Gandhi – Freedom from western cultural domination.

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
A political ideology whose central theme is based on individualism.
Answer:
Liberalism

Question 2.
Type of liberalism based on the concept of “minimum government”.
Answer:
Classical liberalism

Question 3.
Type of liberalism which advocates a free-market economy.
Answer:
Neoliberalism

Question 4.
Type of liberalism which propounds role of Welfare State.
Answer:
Modern liberalism

Question 5.
The aspect of liberty is expressed by Berlin’s statement “I am my own master”.
Answer:
Positive liberty

Question 6.
Universal Rights are based on human nature.
Answer:
Natural rights

1D. Answer in one sentence only.

Question 1.
What is national liberty?
Answer:
Freedom from foreign rule i.e., political independence means national liberty.

Question 2.
What does Locke’s concept of liberty focus on?
Answer:
Locke’s concept of liberty focuses on the absence of unreasonable restraints and the freedom of choice.

Question 3.
Who is considered as the ‘Father of the French Revolution?
Answer:
Jean-Jacques Rousseau is considered the ‘Father of the French Revolution.

Question 4.
Which English philosophers considered liberty as a natural right?
Answer:
English philosophers such as John Locke and Thomas Hobbes considered liberty as a natural right.

Question 5.
What were Isaiah Berlin’s two concepts of liberty?
Answer:
Isaiah Berlin’s two concepts of liberty include positive liberty and negative liberty.

Question 6.
What was Jeremy Bentham’s principle of liberty?
Answer:
Jeremy Bentham’s principle of liberty was ‘the greatest happiness of the greatest numbers.

Question 7.
What forms of liberalism contributed to the concept of negative liberty?
Answer:
Classical and Neoclassical liberalism is contributed to the concept of negative liberty.

Question 8.
Why does Marcuse support state interference in an individual’s life?
Answer:
Marcuse advocates collective control to be essential in community life as a principle of positive liberty and hence supports state interference in the individual’s life.

Question 9.
What is the literal meaning of ‘Swaraj’.
Answer:
‘Swa’ (self) and ‘Raj’ (rule) hence Swaraj implies ‘self-rule’ or self-governance.

Question 10.
What are natural rights?
Answer:
Natural rights are rights that are part are of human nature and reason.

Question 11.
When was the Universal Declaration of Human Rights made?
Answer:
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was made On 10th December 1948.

1E. Complete the following sentence by using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
John Locke does not advocate unrestrained freedom as –
(a) Liberty means the absence of restraint and freedom of choice
(b) personal interests should be kept aside for social interest.
(c) liberty is a hurdle-less situation.
Answer:
(a) Liberty means the absence of restraint and freedom of choice

Question 2.
According to Gandhiji, the concept of ‘Swaraj’ was liberty as –
(a) It implied freedom from colonial rule.
(b) It implied social reformation
(c) It gives importance to self-governance and humanitarian values.
Answer:
(c) It gives importance to self-governance and humanitarian values.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Fredrick Hayek, Robert Nozick, Jean-Jacques Rousseau, J. S. Mill
Answer:
Jean-Jacques Rousseau (positive liberty)

Question 2.
Right to Life, Right to Vote, Right to Contest Elections, Right to Criticize the Government.
Answer:
Right to Life (civil right)

Question 3.
Right to Equality, Right to Property, Right to Education, Right against exploitation.
Answer:
Right to Property (not a fundamental right)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Right to Property is a Fundamental Right in India.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• The Right to Property was a fundamental right. However, in 1978, by the 44th Amendment Act, this right was removed as a fundamental right.
• At present, the Right to property is a Statutory Right (Article – 300A).

Question 2.
Liberty and Rights are inseparable.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Rights help to strengthen liberty. Liberty itself consists of various civil, political, and economic rights.
• Thus, rights and liberty are two sides of the same coin.

Question 3.
National liberty is the foundation of all liberties.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• National liberty refers to freedom from foreign rule.
• True liberty can be enjoyed by individuals only when they exist in an independent, democratic state.

Question 4.
Human Rights are universal.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• Human Rights refer to the rights that people are entitled to simply because they are human beings.
• An individual can achieve his/her full potential only when one is free to make the best use of available opportunities.
• Human Rights are based on the principle of dignity and the inherent worth of an individual.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

3. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Enumerate the fundamental rights in the Indian constitution.
Answer:
Part III (Articles 12 – 35) of the Indian Constitution spells out the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens. The Constitution guarantees six fundamental rights which are

• Right to Equality
• Right to Freedom
• Right against Exploitation
• Right to Freedom of Religion
• Cultural and Educational Rights and
• Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 2.
Explain Rousseau’s concept of liberty.
Answer:
Rousseau looked at liberty from a collective perspective. According to him, an individual should keep personal interests aside for social interests. His concept of liberty frees the individual from a class-based system and inequality. According to him, inequality is an obstacle to the attainment of liberty. He maintains that liberty frees an individual from the hurdles created by the rise of civil and political society.

He describes two hurdles on liberty:

• One which prohibits an individual to think about public interest
• One is created due to inequality in society.

Rousseau did not consider liberty as a natural right as advocated by Hobbes and Locke. He believed that society comes together to protect the life and interest of the individual. Therefore, he gave more importance to emancipation from social inequality. He also stressed the freedom of choice and availability of favorable conditions in the concept of liberty. He believed that obedience to moral laws will enhance liberty. According to Rousseau, the state is a sovereign power that represents the ‘General Will’. Hence he supports the idea of state control over the individual.

Question 3.
Explain the Indian Concept of Liberty.
Answer:
Traditionally, in India liberty is a spiritual idea signifying ‘salvation or emancipation from the cycle of birth and rebirth’. However, in modern times, liberty is understood as liberation from social constraints.
In British India, the concept of liberty was accepted as

• Laws were made by the British for the protection of individual rights e.g., the law for the abolition of Sati.
• Views of great reformers like Mahatma Phule, Dr. Ambedkar. They believed liberty means freedom from caste inequality as well as from social constraints i.e., the liberation of lower castes from the domination of the upper castes.
• Mahatma Gandhi accepted the concept of Swaraj as liberty. This was a comprehensive concept that included freedom from British rule and western cultural domination. It gives more importance to self-governance, self-discipline, and human values.

Question 4.
List the human rights enumerated in the U.D.H.R.
Answer:
U.D.H.R. was made on 10th December 1948. It consists of 30 articles that elaborate on civil, political, social, and economic rights. The U.D.H.R. expresses a strong belief in the principles of liberty, equality, justice, and fraternity. It is an attempt to eliminate forms of injustice and discrimination so that everyone is entitled to live with dignity and respect.

U.D.H.R. includes

• Civil rights such as the right to life, right to liberty, right to freedom of thought and expression right to religious freedom, etc.
• Political rights such as the right to franchise, to political participation, to criticize the government, etc.
• Social rights such as the right against any form of denial, injustice, exploitation, torture, etc. It also includes the right to health, education leisure, etc.
• Economic rights such as the right to work, right to a livelihood, right to just and humane work conditions, etc.

4. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate the concept of Rights –
(i) Civil Rights
(ii) Political Rights
Answer:
(i) Civil Rights: These rights are personal rights of the individual according to reasonable limits laid down by the law. This includes universally recognized rights like the right to

• Freedom of thought and expression.
• Freedom of religion, conscience, and worship
• Freedom of movement, association, and assembly
• Freedom from fear and want.

(ii) Political Rights: These rights are available only to citizens in a democracy. They include

• right to vote
• right to stand for elections
• right to hold public office
• right to hold public views and to criticize the government.

Activity

Find out various Supreme Court cases that have focused on the rights and liberty of Indian citizens.
Answer:

• Supreme Court declares the Right to Privacy as a fundamental right that is intrinsic to life and liberty. This was declared in the K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India by a bench of judges headed by the then Chief Justice J. S. Khehar.
• Supreme Court in September 2018 decriminalized gay sex (Section 377). This was a vestige of British colonial rule.
• Supreme Court set aside ‘instant talaq’ (talaq-e-bidat) on the basis that it violated constitutional provisions. This was on a petition by Shayara Bano (2016).

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Important Questions Chapter 1 The State Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Political Science Important Questions Chapter 1 The State

1A. Choose the appropriate alternative and complete the following statements.

Questions 1.
___________ is the agency of the state through which its will is formulated, expressed, and realized. (Jurisdiction, Government, Sovereignty, Legitimacy)
Answer:
Government

Question 2.
The principle of ‘self-determination of nations’ was advocated by ___________ (Woodrow Wilson, Pandit Nehru, Aristotle, Jean Bodin)
Answer:
Woodrow Wilson

Question 3.
___________ type of nationalism is reflected in liberation struggles. (Aggressive, Regressive, Progressive, Expansionist)
Answer:
Progressive

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Liberal Nationalism – French Revolution
(b) Expansionist Nationalism – British Imperialism
(c) Anticolonial Nationalism – Indian Freedom Struggle
(d) Conservative Nationalism – Anti-Apartheid Struggle
Answer:
(d) Conservative Nationalism – Israeli Nationalism.

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
A politically organized society within a definite territory.
Answer:
State

Question 2.
A spirit of a common consciousness that binds a community together.
Answer:
Nationalism

Question 3.
The right of a section of people having unity to decide what type of government they prefer.
Answer:
Self-determination

Question 4.
Type of nationalism that promotes imperialism and colonialism.
Answer:
Expansionist Nationalism

Question 5.
A people organized for law within a definite territory.
Answer:
State

Question 6.
Authority of the government to take decisions in the public interest.
Answer:
Legitimacy

1D. Answer in one sentence only.

Question 1.
Name the four elements of a State.
Answer:
The four elements of a State are population, territory, government, and sovereignty.

Question 2.
Name the three organs of a government.
Answer:
The three organs of a government are Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary.

Question 3.
When does a ‘nation’ become a state?
Answer:
A ‘nation’ becomes a state when it has a specific territory, population, sovereignty, and an independent government.

Question 4.
What does the territory of a state include?
Answer:
Territory includes land area, the airspace over it, and the territorial waters along the coastline.

Question 5.
Name some nationalities that were part of the Soviet Union.
Answer:
Russian, Ukrainian, Latvian, and Estonian.

Question 6.
Write some factors that promote nationalism.
Answer:
Some factors that promote nationalism are common race, religion, language, etc.

Question 7.
What is the main premise of liberal nationalism?
Answer:
The main premise of liberal nationalism is that every nation has the right to freedom and self-determination.

Question 8.
What does ‘nationalism’ refer to?
Answer:
Nationalism is a force that holds the people to a sense of political loyalty to the country.

1E. Complete the following sentences by using the appropriate reasons.

Question 1.
In political terms, Maharashtra cannot be called a State because
(a) it lacks a stable government.
(b) it is under the control of the Union Government.
(c) it is a State within Indian territory but not a Sovereign unit.
Answer:
(c) it is a State within Indian territory but not a Sovereign unit.

Question 2.
After the First World War, liberal nationalism was noticed in many countries because
(a) the collapse of many empires led to demand for self-determination.
(b) these countries became colonial.
(c) these nations did not want another World War to happen.
Answer:
(a) the collapse of many empires led to a demand for self-determination.

1F. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Executive, Legislature, Judiciary, Nation-State.
Answer:
Nation-State (not an organ of government)

Question 2.
Palestine, Sri Lanka, Canada, Israel.
Answer:
Palestine (not a State)

Question 3.
Population, Territory, Community, Sovereignty.
Answer:
Community (not an element of State)

2A. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Powers of the government are delegated.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The government is the agency through which the will of the State is formulated and expressed.
• Thus the government is an element of the state and only has powers given to it by the state.

Question 2.
India is a member of the SAARC. Hence, it is not sovereign.
Answer:
This statement is False.

• India has voluntarily accepted membership of the SAARC – a regional organization.
• This membership in no way encroaches on any aspect of India’s sovereignty.

Question 3.
Nomadic tribes cannot be called a state.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• The four elements of a State are population, territory, government, and sovereignty.
• Nomadic tribes do not possess a fixed geographical area (territory) so they cannot be called a State.

Question 4.
India becomes a state in 1950.
Answer:
This statement is True.

• India becomes politically independent in 1947 but become a sovereign state only on 26th January 1950.
• This was when the Constitution came into force and India declared itself as the Sovereign Democratic Republic.

2B. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

3A. Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
State – Government.
Answer:
The terms State and Government are often used interchangeably. However, they are different concepts. The state is a political organization. Government is an agency of the State through which the will of the State is formulated, expressed, and realized.

Government is the main wing of the state. Its main nature is administrative. Law and order, welfare, etc. are some of the main functions of the State. These functions are performed through the government organs such as the Executive, Legislature, and Judiciary.

Powers of the government are delegated. The state is a universal, permanent institution while the Government exists in different forms for a specific period. All persons within its territory are members of the State while the number of members in the government is limited.

3B. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Nationalism is a potent force that can either unite or destroy.
Answer:
I agree with this statement.

Nationalism refers to a spirit of psychological oneness or common consciousness that binds a community together. It is an expression of emotionality.

There are many factors that promote nationalism such as culture and language, common race, religion, geographical area, history, and political aspirations. Many times, these very factors may also lead to problems among the people and hence be destructive. Indian nationalism united the people in their struggle for liberation from British colonialism. However, religious diversity and the ‘Two Nation Theory’ put forth by the Muslim League led to the partition and creation of India and West and East Pakistan in 1947.

Although religion was a unifying factor in the national spirit of Pakistan, it wasn’t enough to sustain national integration. East and West Pakistan were separated by the landmass of India and because of linguistic, cultural, and historical differences, the common consciousness dimmed. East Pakistan demanded political independence and in 1971, the State of Bangladesh was formed. Progressive nationalism can help national integration and development while aggressive nationalism is destructive in nature.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What are the features of a Nation?
Answer:
The word ‘nation’ is derived from the Latin word ‘Nasci’ meaning ‘to be born’. Thus, the literal meaning of a nation is a people having a common race /ethnicity or cultural linkages. Earnest Barker defines a nation as a body of men, inhabiting a definite territory, who normally are drawn from different races but possess a common stock of thoughts and feelings acquired and transmitted during the course of common history.

A nation refers to a large group of people, united in common bonds of geography, race, history, religion, language, sharing common objectives.

Features of a Nation:

• Population: A nation must have a population that has a sense of ethnic, historical, and cultural oneness.
• Feeling of community: The emotional dimension of a nation is a perception held by the population of psychological oneness i.e., they are a community.
• Desire to be politically separate: A feeling of unity and of being a nation is a product of the urge for ‘self-determination’. This can lead to a demand for self-governance. This signifies that people who feel united should have the right to decide the type of government that they prefer.

Question 2.
What is Nationalism? Explain its types.
Answer:
Nationalism is a force that binds the people to a sense of integrity and loyalty to their country. It is a spirit of oneness or common consciousness that binds a community together. Nationalism is a sense of political identity and emotional attachment to one’s ‘homeland’.
The forms of Nationalism from a political perspective are:

• Liberal Nationalism: Its origins are in the ideals of the French Revolution. President Woodrow Wilson linked the concept of a nation to the right to self-determination and sovereignty.
• Conservative Nationalism: It views a nation as a closely linked society with great importance to patriotism and the concept of ‘motherland’.
• Expansionist Nationalism: It is aggressive nationalism, which leads to imperialism, conquest, and colonialism. It has been seen in European imperialism by countries like England, Italy, Spain, France, etc.
• Anticolonial Nationalism: It refers to liberation struggles for independence from colonial rule, e.g., Indonesian freedom struggle from Dutch colonial rule.

5. Answer the following question in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the following elements of the State.
(i) Sovereignty
(iii) Government
(iii) Population
(iv) Territory
Answer:
(i) Sovereignty: It signifies the supreme power of the State internally as well as externally. It means an independent nation with its own constitution.

(ii) Government: This refers to the agency through which the will of the state is expressed. Modern governments have three organs viz. legislature, executive, and judiciary. Government must be independent. Institutions of the State are ‘public’ institutions and have the legitimacy to act on behalf of the State. These institutions are responsible for making and implementing laws to promote the general welfare of the people. There are various kinds of government based on their creation or style of function for e.g., democracy or dictatorship, republic or monarchy, presidential or parliamentary system, etc.

(iii) Population: A State is an association of human beings. The progress of a State depends on the quality of the population. Some states viz. China, India, etc., have a large population while some States have a small population viz. Monaco, Belgium, etc. The population may be homogeneous e.g., Israel, or diverse e.g. erstwhile USSR comprised of many nationalities like Russians, Ukrainians, Latvians, etc. Thus a ‘State’ may comprise of many ‘nations’.

(iv) Territory: A State is recognized by its territory. This includes the land area within its boundaries, the airspace above the area, and surrounding territorial waters (up to 12 nautical miles). The area within which the State has the authority to govern is called its jurisdiction. Some states have a small territory e.g., Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Maldives, etc., while other States e.g., Brazil, Russia, India, and Australia have a large territory. Most States have compact territory e.g., India, while some states which exist as islands have scattered territory e.g., Indonesia.

6. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
How does nationalism discourage imperialism?
Answer:
Nationalism discourages imperialism and colonialism. The resistance to any form of external occupation is one of the features of nationalism. National liberation struggles or freedom struggles across the world are a product of nationalism. It thus encourages self-determination e.g., India’s struggle for freedom from European colonialism.

Question 2.
Explain ‘legitimacy of government’.
Answer:
All citizens are members of the State. Decisions are taken in the public interest by the government of the State. This authority of the State to make decisions is called legitimacy. The State has the legitimacy to take decisions in the interest of the people.

Question 3.
Explain the ‘jurisdiction’ of a State.
Answer:
The area of the State within which it has the authority to govern is called its jurisdiction. Thus, Jurisdiction is the legal power that the State has to take decisions.

Question 4.
Describe the ‘territory’ of a State.
Answer:
The territory is an essential element of a State. It includes

• The actual land within the national boundaries.
• The territorial waters along the coastline. This is up to 12 nautical miles (22.2 km or 13.8 miles) along the coastline.
• The air space above its territory (there is no international law on the height of this air space.)

Question 5.
What is a multinational state?
Answer:
States may comprise of many ‘nationalities’ living together. For example, the Soviet Union had people of many nationalities like Russians, Lithuanians, Latvians, Estonians, Ukrainians, etc. Similarly, the United Kingdom consists of England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland.

Question 6.
Do state and nation convey the same meaning?
Answer:
The terms ‘state’ and ‘nation’ appear to have the same meaning and are often used interchangeably, However, technically there is a difference. A nation has a sense of ‘oneness’ that is psychological and is born out of commonness of ethnicity and race, culture and history, religion, language, etc. The State is a politically organized society within a definite territory. It is used to describe a sovereign country having an independent government in a specific territory.

Question 7.
Write about President Wilson’s Fourteen Point speech.
Answer:
The Fourteen Point put forward by President Woodrow Wilson of the USA was a statement of principles for peace outlined in a speech on January 8, 1918. It aids an outline for stable, long-lasting peace in Europe, the Americas, and the rest of the world, following the First World War. It also visioned ‘self-determination of nations.

7. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
State and Government
Answer:

State	Government
(i) State is an abstract concept.	(i) Government is a concrete reality.
(ii) State is more extensive than a government. It includes all public institutions and all members of the society as citizens.	(ii) Government is a part of the State.
(iii) A State is permanent in nature.	(iii) A Government exists for a specific time period.
(iv) The State is an impersonal authority. It is politically neutral.	(iv) The government has an ideological agenda. It wants to implement policies to achieve that agenda.
(v) The State is a sovereign entity.	(v) The source of the authority of the Government is the State.

Question 2.
State and Nation
Answer:

State	Nation
(i) A State is a community of persons who occupy a definite territory, have an organized government, and are independent of external control.	(i) A Nation is a group of people who are united in common ties of culture, history, religion, language, etc.
(ii) A State is known by a fixed, permanent territory.	(ii) A Nation does not need a territory and can be spread across many States.
(iii) State is a political-legal entity. It is a formal and objective condition in law.	(iii) A Nation is a historical-cultural entity. It is a subjective, psychological condition of the spirit.
(iv) The State has coercive power and functions through its laws.	(iv) A Nation has no coercive power but functions through its common ties and psychological spirit.

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 History Important Questions Chapter 16 Swarajya to Empire (Maratha Period) Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th History Important Questions Chapter 16 Swarajya to Empire (Maratha Period)

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete sentences.

Question 1.
___________ defeated the Yadavas of Devgiri.
(a) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Muhmmad Tughluq
(c) Hasan Gangu Bahamani
(d) Qutubuddin Aibak
Answer:
(a) Alauddin Khalji

Question 2.
After the end of Nizamshahi rule, Shahaji Raje accepted the rank of a Mansabdar in the ___________ court.
(a) Qutubshahi
(b) Imadshahi
(c) Baridshahi
(d) Adilshahi
Answer:
(d) Adilshahi

Question 3.
___________ is regarded as the visionary of Swarajya.
(a) Veermata Jeejabai
(b) Shahaji Raje
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
(d) Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj
Answer:
(b) Shahaji Raje

Question 4.
He took over the fort of ___________ and laid the foundation of Swarajya.
(a) Raigad
(b) Pratapgad
(c) Torana
(d) Sinhgad
Answer:
(c) Torana

Question 5.
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj established the first capital of Swaraiva at the fort of ___________
(a) Rajgad
(b) Pratapgad
(c) Raj gad
(d) Vishalgad
Answer:
(a) Rajgad

1B. Find the incorrect pair from set B and write the correct ones.

Question 1.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) ‘Yatharthdeepika’	Vaman Pandit
(b) ‘Naladamayanti Swayamvara’	Raghunath Pandit
(c) Pandavapratapa	Shridhar Pandit
(d) Translation of Mahabharata	Mahipati

Answer:
(d) Translation of Mahabharata – Moropant

Question 2.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) ‘Gulshane-i-Ibrahimi’	History of India
(b) ‘Rajyavyavaharakosha’	A text on Maratha polity
(c) ‘Budhabhushan’	Overview of ancient texts on polity
(d) ‘Nayikabhed	Text in Brij literature

Answer:
(b) ‘Rajyavyavaharakosha’ – A compilation of Sanskrit lexicon for Persian terms

Question 3.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Diwan	Military Chief
(b) Majumdar	Auditor and Accountant
(c) Phadnis	Deputy Auditor
(d) Sabnis	Office in-charge

Answer:
(a) Diwan – Secretary

Question 4.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Karkhanis	Commissary
(b) Chitnis	Religious Officer
(c) Jamdar	Treasurer
(d) Potdar	Assay Master

Answer:
(b) Chitnis – Correspondence Clerk

1C. Find the odd one out.

Question 1.
Temples of Nashik:
(a) Mahadev
(b) Kalaram
(c) Goraram
(d) Sundarnarayan
Answer:
(a) Mahadev

Question 2.
Shahirs is known for beautiful composition:
(a) Anantafandi
(b) Prabhakar
(c) Ramjoshi
(d) Tulsidas
Answer:
(d) Tulsidas

Question 3.
Persons included in special posts of Ashtapradhans:
(a) Dhanaji
(b) Peshwa
(c) Mantri
(d) Senapati
Answer:
(a) Dhanaji

2A. Write the names of historical places, persons, and events.

Question 1.
Powerful General sent by the court of Bijapur against Chh. Shivaji Maharaj
Answer:
Afzal Khan

Question 2.
Portuguese Shipbuilders
Answer:
Rui Leitao Viegas and his son Fernao Viegas

Question 3.
Disguised himself as Chh. Shivaji Maharaj
Answer:
Shiva Kashid

Question 4.
Text ‘Nayikabhed’was written in this language
Answer:
Brij

Question 5.
Afghani Pathans are known as
Answer:
Rohillas

2B. Choose the correct reason and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
___________ was the leader of the Rohillas.
(a) Najib Khan
(b) Nizamshah
(c) Adilshah
(d) None of them
Answer:
(a) Najib Khan

Question 2.
After Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj, ___________ took over the reins at Raigad.
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
(b) Chhatrapati Rajaram Maharaj
(c) Chhatrapati Shahu Maharaj
(d) Shiva Maharaj
Answer:
(a) Chhatrapati Rajaram Maharaj

Question 3.
___________ defeated the Yadavas of Devgiri and the rule of Delhi Sultans began in south India.
(a) Akbar
(b) Babur
(c) Humayun
(d) Alauddin Khalji
Answer:
(d) Alauddin Khalji

3. Observe the map on page 123 of your textbook and answer the following questions based on it.

Question 1.
Write the names of Seats of Maratha power.
Answer:
Gaikwads of Vadodara, Shindes of Gwalior, Bhosales of Tanjavar, Bhosales of Nagpur, Pawars of Dhar, Holkars of Indore.

Question 2.
Write the extent of Chh. Shivaji Maharaj’s Swarajya.
Answer:
The regions in Maharashtra including Nashik, Pune, Satara, Sangli, Kolhapur, Sindhudurga, Ratnagiri, Raigad; Belgaum, Karwar, Dharwad in Karnataka; some regions of Andhra, Jinji, and Vellore in Tamil Nadu comprised Swarajya.

Question 3.
Name the places in Maratha Empire that are in today’s Pakistan.
Answer:
Attock, Peshawar, Multan, Lahore.

4. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

5. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Maratha-Adilshahi Relations
Answer:

• The inception of Swarajya- After joining the Adilshahi court, Shahaji Maharaj entrusted the administration of his Jahagirs at Pune, Shirwal, and Supe region (pargana) to Chh. Shivaji Maharaj.
• Yet the forts located in those Jahagirs and nearby areas were in the custody of Adilshahi court. The one ‘who owns the forts owns the land’ was the ruling of the day.
• Hence, Chh. Shivaji Maharaj began with capturing the forts in the vicinity of his Jahagirs.
• He took over the fort of Torana and laid the foundation of Swarajya.
• Chh. Shivaji Maharaj established the first capital of Swarajya at the fort of Rajgad.

Javali episode – Chandrarao More proved to be a hindrance in Chh. Shivaji Maharaj’s efforts to create Swarajya. Chh. Shivaji Maharaj successfully took over Javali. After this victory the activities of Chh. Shivaji Maharaj in Konkan was escalated.

Afzal Khan – Realising the danger of the increasing activities of Chh. Shivaji Maharaj, the Bijapur court sent their powerful General Afzal Khan to curb the increasing power of Chh. Shivaji Maharaj. Chh. Shivaji Maharaj had anticipated the intentions of Afzal Khan who had taken up the challenge of killing Chh. Shivaji Maharaj. He met Afzal Khan at Pratapgad. As expected, Afzal khan attempted treachery but Chh. Shivaji Maharaj was well prepared and killed Afzal khan in self-defense. Afzal Khan’s huge army was set on the run and huge booty and weapons were collected left behind by them. This made Swarajya’s treasury richer.

Siddi Jauhar – After Afzal Khan’s defeat, the Bijapur court sent Siddi Jauhar to attack Swarajya. He seized the fort of Panhala and closed all possibilities of escape for Chh. Shivaji Maharaj. In this difficult situation Shiva Kashid, a loyal servant of Swarajya, disguised himself as Chh. Shivaji Maharaj and made it easy for Chh. Shivaji Maharaj to escape.

When Siddi came to know the truth, he killed Shiva Kashid. Thus, Shiva Kashid sacrificed his life for the cause of Swarajya. Baji Prabhu took up the task of blocking Siddhi Masud’s path in Ghodkhind and stop him in his chase of Chh. Shivaji Maharaj. Baji Prabhu was successful in doing this. He fell dead only after receiving the news of Chh. Shivaji Maharaj reaching Vishalgad safely.

Question 2.
Maratha – Mughal Relations
Answer:

• At the time of ascending the throne, Aurangzeb was aware of the ambitious plans of Chh. Shivaji Maharaj.
• He sent his maternal uncle Shaistakhan on an expedition against Chh. Shivaji Maharaj.
• Shaistakhan camped in Lai Mahal in Pune. Chh. Shivaji Maharaj who knew Shaistakhan’s intentions manages to enter the Lai Mahal and cut off Shaistakhan’s fingers.
• Shaistakhan had no alternative but to hastily leave Lai Mahal. Chh. Shivaji Maharaj gained more confidence and he attacked Surat, the prosperous economic capital of Aurangzeb, and collected a large booty.
• Enraged by this, Aurangzeb sent his powerful sardars Mirza Raje Jaising and Diler Khan to attack Swarajya. They captured many forts in the Swarajya.
• Chh. Shivaji Maharaj had the wisdom to comprehend the situation and decided to retreat tactically by signing the ‘Treaty of Purandar’.
• According to the treaty, Chh. Shivaji Maharaj had to present himself before Aurangzeb at Agra, along with his son Sambhaji Maharaj.
• Aurangzeb acted treacherously and put Chh. Shivaji Maharaj is under house arrest.
• Chh. Shivaji Maharaj very cleverly misled the guards and escaped from Agra.
• Soon after returning to Swarajya Chh. Shivaji Maharaj conquered the forts which were held by Aurangzeb.

Question 3.
Maharani Tarabai
Answer:

• After the death of Rajaram Maharaj (March 1700 C.E.), his wife Maharani Tarabai continued to fight against Aurangzeb.
• Maharani Tarabai led the Swarajya movement under extremely unfavourable conditions.
• She single-handedly took charge of the administration and fought for Swarajya for twenty-five years with the help of her sardars.
• At times, the Marathas had to fight the Mughals on lands beyond the boundaries of Swarajya, but she did not stop them.
• This was an indication that the scenario of the war was changing. The Maratha War of Independence was a tussle between the Mughal ambition of expanding their Empire and the desire for independence cherished by the Marathas.
• Finally, the death of Aurangzeb put an end to this fighting. In the beginning, the Mughal rulers adopted an aggressive policy while the Maratha policy remained that of defense.
• But by the second half of the 18th century, this condition changed. With the weakening of Mughal power, the Marathas could extend their rule almost all over India.

6. Explain the following statement with reasons.

Question 1.
Chh. Shivaji Maharaj signed the Treaty of Purandar
Answer:

• Aurangzeb sent his powerful sardars Mirza Raje Jaising and Diler Khan to attack Swarajya.
• They captured many forts in the Swarajya. Mirza Raje Jaising was a powerful and competent military commander.
• He blocked Chh. Shivaji Maharaj from all sides. Lives of Chh. Shivaji Maharaj’s men were endangered.
• Chh. Shivaji Maharaj had the wisdom to comprehend the situation and decided to retreat tactically by signing the ‘Treaty of Purandar’.
• According to the treaty, Chh. Shivaji Maharaj had to present himself before Aurangzeb at Agra, along with his son Sambhaji Maharaj.

Question 2.
Shivaji Maharaj coronated himself.
Answer:

• Chh. Shivaji Maharaj decides to give legitimacy to his earned kingdom.
• To announce the sovereign and independent status of Swarajya it was necessary to make it official.
• Realizing this Chh, Shivaji Maharaj decided to get himself coronated.
• With his coronation as a sovereign king, the provinces under his rule assumed the status of an independent kingdom.
• He minted new coins after the coronation. He started ‘Rajyabhishek Shaka’ i.e., a new era after the coronation.

7. State your opinion.

Question 1.
The work of Sants created a sense of self-esteem among the people of Maharashtra.
Answer:

• The saints created a sense of belonging among people toward their native region, language, literature, and culture.
• They gave a message of equality to people. Their teachings were based on the principles of humanity.
• They preached harmonious community life, unity, and love. Their efforts created social awakening.
• Their teaching helped people to survive situations like foreign invasions, draughts, or other natural calamities.
• Their devotional songs became a source of great moral support for people.
• Their work created a sense of self-esteem among the people of Maharashtra.

Question 2.
Veermata Jeejabai’s role was important in the creation of Swarajya.
Answer:

• Shahaji Raje sent his son Shivajiraje and his wife, Veermata Jijabai from Bengaluru to Pune along with his loyal and capable associates.
• Veermata Jijabai encouraged Chh. ShivajiMaharajto fulfills the dream of Shahajiraje of establishing Swarajya.
• She was a visionary and an efficient administrator.
• She constantly guided her son in the mission of establishing Swarajya and provided him with the excellent education necessary for the king of Swarajya.

8. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Write in detail about Peshwa Period
Answer:

• After Balaji Vishwanath, his son, Bajirao I was appointed as the Peshwa. He expanded the Maratha empire up to Malwa, Rajasthan, and Bundelkhand. He defeated the Nizam.
• After Bajirao I, Balaji Bajirao alias Nanasaheb was appointed as the Peshwa. Madhavrao Peshwa tried to re-establish the Maratha power.
• The defeat in Panipat was not just a political defeat but also lowered the morale of the Marathas greatly.
• Madhavrao Peshwa tried to elevate the spirits of Marathas as well as re-establish the Maratha power in the north.
• The Marathas were successful in overcoming the great defeat at Panipat and create a politically strong position for themselves in the politics of the north.
• Malharrao was the founder of the Holkar State at Indore. He served the Maratha power for a long time.

Question 2.
Write about Maratha’s War of Independence.
Answer:

• After the death of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj was coronated as the King of Swarajya.
• During his reign, a constant conflict continued with the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb. Aurangzeb’s rebellious son, Akbar had established friendly relations with Sambhaji Maharaj.
• Enraged by this Aurangzeb came down to Deccan along with a huge army and able sardars, who were veterans of warfare.
• For the next 25 years, he camped in Maharashtra and fought against the Marathas.
• After Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj, Chhatrapati Rajaram Maharaj took over the reins at Raigad.
• Aurangzeb sent Zulfikar Khan to seize the fort of Raigad.
• Chhatrapati Rajaram Maharaj, Maharani Tarabai, Maharani Yesubai (Queen of Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj), and her son Prince Shahu were staying on Raj gad.
• After the death of Rajaram Maharaj (March 1700 C.E.), his wife Maharani Tarabai continued to fight against Aurangzeb.
• Maharani Tarabai led the Swarajya movement under extremely unfavourable conditions.
• She single-handedly took charge of the administration and fought for Swarajya for twenty-five years with the help of her sardars.

9. Answer the following questions with the help of given points.

Question 1.
Write in detail about Maratha’s administration under Chh. Shivaji Maharaj.
(a) Central administration
(b) Provincial administration
(c) Village administration
Answer:
(a) Central administration:

• Chh. Shivaji Maharaj set up an ideal administrative system for the smooth running of Swarajya’s affairs.
• The formation of the Ashtapradhan Mandal (council of eight ministers) and its growth took place along with the expansion of the kingdom.
• After the coronation, Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj created special posts of Ashtapradhans. It included ‘Peshwa’, ‘Amatya’, ‘Sachiv’, ‘Mantri’, ‘Senapati, ‘Sumant’, ‘Nyayadhish’ and ‘Panditrao’.
• Chh. Shivaji Maharaj had a strong intelligence network of his own. Bahirji Naik was the Chief of this network. Before starting on any expedition, Chh. Shivaji Maharaj obtained detailed information from his spies and then planned his expedition.

(b) Provincial administration:

• The Kingdom was divided into two parts for the sake of administration. One of them was the province that was geographically bound together and the other comprised scattered regions in the south.
• Sarsubhedars taking care of provincial administration were known as ‘Deshadhikari’.
• Sarsubhas in the Swarajya was meant to be the zonal division for the overall administration, while under Islamic rulers a division merely served the purpose of revenue collection.

(c) Village administration:

• The Subhedars were assisted by ‘Deshmukhs’ and ‘Deshpandes’.
• The main task of a Deshmukh was to collect the land revenue, develop wasteland into cultivable land and settle new villages.
• All government officials received salaries in the form of cash instead of a land grant (watan).
• ‘Village’ was the basic unit of the administrative system. New villages were settled.
• The people were provided with cattle, seed money, money for daily utilities.
• The farmer was given a period of two years, to repay the advance after a good harvest. This system was known as the ‘Batai system’.

Question 2.
Write in detail about the social conditions during the Maratha period.
(a) Art
(b) Architecture
(c) Literature
Answer:
(a) Art:

• The development of Maratha miniature paintings is seen through illustrations on the manuscripts such as pothis, pattachitra, and patrikas. The same style is maintained in the glass paintings as well.
• Illustrated manuscripts of Sanskrit texts such as ‘Bhagvat Gita’, ‘Devi Saptashati’, ‘Bhagvat Purana’ as well as Marathi texts such as ‘Dnyaneshwari’ (Bhavarthadipika), ‘Shivaleelamrut’, ‘Pandavapratap’ etc. are available.
• The paintings of Dashavatara are included in them. The wooden stands of the pothis have paintings of various deities in dark red, green, and yellow colours.
• The miniature paintings, include human portraits and themes like ragamalas, talamala, processions, etc.
• Remarkable portraits of Bajirao I, Nanasaheb Peshwa, Pilaji Jadhavrao are available. Murals are found on the facade of the wadas as well as on the walls of reception areas (Diwankhana) and bedrooms.
• In the temples, the mandapa wall, owri (varanda), shikhara, gabhara (sanctum sanctorum), and chat (ceiling) were also decorated with paintings. Mythological stories form the main theme of these murals.
• They include scenes from Ramayana and Mahabharata and Puranas. The paintings of Dashavatara and Krishnaleela are found almost everywhere.
• The subjects of contemporary social life were also popular in the paintings. The royal court, royal meetings, processions were also included in them.
• Keertan, Bhajana, Powadas (Ballads), Lavani were popular folk songs in Maharashtra.

(b) Architecture:

• Forts – Chh. Shivaji Maharaj gave priority to building forts. The tradition of building forts was prevalent in the Deccan in the last three centuries. This tradition proved to be of advantage to Chh. Shivaji Maharaj..
• Temples – The Kasaba temple in Pune and Vitthal temple in Vitthalwadi were reconstructed by Veermata Jijabai. The construction of temples began on a large scale during the later Peshwa period. These temples were of three types. Examples, of the temple architecture of this period, are found at Saswad (‘Vateshwar’ ‘Sangameshwar’), Mahuli (‘Vishweshwar’).
• Town Planning – Pune, Satara, and Nashik developed into big cities. These cities had well-paved roads, wadas on both sides of the road, and arched gates at intervals.

(c) Literature:

• Marathi literature developed greatly during this period. Sant Tukaram of this period was a poet of the Warkari sect.
• Samarth Ramdas wrote ‘Dasbodh’ and ‘Manache Shlok’ in Marathi. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj got the ‘Rajyavyavaharakosha’ prepared which was a compilation of Sanskrit lexicon for Persian terms.
• Chhatrapati Sambhaji Maharaj was a great writer and Sanskrit scholar. The Sanskrit text ‘Budhabhushan’ was written by him.
• This text is an overview of ancient texts on the polity. Apart from Sanskrit, he also knew many other languages.
• He wrote texts in Brij language namely ‘Nayikabhed’, ‘Nakhshikh’ and ‘Satasattak’. Muhammad Qasim Ferishta wrote the history of India in 12 volumes named ‘Gulshane-i-Ibrahimi’.
• In the 18th century, well-known literary works were composed such as ‘Yatharthdeepika’ by Vaman Pandit, ‘Naladamayanti Swayamvara’ by Raghunath Pandit, Pandavapratapa, Harivijay, Ramavijay by Shridhar Pandit, and the translation of Mahabharata by Moropant. Bakhar literature is important among the historical literature in Marathi.
• It contains eulogies of the heroes and stories of historic events, battles, lives of great men. Sabhasad Bakhar, Bhausahebanchi Bakhar, Panipatchi Bakhar are some of its examples.
• Krushna Dayarnav and Shridhar were the main poets during the Peshwa period. Poet Mahipati composed ‘Bhaktivijay’ in this period.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 History Important Questions Chapter 15 India During Mughal Period Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th History Important Questions Chapter 15 India During Mughal Period

1A. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete sentences.

Question 1.
___________ was the king of Farghana province in Central Asia.
(a) Taimurlang
(b) Babur
(c) Genghis khan
(d) Akbar
Answer:
(b) Babur

Question 2.
After Humayun, his son ___________ ascended the throne.
(a) Babur
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Akbar
(d) Shershah
Answer:
(c) Akbar

Question 3.
Rana Pratap was the ruler of ___________
(a) Mewar
(b) Jodhpur
(c) Jaipur
(d) Bundelkhand
Answer:
(a) Mewar

Question 4.
Baburnama was written by ___________
(a) Akbar
(b) Birbal
(c) Babur
(d) Jahangir
Answer:
(c) Babur

Question 5.
The Taj Mahal was built by ___________
(a) Babur
(b) Akbar
(c) Shahajahan
(d) Jahangir
Answer:
(c) Shahjahan

Question 6.
___________ was a Sanskrit scholar.
(a) Dara Shukoh
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Shah Shuja
(d) Murad Baksh
Answer:
(a) Dara Shukoh

1B. Find the incorrect pair from set B and write the correct ones.

Question 1.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Tombs of Salim Chisti	Fatehpur Sikri
(b) Kabulbag mosque	Panipat
(c) Jama Masjid	Sambhal
(d) Purana Qila	Ajmer

Answer:
(d) Purana Qila – Delhi

Question 2.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Fertile	Stupik
(b) Infertile	Napik
(c) Irrigated	Bagayat
(d) Dry crop	Jiyarat

Answer:
(a) Fertile – Supik

1C. Find the odd one out.

Question 1.
Diwan-i-Aam, Diwan-i-Khaas Jama Masjid, Kutub Minar
Answer:
Kutub Minar

Question 2.
Surat, Dabhol, Agra, Calicut
Answer:
Agra

Question 3.
Rajatarangini, Lilavati, Ramayana, Ramacharitamanas
Answer:
Ramacharitamanas

Question 4.
Pahari, Basauli, Gadhwali, Kangra
Answer:
Pahari

2A. Write the names of historical places, persons, and events.

Question 1.
Documents prepared after the fixing of the tax rate.
Answer:
Kabulayat and Patta

Question 2.
He translated Upanishads texts in the Persian language from Sanskrit.
Answer:
Dara

Question 3.
He was born in Uzbekistan.
Answer:
Babur

Question 4.
After Humayun, his son ascended the throne.
Answer:
Akbar

2B. Choose the correct reason and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The Mughals ruled over India for more than ___________
(a) four centuries
(b) two centuries
(c) one centuries
(d) three centuries
Answer:
(d) three centuries

Question 2.
The grand army of Ibrahim Lodi could not survive in front of ___________
(a) Babur, in the battle of Panipat
(b) Babur, Battle of Khanwa
(c) Rana Pratap, the ruler of Mewar
(d) Humayun’s son Akbar
Answer:
(a) Babur, in the battle of Panipat

2C. Write the correct chronological order.

Question 1.
(a) Babur established his rule in Delhi.
(b) Babur’s son Humayun ascended the throne.
(c) Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi.
(d) Babur defeated Rajputs in the Battle of Khanwa.
Answer:
(a) Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi.
(b) Babur established his rule in Delhi.
(c) Babur defeated Rajputs in Battle of Khanwa
(d) Babur’s son Humayun ascended the throne.

2D. Complete the table.

Question 1.

1.Tarikh-i-Rashidi	……………………………..
2. ……………………..	Khafi Khan
3. Translation of Upanishads in Persian	……………………………..
4. ………………………..	4. Malik Muhammad Jayasi

Answer:

1. Tarikh-i-Rashidi	Mirza Hyder
2. Tarikh-i-Khafikhan	Khafi Khan
3. Translation of Upanishads in Persian	Dara Shukoh
4. Padmavat	Malik Muhammad Jayasi

Question 2.

Ruler	Buildings Built
1. Babar	…………………………..
2. …………………	TajMahal
3. Akbar	………………………….
4. ………………….	Memorial at Sahastram (Bihar)

Answer:

Ruler	Buildings Built
1. Babar	Kabulbag Mosque
2. Shahjahan	TajMahal
3. Akbar	Buland Darwaza
4. Shershah Sur	Memorial at Sahastram (Bihar)

3. Observe the map on page 111 of your textbook and answer the following questions based on it.

Question 1.
Name the kingdoms in Maharashtra during medieval times.
Answer:
Mughals, Adilshahi, Nizamshahi

Question 2.
Name the rivers in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Narmada, Tapi, Godavari

Question 3.
Name the islands shown on a map.
Answer:
Lakshadweep and Andaman and the Nicobar Islands

Question 4.
Name the ocean at the tip of India.
Answer:
Indian Ocean

Question 5.
Name the sea shown on a map.
Answer:
Arabian Sea

4. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

5. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
For the expansion of the empire, Akbar adopted the strategy of persuasion with the Rajputs.
Answer:

• Akbar faced many internal and external problems when he started his rule. Mughal power was not completely established and it was vulnerable to attacks.
• During this period, Rana Pratap, the ruler of Mewar, put up a strong resistance against Akbar. Akbar could never win a war with Rana Pratap.
• Hence for the expansion of the empire, he adopted the strategy of persuasion with the Rajputs.
• Akbar had realized that if the Mughal rule has to be strengthened in India then he had to adopt non-offensive policies, which would be popular.

Question 2.
Mughal Empire declined.
Answer:

• After Akbar, Jahangir, Shahjahan, and Aurangzeb ruled efficiently.
• Aurangzeb attempted to expand his empire in the Deccan with prolonged campaigns. There was a toll on the economic status of the Mughals. The campaign in the south drained huge wealth from the Mughal treasury.
• Aurangzeb’s reign is notable for his wars in frontier provinces, his political policies in North and South India, staunch religious policies, and the Mughal- Maratha conflict. All these things ultimately resulted in the decline of Mughal power.
• This period is marked by the expansion of the Maratha kingdom, interference by the Europeans in the political affairs of India, and the decline of Mughal power.
• Finally, the aftermath of the struggle for Independence in 1857 C.E., saw the end of the Mughal rule under Bahadur Shah.

Question 3.
Akbar’s administration was welfare-oriented.
Answer:

• An average of the annual yield in the last ten years was calculated and one-third of this average yield was fixed as the base for the tax to be paid.
• The tax, thus fixed, was applicable for the span of ten years. This offered considerable respite to farmers for a span of ten years.
• Documents are known as ‘Kabulayat’ and ‘Patta’ were prepared from the farmers after the fixing of the tax rate. The tax was collected in cash or in kind.
• The farmers have sanctioned loans for tilling the land, which could be repaid in installments.
• Concessions were also granted to the farmers during times of calamities like famine, floods, and epidemics. These were the Welfare policies of Emperor Akbar.
• Todarmal in Emperor Akbar’s court is known for his insights regarding the welfare of common people.

6. State your opinion.

Question 1.
Arts flourished during the period of the Mughals.
Answer:

• The reign of the three emperors, Akbar, Jahangir, and Shahjahan was a period of peace, order, and prosperity. Arts flourish when there is stability.
• A new era began in the field of art and architecture. The etched designs on the marble walls of mosques, tombs, and palaces are evidence of the highly advanced styles of art and architecture.
• During the period of Akbar and Jahangir, the art of ivory carving received royal patronage.
• The Mughal paintings originated from the Persian styles of painting.
• There are miniature paintings of Persian style in the manuscript of ‘Baburnama’. The art of painting received encouragement during the period of Akbar. He appointed skilled painters in his court.
• During the period of Jahangir, paintings were done based on the court and hunting scenes. The paintings of this period were done in a more realistic style, which is vibrant and attractive. These paintings, portray birds and animals, cloud formations, human figures, and natural scenery.
• During the Mughal period, the art of music seems to have received royal patronage.

Question 2.
Mughals could establish their rule in India.
Answer:

• At the beginning of the 16th century, the political condition in India was somewhat disturbed.
• The Sultanate’s rule had begun to decline after Muhammad Tughluq. The Delhi Sultanate broke down completely and many new independent kingdoms emerged in North, Central, and South India.
• The Bahamani kingdom got divided into five branches. The prosperous Vijaynagar empire was’ destroyed by the five Islamic ruling houses in the South.
• During the same period, the Portuguese began to settle on the western coast of India. The traditional military system of the Indian rulers in the medieval period was not capable of facing the onslaught of new challenges.
• The Indians were not familiar with modern weaponry. Taking advantage of all this, the Mughals established their rule in India.

Question 3.
India received silver every year in large quantities.
Answer:

• Foreign trade flourished to a great extent during the Mughal period.
• Exports from India were larger than the imports.
• Many commodities including silk cloth, precious stones, spices, etc. were exported from India while the imported goods mainly included luxury items.
• The foreign traders had to pay for the Indian goods in the form of silver.
• Hence, India received silver every year in large quantities.

7. Answer the following questions with the help of given points.

Question 1.
Write in detail about Mughal Land Revenue System.
(a) Land Survey
(b) Rate of Tax
(c) Welfare Oriented Policy
Answer:
(a) Land Survey:

• Akbar made further reforms in the revenue system implemented by Shershah Sur. This bought a certain discipline in the Mughal revenue system.
• He graded the cultivable land based on the systematic land survey. The land was classified into four types on the basis of annual yield, i.e. fertile (supik), infertile (napik), irrigated (bagayat), and dry crop (jirayat) land.

(b) Rate of Tax:

• Individual land holdings of farmers were registered. An average of the annual yield in the last ten years was calculated and one-third of this average yield was fixed as the base for the tax to be paid.
• The tax, thus fixed, was applicable for the span of ten years. This offered considerable respite to farmers for a span of ten years. Documents knew as ‘Kabulayat’ and ‘Patta’ were prepared by the farmers after the fixing of the tax rate.

(c) Welfare Oriented Policy:

• The tax was collected in cash or in kind. The farmers have sanctioned loans for tilling the land, which could be repaid in installments.
• Concessions were also granted to the farmers during times of calamities like famine, floods, and epidemics. These were the Welfare policies of Emperor Akbar.
• Todarmal in emperor Akbar’s court is known for his insights regarding the welfare of common people. His insights were instrumental for Akbar’s land reforms.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 History Important Questions Chapter 14 Delhi Sultanate, Vijayanagar and Bahamani Kingdom Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th History Important Questions Chapter 14 Delhi Sultanate, Vijayanagar and Bahamani Kingdom

1A. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete sentences.

Question 1.
___________ is the founder of the Slave Dynasty.
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak
(b) Mohd. Ghori
(c) Sultan of Ghazni
(d) Alauddin Khalji
Answer:
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak

Question 2.
Qutub Minar at Mehrauli is a well-known example of ___________ architecture.
(a) Indian
(b) Islamic
(c) Greek
(d) Roman
Answer:
(b) Islamic

Question 3.
The Italian traveller Nicolo Conti visited ___________
(a) Vijayanagar
(b) Delhi
(c) Iran
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(a) Vijaynagar

Question 4.
___________ wrote a text called ‘Amuktamalyada’.
(a) Harihara
(b) Bukka
(c) Krishnadeva Raya
(d) Purnaiya
Answer:
(c) Krishnadevaraya

Question 5.
Tuli translated the text of ___________
(a) Koshashastra
(b) Bhadvad Gita
(c) Ramayan
(d) Mahabharata.
Answer:
(a) Koshashatra

Question 6.
___________ built Alai Darwaza.
(a) Alberuni
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) Qutubuddin Aibak
(d) Iltutmish
Answer:
(b) Alauddin Khalji

1B. Find the incorrect pair from set B and write the correct ones.

Question 1.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Mahmud	Sultan of Ghazni
(b) Muhammad Ghuri	Turkish Empire
(c) Qulibuddin Aibak	Sultan of Delhi
(d) Taimur	Ruler of Iran

Answer:
(d) Taimur – Ruler of Mongol

Question 2.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Kalachuris	Tripuri
(b) Chalukyas	Gujarat
(c) Palas	Bengal
(d) Kalachuris	Malwa

Answer:
(d) Kalachuris – Gorakhpur

1C. Find the odd one out.

Question 1.
Monuments erected during Islamic Period:
(a) Quwwat-i-Islam
(b) Qutub Minar
(c) Alai Darwaza
(d) Qawwali
Answer:
(d) Qawwali

Question 2.
Main centers of Textile during Sultan period:
(a) Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Agra
(d) Multan
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question 3.
Cities set up by Sultan of Tughluq Dynasty:
(a) Mahajanapadas
(b) Tughluqabad
(c) Jahanpanha
(d) Firozabad
Answer:
(a) Mahajanapadas

Question 4.
Ruling houses of Bahamani Kingdom:
(a) Imadshahi of Varhad
(b) Baridshahi of Bidar
(c) Adilshahi of Bijapur
(d) Gawan of Golconda
Answer:
(d) Gawan of Golconda

2A. Write the names of historical places, persons, and events.

Question 1.
Rulers of Malwa –
Answer:
Parmars

Question 2.
Railway line near Peshawar in Pakistan –
Answer:
Jamrud

Question 3.
First Sultan of Delhi –
Answer:
Qutubuddin Aibak

Question 4.
First and the only woman to ascend the throne of Delhi –
Answer:
Razia Sultan

Question 5.
Mongol rulers in Central Asia –
Answer:
Taimur

Question 6.
Well-known poet and scholar in the court of Sultan Balban –
Answer:
Amir Khusrow

Question 7.
The standard unit for the weight of coin –
Answer:
Tola

Question 8.
Mosque at Delhi built by Qutubuddin Aibak –
Answer:
Quwwat-i-Islam

Question 9.
Persian traveller who visited India during the period of Mahmud Ghazni –
Answer:
Al-Beruni

Question 10.
The text was written by Krishnadevaraya –
Answer:
Amuktamalyada

2B. Choose the correct reason and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The transition of the ancient period to the medieval period is reflected in
Reason ___________
(a) Political
(b) Social
(c) Economic, religious and cultural
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
The Indian rules could be defeated easily by the Turks because of ___________
(a) internal dissent
(b) lack of bravery
(c) lack of stability
(d) they were soft targets
Answer:
(a) internal dissent

Question 3.
Alauddin Khilji sent his commander Malik Kafur to south because of ___________
(a) he wanted to subdue the Yadavas and collect tribute from them
(b) he devised some new economic reforms
(c) of social reasons
(d) he wanted to build his empire in the south
Answer:
(a) he wanted to subdue the Yadavas and collect tribute from them

2C. Write the correct chronological order.

Question 1.
(a) Prithviraj Chauhan was defeated in the Second Battle of Tarain.
(b) Muhammad Tughluq shifted the capital from Delhi to Devgiri.
(c) Sabuktgin, the Sultan of Ghazni attacked King Jaipal of Punjab.
(d) Qutubuddin Aibak became the first Sultan of Delhi.
Answer:
(a) Subuktigin, the Sultan of Ghazni attacked King Jaipal of Punjab.
(b) Prithviraj Chauhan was defeated in the Second Battle of Tarain.
(c) Qutubuddin Aibak became the first Sultan of Delhi.
(d) Muhammad Tughluq shifted the capital from Delhi to Devgiri.

2D. Complete the concept Maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

3. Observe the map on page 108 of your textbook and answer the following questions, based on it.

Question 1.
What does the map show?
Answer:
The map shows the Vijayanagar and Bahamani Kingdom.

Question 2.
Name the four rivers in the Vijayanagar Kingdom.
Answer:
River Tungabhadra, River Krishna, River Penneru, and River Kaveri.

Question 3.
Where is Lakshadweep island?
Answer:
The island Lakshadweep is in the Arabian Sea.

Question 4.
Name the famous coast near Calicut.
Answer:
Malabar Coast is the famous coast near Calicut.

Question 5.
Name the river in Gondvan.
Answer:
River Mahanadi.

4. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Amir Khusrow
Answer:

• Amir Khusrow was a well-known poet and scholar who composed poetry in the Indian language.
• He spent his life in the court of Sultan Balban in Delhi.
• While describing the muslin of Dhaka, he says, “the Muslin is so fine that even if a hundred yards are tied around the head, one could still see the hair.”

5. Explain the statements with reasons.

Question 1.
The Islamic rule was established in India.
Answer:

• The Islamic rule In India was established by the Turks.
• They attacked India several times.
• None of the rulers in India could resist them.
• They looted enormous wealth from India.
• Many kingdoms were destroyed and Islamic rule was established.

6. State your opinion.

Question 1.
Some cities gain importance as administrative centres while others gain importance as industrial centres.
Answer:

• The rise and fall of the cities depend on its political and cultural graph of events.
• The process of urbanisation is associated mainly with political and economic development.
• The rulers play an important role in the settling and development of a city.
• According to the Arab historian, Ibn Khaldun, trade gains momentum as a result of the conducive policies of the ruler.
• Thus, some cities gain importance as administrative centres while others gain importance as industrial centres.

7. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Elaborate on the internal trade in India.
Answer:

• During the sultanate period, there was an increase in internal trade.
• The local markets operated through weekly markets(Bazaar) and market places (Mandi/Mandai).
• New trade centers (Peth) arose due to expanding transactions of trading. Some of the trading centers were Delhi, Multan, Jaunpur, Banaras, Patna, etc.
• The goods were further transported to various ports via land or riverways.
• Goods were exported by the sea route to countries like Iran, Arabia, China, etc.
• The goods mainly included cotton cloth, muslin, dyed cloth, scented oils, etc.
• Horses were imported to India from Iraq, Turkey, and Iran.
• Semi-precious stones, mercury, lead, alum, saffron, metals like gold and silver were imported from Mecca and Aden.

Question 2.
Write in detail about Vijayanagar Empire.
Answer:

• At the end of the 13th century, Alauddin Khalji’s invasions, the coffers of local rulers in South India were emptied to a great extent.
• This was the time when Harihara and Bukka established the new kingdom of ‘Vijaynagar’ in 1336 C.E.
• During the rule of King Krishnadevaraya, the kingdom expanded into an empire spreading from South Konkan in the west to Vishakhapatnam in the East and Krishna river in the north to Kanyakumari in the south.
• Krishnadevaraya wrote a text entitled, ‘Amuktamalyada’ which is about the State and Policy.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 History Important Questions Chapter 13 India, Sri Lanka and Southeast Asia Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th History Important Questions Chapter 13 India, Sri Lanka and Southeast Asia

1A. Choose the correct alternative to write the complete sentences.

Question 1.
The first kingdom of Sri Lanka established was known as ____________
(a) Tambapanni
(b) Sopara
(c) Pulatthinagar
(d) Srivijaya
Answer:
(a) Tambapanni

Question 2.
____________ was the first woman to become a Buddhist nun in Sri Lanka.
(a) Sanghamitra
(b) Anula
(c) Anuradha
(d) Tara
Answer:
(b) Anula

Question 3.
The relics of Gautama Buddha are known as ____________
(a) Stupa
(b) Kesa
(c) Dhatu
(d) Galapotha
Answer:
(c) Dhatu

Question 4.
The ____________ enlist 64 Indian scripts.
(a) Deepvamsa
(b) Mahavamsa
(c) Lalitvistar
(d) Chullavamsa
Answer:
(c) Lalitvistar

1B. Find the incorrect pair from set B and write the correct ones.

Question 1.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Sri Lanka	Tambapanni
(b) Thailand	Mueng Thai
(c) Cambodia	Malaydvipa
(d) Land of Southeast Asia	‘Suvarnabhumi’

Answer:
(c) Cambodia – Kambujadesha

Question 2.

Set ‘A’	Set ‘B’
(a) Shili Foshi	Srivijaya
(b) Ramakien	Ram Akhyana
(c) Buddha	Dantdhatu
(d) Moonstone	Chandrashala

Answer:
(d) Moonstone – Chandrashila

1C. Find the odd one out.

Question 1.
Indo-China, Vietnam, Laos, Sri Lanka
Answer:
Sri Lanka

Question 2.
Dambulla, Dulatthinagar, Yongan, Anuradhpur
Answer:
Yongan

Question 3.
Srivijaya, Loas, Majapahita, Shailendra
Answer:
Loas

Question 4.
Funan, Champa, Cambodia, Matram
Answer:
Matram

Question 5.
Shailendra, Indonesia, Thailand, Myanmar
Answer:
Shailendra

2A. Write the names of historical places, persons, and events.

Question 1.
Founder of the kingdom of Tambapanni
Answer:
King Vijaya

Question 2.
The first woman to become a Buddhist nun
Answer:
Anula

Question 3.
Earliest stupas at Mihinthale
Answer:
Kantakchetiya

Question 4.
Name of the stupa erected on the remains of Thera Mahinda
Answer:
Ambasthal Thupa

Question 5.
Noted Indian philosopher
Answer:
Buddhaghosha

Question 6.
The text was written by Buddhaghosha
Answer:
Vishuddhimagga

Question 7.
Temple of Dantdhatu in the city of Kandy
Answer:
Sri Dalad Maligava

Question 8.
Kingdom in the delta region of Mekong
Answer:
Funan

Question 9.
Ancient kingdom in the coastal region of Vietnam
Answer:
Champa

Question 10.
The ancient name of Cambodia
Answer:
Kambujadesha

Question 11.
Temple built by Suryavarman-II
Answer:
Angkor Wat

Question 12.
Name of the founder king of ‘Majapahita’
Answer:
Vijaya

2B. Choose the correct reason and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The southern kingdom of China was not left with any alternative path to reach the Silk Route because ____________
(a) China was attacked by a foreign power
(b) China disintegrated into three parts
(c) they found a delta region
(d) the Silk Route was infested with robbers
Answer:
(c) they found a delta region

Question 2.
The Shailendra kings built many Buddhist temples and stupas because ____________
(a) they were followers of Buddhism
(b) they were lovers of Buddhist art
(c) they were Tolerant by nature
(d) they hailed from India
Answer:
(a) they were followers of Buddhism

3. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

4. Explain the following statement with reasons.

Question 1.
The southern kingdom was not left with any alternative path to reach the Silk Route.
Answer:

• When the rule of the Han dynasty ended, China disintegrated into three parts.
• Because of this disintegration, China was not left with any alternative path to reach the Silk Route.
• Hence, the kingdom of the Southern Kingdom sent some people to explore the Sea Route.

Question 2.
According to Buddhist philosophy, the universe exists at three planes.
Answer:
According to Buddhist philosophy, the universe exists at three planes:

• Kamdhatu (Bondage in the form of desire)
• Roopdhatu (Bondage in the form of physical appearance and appellations)
• Aroopdhatu (State of being beyond any bondage).
• The architectural design of Borobudur Stupa is based on the concept of these three planes.

5. State your opinion.

Question 1.
King Anawrahta the founder of the ‘Pagan empire’ is known as the greatest ruler.
Answer:

• King Anawrahta is credited with the unification of north and south Myanmar.
• This unification is said to have given Myanmar its national identity.
• Anawrahta put a check to the increasing power of the Khmer empire of Cambodia.
• During his reign, the ‘Theravada Buddhism’, which had grown weaker, was revived.

Question 2.
The contact of Indians with the various region in Southeast Asia was on the increase.
Answer:

• The contact of Indians was on the increase because of trade during the 2nd-century B.C.E.
• The merchants who had to travel for months together were naturally accompanied by a large retinue of priests, monks, also travelers who were out to test their luck, ambitious members of royal families, etc.
• These were the people who proved instrumental in the spread of Indian culture in Southeast Asia.