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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Solutions My English Coursebook Chapter 4.5 The Last Lesson Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 My English Coursebook Solutions Chapter 4.5 The Last Lesson

My English Coursebook Std 9 Guide Chapter 4.5 The Last Lesson Textbook Questions and Answers

Warming up!
Chit-chat

1. How was this year for you?
2. Are you happy with what you could study this year?
3. What did you miss, or could not do ?
4. What do you plan to do about it-about the things you could not do /study well?
5. What was the best moment for you this year?

Growing sentences

Form pairs/groups and do the following activities:

1. Form pairs. Write two sentences of two words each.
Examples:
1. Stand up.
2. Don’t disturb.

2. Form groups of three. Write three sentences of three words each.
Examples:

1. Please come here.
2. Open your books.
3. You can go.

3. Form groups of four. Write four sentences of four words each.
Examples:

1. Complete your notebooks now.
2. Is it your book?
3. I like my school.
4. Mother cooks nice food.

4. Continue to write as many sentences as the number of students in the group, till you reach the number 10.

5. After that, go on forming bigger groups and writing sentences with as many words as the number of students in the group. However, you may write only one or two sentences at each step after 10.
Examples:

• Sentence of 5 words: Can you please help me? Sentence of 6 words : Avanish works hard for his future.
• Sentence of 7 words: You are free to choose your career.
• Sentence of 8 words: I got this gift on my tenth birthday.
• Sentence of 9 words: My mother corrects me when I make a mistake.
• Sentence of 10 words: We should follow the rules and regulations of our society.

6. See if you can make a sentence with as many words in it as there are students in your classroom.

7. Write the sentence in big letters on chart paper and display it in the classroom.

English Workshop:

1. Find the meaning of the following words from a good dictionary:

Question 1.
Find the meaning of the following words from a good dictionary:
Answer:

1. Sawmill – a factory where wood is cut with machinery
2. Prussian – German inhabitant of Prussia
3. Apprentice – a person who learns some skill needed in his/her job.
4. nuisance – annoyance
5. cranky – irritable
6. hold fast to something – to possess something (here language) firmly despite of many difficulties.
7. at one stroke – with a single immediate action.
8. might – strength.

2. List the people and their occupation in the passage.

Question 1.
List the people and their occupation in the passage.
Answer:
1. M. Hamel – French teacher
2. Franz – the narrator student

3. Find five words ending with ‘-ing’ and five words ending with ‘-ed’ from the lesson.

Question 1.
Find five words ending with ‘-ing’ and five words ending with ‘-ed’ from the lesson.
Answer:

Words ending with ‘ing’	Words ending with ‘ed’
1. fluttering	1. dismissed
2. writing	2. turned
3. scratching	3. looked
4. choking	4. leaned

4. Find five examples of commonly used past participles from the story. For example, said, learnt.

Question 1.
Find five examples of commonly used past participles from the story. For example, said, learnt.
Answer:
Commonly used past participles from the passage:

1. got
2. saw
3. wore
4. came
5. put

5. What is the meaning of the following words and phrases in the passage? Choose the correct alternative.

Question (a)
…………….. was in great dread of
1. was in a great hall
2. was in great demand
3. was afraid of
4. was angry with.
Answer:
3. was afraid of

Question (b)
……………….. did not know the first word about them
1. did not know anything about them
2. did not care about them
3. knew all the words except the first word
4. had not learnt them by heart.
Answer:
1. did not know anything about them

Question (c)
…………………… terrible iron ruler
1. a great king
2. a ruler made of poor quality iron
3. a magic ruler
4. ruler with which the master hit the student hard.
Answer:
4. ruler with which the master hit the student hard.

Question (d)
…………… got a little over my fright
1. got very frightened
2. got something because I was frightened
3. became little
4. got less frightened
Answer:
4. got less frightened

Question (e)
What a thunderclap these words were to me!
1. The words came as a shock.
2. He shouted the words at me.
3. There was thunder and lightning.
4. The words were accompanied by claps.
Answer:
1. The words came as a shock.

Question (f)
……………… she put off learning tomorrow
1. she prepare for learning
2. she did not learn at that time
3. she cancelled tomorrow’s learning
4. she studied the word ‘tomorrow’.

6. Fill in the following blanks using proper words from ‘who’, ‘when’, ‘what’, ‘how’ or I ‘why’:

Question 1.
Fill in the following blanks using proper words from ‘who’, ‘when’, ‘what’, ‘how’ or I ‘why’:
(a) She started jumping for joy ……………… she heard the news.
(b) You must tell ………………… I mustn’t do it.
(c) The person ……………… is making the speech is my friend.
(d) They wondered ……………….. had happened to him.
(e) You must show me ………………….. to mix the solutions.
(f) I’ll tell you …………………… it is time to leave.
Answer:
(a) She started jumping for joy when she heard the news.
(b) You must tell why I mustn’t do it.
(c) The person who is making the speech is my friend.
(d) They wondered what had happened to him.
(e) You must show me how to mix the solutions.
(f) I’ll tell you when it is time to leave.

Question 2.
Write a letter of thanks to your English teacher. Thank him/her for everything that he/she did for you:
Answer:
Ishan More
16, Gnyaneshwari,
Aarey Road,
Goregaon (East),
Mumbai – 400 063.
30th April, 2020.

Dear Gogate madam,

I take this opportunity to thank you from my bottom of heart for whatever you have done for me and to improve my English skills. I think words fail me toexpress my gratitude.

Madam, when I saw this new book for the first time, I was worried as I didn’t understand how to study it and improve my writing and speaking skills. But while taking activities of every lesson and poem you not only boosted our courage but also made us confident to write and speak English fluently.

While taking activities, you gave opportunity to every one, so that we could think, imagine and express. At the same time by, taking activities based on vocabulary and grammar you laid a good foundation of it. Now, each and every student of our class wishes to learn English on their own. You created interest in learning the language.

I am really proud to say that throughout the journey of my life, I will be thankful for your efforts taken for the development of our language. I am sure, only because of your support and help I can now speak and write English fluently.

Thank you for the guidance you have given throughout the year and for making it so wonderful. I will forever be obliged to you.

Yours obediently,
Ishan More

7. Write a short note on your mother tongue and the attempts you make to study it well.

Question 1.
Write a short note on your mother tongue and the attempts you make to study it well.
Answer:
My mother tongue is Marathi. It is spoken all over Maharashtra. Konkani, Malvani, Ahirani, Varhadi are some of the dialects of Marathi. According to many writers and philosophers, it is the most beautiful language in India.

The moment when I heard the first Marathi word ‘Aai’, I have been learning this language till today. I learnt it from my parents, grandparents, neighbours and my Marathi teachers. I read a lots of books including novels of renowned authors in Marathi. People say Marathi is rich in its literature. By reading Marathi newspapers, magazines and by listening Marathi news bulletins I improved my vocabulary and even the beauty of structure. Being my mother tongue, I haven’t taken any special efforts to learn this language as I learnt it from my surroundings.

8. Write points and counter points on the following topics:

Question 1.
You should study all subjects in your mother tongue:
Answer:
Points:
1. Language is a symbol that reflects the culture of one’s community and ethnic identity and speaking in one’s own mother tongue can create a sense of personal identity for the students across the globe.
2. When students don’t understand the instructions given by the teachers in English they lose their confidence and they either choose to sit silently or repeat mechanically, leading to frustration and ultimately repetition, failure and school drop out.

Counterpoints:

1. India is a country with too many languages with some being state specific and Hindi being the national language. English being an international language has now become language connecting the whole of India. On the other hand, we have our mother tongues which teach the kids about our culture and about our past.

2. If the instructions are given in mother tongue then the question arises, “How will they cope up with English later on? The educationists and policy makers need to give it a thought.

Question 2.
You must memorise the rules of grammar : Points:
Answer:
1. Language is the base of almost everything we do as human beings. We cannot communicate without language. If we want to understand linguistic dimension of our existence we need to learn the rules and regulations of grammar as it is fundamental organizing principle of language.
2. It has been observed that the explicit teaching of grammar rules leads to better learning and understanding and this lasts over time. Learning about grammar provides basic knowledge for learning other languages.
Counterpoints:
1. The difference between a literate and educated person is that an educated person knows to read and write. Anyone who knows to read and write knows grammar. It is a part of learning a language. Why to take it up as a separate thing to learn and add to the stress level of the students.
2. Language is a means of communication, people have been communicating with each other for ages. Functional grammar is still acceptable but learning rules looks like wastage of time and energy. There are pros and cons of everything and so is of learning grammar rules. I think that at least the basics of grammar should be taught till primary level and then we can shift to functional grammer.

9. Why was Franz sad?

Question 1.
Why was Franz sad?
Answer:
When Franz came to know that M. Hamel was leaving, he realized that he had not learned a single word of French, his own language and now they will start teaching German. He was also sad thinking about the condition of M. Hamel who was leaving the school after forty years of faithful service.

10. What should people never lose even when they lose freedom?

Question 1.
What should people never lose even when they lose freedom?
Answer:
Even when the people lose their freedom, they should not lose their own language.

My English Coursebook 9th Class Solutions Chapter 4.5 The Last Lesson Additional Important Questions and Answers

Simple Factual Activities:

Question 1.
State whether you Agree or Disagree with the following statements:
Answer:

1. A little boy Franz is narrating the story. – Agree
2. Mr. Hamel is the teacher in Franz’s school. – Agree
3. Franz had learnt all his participles well. – Disagree
4. All bad news had come from the bulletin board which was kept in front of Franz’s school. – Disagree

Question 2.
List the profession/occupation of the people mentioned in the passage:
Answer:

1. Little Franz: student/narrator
2. M. Hamel: teacher
3. Watcher: blacksmith
4. Classmates: students studying in the same class.
5. Prussians: Soldiers
6. Villagers: former mayor former postmaster.

Question 3.
Complete the following sentences:
Answer:

1. The story takes place in Alsace and Loraine.
2. The order from Berlin forced on teaching German instead of French in the schools of Alsace and Loraine.
3. Franz studies grammer, French and history of the saints in school.

Question 4.
Complete the following sentences by using one word: (Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. According to M. Hamel, French was the most beautiful language in the world.
2. M. Hamel had put on his Sunday clothes.
3. M. Hamel had put in forty years of faithful service.
4. Franz had not studied participles.

Question 5.
State whether the following statements are True or False: (Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. The people of the village gathered in the school to thank M. Hamel. – True
2. Franz can neither speak nor write French. – True
3. Franz’s parents were very much anxious in his studies. – False
4. Franz had never listened M. Hamel so carefully before. – True

Question 6.
Complete the following sentences:
Answer:

1. M. Hamel lived above the school room.
2. His sister lived with him.
3. M. Hamel wrote “VIVE LA FRANCE”! on the blackboard with all his might.
4. M. Hamel wrote France, Alsace, France, Alsace on the grammar copy.

Complex Factual Activities:

Question 1.
Complete the following sentences:
Answer:
1. The iron ruler is said to be terrible because M. Hamel hit the students with this ruler.
2. The narrator was thinking not to go to school because he thought M. Hamel would question him about participles and scold him for not doing the participles.

Question 2.
Describe the scene usually like when school begins?
Answer:
Usually, when school begins there was a great bustle which could be heard out in the street – the opening and closing of desks, lessons repeated in unison, very loud, and the teacher’s great ruler rapping on the table.

Question 3.
In what time period does the story take place?
Answer:
During the France-Prussian war 1870-1871.

Question 4.
How did M. Hamel dress up on special occasions?
Answer:
On special occasions, M. Hamel dressed up in his beautiful green coat, frilled shirt and a little black embroidered silk cap.

Question 5.
Is the school closing down?
Answer:
No, the school is not closing down whereas a German teacher is going to take the place of M. Hamel who teaches French in that school.

Question 6.
Why were the old men of the village attending school that day?
Answer:
The old men of the village were sorry that they had not gone to school in their life. They also wanted to thank M. Hamel for his selfless service of forty years and show their respect for their country which did not belong to them now. So they were attending the school that day.

Question 7.
Why did M. Hamel not scold Franz?
Answer:
Franz was feeling guilty for not learning French properly even though he had a good chance to learn. He also knew that it was not his fault. Whereas his parents were also responsible for the same so M. Hamel did not scold Franz.

Question 8.
According to M. Hamel, who are the people that did not take education seriously? What examples does he give to support his view?
Answer:
According to M. Hamel, the people of Alsace did not take education seriously. He gave the example of Franz’s parents who wanted Franz to work on a farm or at the mill instead of going to school and learn.

Question 9.
Why does Franz understand his lesson well?
Answer:
Being the last lesson of French, Franz was serious. He heard it more carefully that day. He also realized that M. Hamel was teaching patiently as if he wanted to give everything he knew, before going away. So Franz understands his lesson well.

Question 10.
Why does the author say, “I never saw him look so tall”?
Answer:
The author was always afraid of his French teacher M. Hamel. He also did not understand what he taught. But on the last day of his lecture, the narrator understood and remembered that last lesson. He also developed respect and love for M. Hamel seeing his patriotism. So he says. “I never saw him look so tall.”

Question 11.
Complete the following sentences:
Answer:

1. The only sound in the classroom was the scratching of the pens over the paper.
2. M. Hamel’s sister moved in the room above to pack their trunks.
3. The gesture to students with his hand by M. Hamel was school is dismissed – you may go.
4. Only the desks and benches had been worn smooth.

Activities based on vocabulary:

Question 1.
Make a Word Register related with “School” based on the given passage.
Answer:
School: desks, participles, lessons, questions, teacher, classmates, table, ruler.

Question 2.
Complete the following table with the help of the passage given:
Answer:

Words ending with ‘ing’	Words ending with ‘ed’
morning, scolding, running, spending, chirping, drilling, reading, making, closing, opening, rapping, walking, beginning, etc.	started, passed, hurried, happened, frightened, called, etc.

Question 3.
Find out examples of commonly used past participles from the passage.
Answer:
Commonly used past participles from the passage:
1. knew
2. forgot.

Question 4.
Write the meaning of the following words :
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. bustle – busy and noisy activity
2. attentive – thoughtful
3. solemn – sincere.

Question 5.
Find out opposites from the passage for the following : (Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. disrespect × respect
2. unfaithful × faithful
3. carefree × anxious
4. best × worst

Question 6.
Arrange the following words in alphabetical order:
prison, patience, people, poor, participles, plenty, pretend, parents.
Answer:
Alphabetical order:
parents, participles, patience, people, plenty, poor, pretend, prison.

Question 7.
Find out synonyms from the passage for –
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. awesome – beautiful
2. flapping – fluttering
3. intone – chant
4. discharged – dismissed

Activities based on contextual grammar:

Frame a Wh-question to get underlined answer:

Question 1.
The birds were chirping at the edges of the woods.
Answer:
Where were the birds chirping?

Question 2.
The blacksmith was there with his apprentice.
Answer:
Who was there with his apprentice?

Question 3.
The narrator was blushed and frightened.
Answer:
How was the narrator?

Question 4.
The morning was warm and bright.
Answer:
What was warm and bright?

Question 5.
Find out two imperative and two exclamatory sentences from the passage:
Answer:
1. Imperative sentences:

• Don’t go so fast, boy.
• Go to your place quickly.

2. Exclamatory sentences:

• It was so warm, so bright!
• But now it was all so still!

Pick out the infinitive from the sentence and use it in your own sentence:

Question 1.
The order has come from Berlin to teach only German in the schools.
Answer:
Infinitive – to teach
Sentence: I don’t like to teach the people, I like to learn from the people.

Question 2.
So heavy to carry my grammar and my history of the saints.
Answer:
Infinitive – to carry
Sentence: Most of the youngsters don’t like to carry anything with them.

Question 3.
M. Hamel said, “My children, this is the last lesson I shall give you. The order has come from Berlin to teach only German in the schools of Alsace and Loraine.” (Rewrite it in indirect narration.)
Answer:
M. Hamel told his children that, it was the last lesson he would give them. He further told them that the order had come from Berlin to teach only German in the schools of Alsace and Loraine.

Question 4.
Add a question tag given.
Answer:

1. They had not gone to school, had they?
2. Your parents were not anxious enough to have you learn, were they?
3. You are not the worst, are you?
4. I had never listened so carefully, had I?

Make it affirmative without changing the meanings:

Question 1.
He had never explained everything with so much patience.
Answer:
He had hardly explained everything with so much patience.

Question 2.
I had not learnt my participles so I could not say a single word.
Answer:
I had hardly learnt my participles so I was unable to say a single word.

Question 3.
I thought to myself, “Will they make them sing in German, even the pigeons?”
(Rewrite it in indirect narration.)
Answer:
I thought to myself that they would make them sing in German, even the pigeons.

Do as directed:

Question 1.
He could not go on. (Use ‘to be able to’)
Answer:
He was not able to go on.

Question 2.
He took a piece of chalk, he wrote as large as he could. (Begin the sentence with ‘After taking …’)
Answer:
After taking a piece of chalk, he wrote as large as he could.

Question 3.
Complete the words by using correct letters:

1. s _ old
2. fie_d
3. pr _ ze
4. t_ach

Answer:

1. scold
2. field
3. prize
4. teach

Question 4.
Copy the following sentences in your notebook:
Answer:
1. “Don’t go so fast, boy; you’ll get to your school in plenty of time!”
2. I thought myself “What can be the matter now?”

Question 5.
Put the following words in alphabetical order:
1. wondering, participles, mayor, bustle.
2. scolding, solemn, scratching, soldiers.
Answer:
1. bustle, mayor, participles, wondering.
2. scolding, scratching, soldiers, solemn.

Question 6.
Punctuate the following sentences:
1. I thought to myself will they make them sing in german even the pigeons
2. this is your last french lesson I want you to be very attentive m hamel said
Answer:
1. I thought to myself, “Will they make them sing in German, even the pigeons?”
2. “This is your last French lesson. I want you to be very attentive,” M. Hamel said.

Question 7.
Write four small words (minimum letters each) using the letters in the given word:
‘thunderclap’
Answer:

1. thunder
2. clap
3. under
4. tune

Question 8.
Spot the error and rewrite the correct sentences:
1. Through the window I see my classmates, already in their place.
2. They were sorry because they has not gone to school more.
Answer:
1. Through the window I saw my classmates, already in their place.
2. They were sorry because they had not gone to school more.

Question 9.
Write related words as shown in the example: (Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

Question 10.
Complete the following word-chain of verbs. Add four words each beginning with the last letter of the previous words:
chirp → ………………… → ……………….. → ……………… →…………….. .
Answer:
chirp → ping → grow → watch → heal.

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Make your own meaningful sentence by using the phrase “Once in a blue moon”.
Answer:
My uncle lives in Australia, so I see him only once in a blue moon.

Question 2.
Add a prefix or suffix to make new words and use any one of the root words in your own sentence:
1. motion
2. faith
Answer:
1. motion – motionless
2. faith – faithful.
Sentence: My grandmother was sitting without any motion in her chair.

Question 3.
Add a clause to expand the sentence meaningfully:
The people realized …………….. .
Answer:
The people realized that trees should be protected at any cost.

Personal Response:

Question 1.
What is the scene like when your own school begins? Describe it in short.
Answer:
When my school begins, students are busy in different activities. There is chaos everywhere, students rush to their classes hurriedly. They meet and greet each other. They run laugh, chat and enjoy the beginning of the school.

Question 2.
How do your teachers punish you when you make a mistake in the class?
Answer:
I never give any chance to my teachers to punish me. Being studious and serious in studies, I always do my work on time. I participate in all the activities in the class. So my teachers always praise me and my work. So even if I make a mistake they never punish me.

Question 3.
Why is it the last lesson?
Answer:
An order had come from Berlin to teach only German in the schools of Alsace and Loraine. M. Hamel used to teach French there. By order a new German teacher was supposed to come the next day to teach German in that school. It was the last lesson of French and the French teacher.

Question 4.
We should be grateful to our teachers – support your views.
Answer:
We should be grateful to our teachers because whatever they do, they do it for the development of their students. They do it selflessly. They want every student to be successful. By telling us what is good and what is bad they always show us the right path. They always lead like a ‘torch bearer’ to us.

Question 5.
Why M. Hamel was leaving the country?
Answer:
M. Hamel was extremely patriotic towards I France and had a deep love for the French language. The Prussians had taken over Alsace and Loraine. He might be leaving the country as he did not want to live under the Prussians’ rule where even teaching the French language was prohibited.

Question 6.
With the coming of Prussians, will language be the only thing that will change? What other changes may take place?
Answer:
With the coming of Prussians not only language but also the whole life of the people of France will be changed because they will be bound by German laws. They will not get their fundamental rights. They will have to obey their orders and live like slaves. They will squeeze money out of them and leave them financially bankrupt.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence

Class 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option:

The Maratha War Of Independence Class 7 Question 1.
Aurangzeb was annoyed by his bravery.
(a) Shahajada Akbar
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
(c) Chhatrapati Rajaram Maharaj
Answer:
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj

The Maratha War Of Independence Question Answer Question 2.
These decamped with the golden pinnacle from the Emperor’s tent.
(a) Santaji and Dhanaji
(b) Santaji Ghorpade and Vithoji Chavan
(c) Khando Ballal and Rupaji Bhosale
Answer:
(b) Santaji Ghorpade and Vithoji Chavan

Std 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War Of Independence Question 3.
He fought very bravely in the Goa battle.
(a) Yesaji Kank
(b) Nemaji Shinde
(c) Pralhad Niraji
Answer:
(a) Yesaji Kank

2. Find in the text in the lesson and write answers:

Class 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War Of Independence Question 1.
Why did Sambhaji Maharaj return halfway from the Janjira campaign? ‘
Answer:
(a) Sambhaji Maharaj started a campaign against the Siddi of Janjira in 1682 CE.
(b) The Marathas laid siege to Siddi’s Dandarajpuri and battered the fort of Janjira with the artillery.
(c) But on the other hand, the Mughal army invaded Swaraj. Hence Sambhaji Maharaj returned halfway from the Janjira campaign to protect/defend his kingdom.

9 The Maratha War Of Independence Question 2.
Why did Sambhaji Maharaj decide to teach a lesson to the Portuguese?
Answer:
The Portuguese of Goa joined hands with the Emperor against Sambhaji Maharaj so ) the Maharaj decided to teach a lesson to the Portuguese.

The Maratha War Of Independence Question 3.
While going to Jinji, Rajaram Maharaj left the responsibility of protecting Swaraj to whom?
Answer:
While going to Jinji, Rajaram Maharaj had assigned the duty to protect Swaraj to Ramchandrapant, Amatya, Shankaraji, Narayan Sachiv, Santaji Ghorpade and Dhanaji Jadhav.

9 The Maratha War Of Independence Class 7 Question 4.
Devdatta has described Maharani Tarabai’s Valour in which words?
Answer:
Devdatta has described Maharani Tarabai’s valour in his Marathi poem:

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
Aurangzeb turned his aim towards Adilshahi and Qutubshahi Kingdom.
Answer:
(a) Aurangzeb was not able to succeed his campaign against the Marathas.
(b) Therefore he suspended the campaign and turned his aim towards Adilshahi and Kutubshahi states.

Question 2.
After the death of Sambhaji Maharaj, the Marathas intensified their war with the Mughals.
Answer:
(a) Sambhaji Maharaj was brutally put to death by Aurangzeb.
(b) The Marathas took inspiration from his sacrifice and intensified their fight against the Mughals.

Question 3.
It was decided that the Raigad fort should be fought under the leadership of Maharani Yesubai.
Answer:
(a) Zulfikarkhan put Raigad under siege.
(b) Rajaram Maharaj and his wife Maharani Tarabai, Sambhaji Maharaj’s wife, Maharani Yesubai and his son Shahu were in Raigad.
(c) It was very risky for all members of the royal family to stay at one place.
(d) It was decided that Rajaram should escape from Raigad and the fight to defend Raigad would continue under the leadership of Maharani Yesubai.

Activity:

Show Goa, Bijapur, Golconda, Jinji, Ahmadabad and Ahmednagar on a map of India.

Class 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Akbar sought shelter with –
(a) Sambhaji Maharaj
(b) Mukarrab Khan
(c) Rajaram Maharaj
Answer:
Sambhaji Maharaj

Question 2.
Aurangzeb died in 1707 at –
(a) Kolhapur
(b) Janjira
(c) Ahmadnagar
Answer:
Ahmadnagar

Arrange the events chronologically:

• Aurangzeb died at Ahmadnagar.
• Sambhaji Maharaj was put to death.
• Rajaram Maharaj escaped from Raigad fort.
• Aurangzeb descended to the South.
• Maharani Yesubai and Shahu put under arrest.

Answer:

• Aurangzeb descended to the South.
• Sambhaji Maharaj was put to death.
• Rajaram Maharaj escaped from Raigad fort.
• Maharani Yesubai and Shahu put under arrest.
• Aurangzeb died at Ahmadnagar.

Write the meaning of:

Question 1.
Artillery
Answer:
The army unit that uses big guns with big barrels.

Question 2.
Killedar / Kiledar
Answer:
In charge of the fort.

Question 3.
Guerilla tactics
Answer:
The use of surprise raids hit and run by the army and repetitive attacks on the enemy.

Find from the text and write the answers:

Question 1.
Who took away the golden pinnacle from the Emperor’s own tent?
Answer:
(a) Santaji Ghorpade
(b) Vithoji Chavan

Question 2.
Name the faithful Sardars of Raj aram Maharaj who joined him in the Jinji campaign.
Answer:
(a) Pralhad Niraji
(b) Khando Ballal
(c) Rupaji Bhosale.

Question 3.
What was Tarabai’s warfare method called?
Answer:
Tarabai’s warfare method was called ‘Safe deposit locker system’.

Question 4.
How did Aurangzeb entice many Maratha Sardars on his side?
Answer:
Aurangzeb enticed many Maratha Sardars on his side by giving them watans and jagirs.

Question 5.
Why was it decided that Rajaram Maharaj should escape from Raigad and go to Jinji?
Answer:
(a) The Jinji fort was far off in the south and was invincible.
(b) It was not an easy task for the Mughals to capture this fort.
Hence Rajaram escaped from Raigad and went to Jinji.

Question 6.
How does Khafikhan describe Maharani Tarabai?
Answer:
Khafikhan described Maharani Tarabai in the following words “She is intelligent and wise. She became very famous for her management of army and administration even during the rule of her husband”.

Question 7.
When was the sign of the tilting of the balance to the other end seen?
Answer:
It was when trusted Sardars like Krishnaji Sawant, Khanderao Dabhada, Dhanaji Jadhav and Nemaji Shinde started the battles on various fronts against the Mughals outside Maharashtra which gave a sign of the tilting of the balance to the other end.

Find out and write:

Question 1.
They were in the forefront to invade Mughal territories.
Answer:
Santaji and Dhanaji

Question 2.
He died in March 1700.
Answer:
Rajaram Maharaj

Question 3.
He rebelled against his father and sought shelter with Sambhaji Maharaj.
Answer:
Prince Akbar

Question 4.
The Incharge of the Kolhapur province.
Answer:
Mukarrabkhan

Question 5.
The Great Maratha soldier of whom the Mughal soldiers were scared of.
Answer:
Dhanaji

Question 6.
The Historian Riyasatkar G.S. Sardesai described Rajaram Maharaj as.
Answer:
‘Sthirbuddhi’ (Level Headed)

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Sambhaji Maharaj had to abandon the Janjira campaign and turn back.
Answer:

• Sambhaji Maharaj started a campaign against Siddi in 1682 CE.
• His army laid a siege to Dandarajpuri fort and battered the fort of Janjira with the artillery.
• But at the same time, the Mughal army invaded Swaraj.
• Sambhaji Maharaj had to abandon the Janjira campaign and turn back.

Question 2.
Noted historian Riyasatkar G.S. Sardesai has described Rajaram Maharaj by using the adjective ‘Sthirbuddhi’. (Level Headed)
Answer:

• Rajaram Maharaj was thoughtful and kind- hearted.
• He brought together all the capable people in the Maratha empire.
• He united them and thus created a new enthusiasm amongst them.
• After the death of Sambhaji Maharaj, he fought against Aurangzeb for 11 years with great courage and tenacity.
• Rajaram Maharaj’s greatest achievement is that he protected Swaraj in those extremely difficult times.

Question 3.
The Eighteenth century is known as the Maratha Century.
Answer:

• After the death of Aurangzeb, not only did the Marathas filled the vacuum in the political arena, but also lead the political affairs.
• They ruled over Delhi’s throne and almost all parts of Hindustan and also protected it.
• Due to sequence of events, the 18th century is known as the ‘Maratha Century’.

Complete the following flow chart:

The lineage of the Bhosale family.

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 Gravitation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 Gravitation

Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
Study the entries in the following table and rewrite them putting the connected items in a single row :

I	II	III
Mass	m/s2	Zero at the centre of the earth
Weight	kg	Measure of inertia
Acceleration due to gravity	N.m2/kg2	Same in the entire universe
Gravitational constant	N	Depends on height

Answer:

I	II	III
Mass	kg	Measure of inertia
Weight	N	Depends on height
Acceleration due to gravity	m/s2	Zero at the centre of the earth
Gravitational constant	N.m2/kg2	Same in the entire universe

Gravitation Class 10 Maharashtra Board Question 2.
Answer the following questions.
(a) What is the difference between mass and weight of an object? Will the mass and weight of an object on the earth be the same as their values on Mars? Why?
Answer:
The mass of an object is the amount of matter present in it. It is same everywhere in the Universe and is never zero. It is a scalar quantity and its SI unit is kg. The weight of an object is the force with which the earth (or any other planet/ moon/star) attracts it. It is directed towards the centre of the earth. The weight of an object is different at different places on the earth. It is zero at the earth’s centre. It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is the newton (N). The magnitude of weight = mg.

The mass of an object will be the same on the earth and Mars, but the weight will not be the same because the value of g on Mars is different from that on the earth.

(b) what are (i) free fall, (ii) acceleration due to gravity (iii) escape velocity (iv) centripetal force?
Answer:
(i) Free fall:
Whenever an object moves under the influence of the force of gravity alone, it is said to be falling freely.

(ii) Acceleration due to gravity:
The acceleration produced in a body due to the gravitational force of the earth is called the acceleration due to gravity.
[Note: On the earth’s surface, the value of the acceleration due to gravity is almost uniform. If a body falls from a low altitude, the value of the acceleration due to gravity is almost the same.]

(iii) Escape velocity:
When a body is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth, the minimum initial velocity of the body for which the body is able to overcome the downward pull by the earth and can escape the earth forever is called the escape velocity.

(iv) Centripetal force:
In uniform circular motion of a body, the force acting on the body is directed towards the centre of the circle. This force is called centripetal force.

(c) Write the three laws given by Kepler. How did they help Newton to arrive at the inverse square law of gravity?
Kepler’s first law :
The orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci.

Figure 1.5 shows the elliptical orbit of a planet revolving around the Sun (S).

Kepler’s second law :
The line joining the planet and the Sun sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
A → B, C → D and E → F are the displacements of the planet in equal intervals of time.
The straight lines AS, CS and ES sweep equal areas in equal intervals of time.
Area ASB = area CSD = area ESF.

Kepler’s third law :
The square of the period of revolution of a planet around the Sun is directly proportional to the cube of the mean distance of the planet from the Sun.
Thus, if r is the average distance of the planet from the Sun and T is its period of revolution, then,
T² ∝ r², i.e., \(\frac{T^{2}}{r^{3}}\) = constant = K

For simplicity, we shall assume the orbit to be a circle.

In Fig. 1.6,
S denotes the position of the Sun, P denotes the position of a planet at a given instant and r denotes the radius of the orbit (= the distance of the planet from the Sun). Here, the speed of the planet is uniform.

If m is the mass of the planet, the centripetal force exerted on the planet by the Sun (= gravitational force),

According to Kepler’s third law,

Thus, F ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\) as \(\frac{4 \pi^{2} m}{K}\) is constant in a particular case.

(d) A stone thrown vertically upwards with initial velocity u reaches a height ‘h’ before coming down. Show that the time taken to go up is same as the time taken to come down.
Answer:

We have, v = u + at …..(1)
and s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² …..(2)
∴ s = (v – at) t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
= vt – at² + \(\frac{1}{2}\) at²
∴ s = vt – \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² …..(3)
As the stone moves upward from A → B,
s = AB = h, t = t₁,
a = -g (retardation),
u = u and v = 0
∴ From Eq. (3), h = 0 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) (-g)t₁²
∴ h = \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt₁² …..(4)
As the stone moves downward from B → A,
t = t₂, u = 0, s = h and a = g
∴ from Eq. (2), h = \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt² …..(5)
From Eqs. (4) and (5), t₁² = t₂²
∴ t₁ = t₂ (∵ t₁ and t₂ are positive)

(e) If the value of g suddenly becomes twice its value, it will become two times more difficult to pull a heavy object along the floor. Why?
Answer:
To pull an object along the floor, it is necessary to do work against the force of friction between the object and the surface of the floor. This force of friction is proportional to the weight, mg, of the object. If the value of g becomes twice its value, the weight of the object and hence the force of friction will become double. Therefore, it will become two times more difficult to pull a heavy object along the floor.

10th Gravitation Chapter Exercise Question 3.
Explain why the value of g is zero at the centre of the earth.
The value of g changes while going deep inside the earth. It goes on decreasing as we go from the earth’s surface towards the earth’s centre.

We shall treat the earth as a sphere of uniform density. If we consider a particle of mass m at point P at a distance (R – d) from the earth’s centre, where R is the radius of the earth and d is the depth below the earth’s surface, the gravitational force on the particle due to the earth is

F = \(\frac{G m M^{\prime}}{(R-d)^{2}}\), where ‘M’ is the mass of the sphere of radius (R – d).

because the outer spherical shell is not effective (Fig. 1.10). In this case, the acceleration due to gravity is

where M is the mass of the earth. Thus, g decreases as d increases. It is less than that at the earth’s surface (\(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)) At the earth’s centre, d = R
∴ g = 0.

[Note : The formulae given in the answer are not given in the textbook. The formula density = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}\) is used to find M’.]

Std 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Question Answer Question 4.
Let the period of revolution of a planet at a distance R from a star be T. Prove that if it was at a distance of 2R from the star, its period of revolution will be \(\sqrt{8} T\).
Answer:
T= \(\frac{2 \pi}{\sqrt{G M}} \quad r^{3 / 2}\), where T = period of revolution of a planet around the Sun, M = mass of the Sun, G = gravitational constant and r = radius of the orbit assumed to be circular = distance of the planet from the Sun.
For r = R, T =T₁.

Class 10 Science 1 Chapter 1 Gravitation Question 5.
Solve the following examples.
(a) An object takes 5 s to reach the ground from a height of 5 m on a planet. What is the value of g on the planet?
Solution:
Data: u = 0 m/s, s = 5m, t = 5s, g = ?

(b) The radius of planet A is half the radius of planet B. If the mass of A is M_A, what must be the mass of B so that the value of g on B is half that of its value on A?  (Practice Activity Sheet – 4)
Solution:
Data : R_A = R_B/2, gB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) g_A, M_B = ?

(c) The mass and weight of an object on the earth are 5 kg and 49 N respectively. What will be their values on the moon? Assume that the acceleration due to gravity on the moon is l/6th of that on the earth.
Solution:
Data: m = 5 kg, W = 49 N,
gM = \(\frac{g_{E}}{6}\),m (on the moon) = ?, W(on the moon) = ?
(i) The mass of the object on the moon = the mass of the object on the earth = 5 kg
(ii) W = mg

(weight of the object on the moon).

(d) An object thrown vertically upwards reaches a height of 500 m. what was its initial velocity? How long will the object take to come back to the earth? Assume g = 10 m/s²
Solution:
100 mn/s and 20 s

(e) A ball falls off a table and reaches the ground in 1 s. Assuming g = 10 m/s², calculate its speed on reaching the ground and the height of the table.
Solution:
Data: t = 1s, g = 10 m/s², u = 0 m/s,
s = ?, v = ?
(i) s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt²
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt² for u = 0 m/s
∴ s = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 m/s² × (1s)²
=5 m
∴ The height of the table = 5 m.

(ii) v = u +at = u + gt
= 0 m/s + 10 m/s² × 1 s
= 10m/s
∴ The velocity of the ball on reaching the ground = 10 m/s.

(f) The masses of the earth and moon are 6 × 10²⁴ kg and 7.4 × 10²² kg, respectively. The distance between them is 3.84 × 10⁵ km. Calculate the gravitational force of attraction between the two. Use G = 6.7 × 10^-11 N.m² kg^-2.
Solution:
Data : m₁ = 6 × 10²⁴ kg,
m₂ = 7.4 × 10²² kg,
r = 3.84 × 10⁵ km = 3.84 × 10⁸ m,
G = 6.7 × 10^-11 N.m² kg^-2, F = ?

This is (the magnitude of) the gravitational force between the earth and the moon.

(g) The mass of the earth is 6 × 10²⁴ kg. The distance between the earth and the Sun is 1.5 × 10¹¹ m. If the gravitational force between the two is 3.5 × 10²² N, what is the mass of the Sun? (Use G = 6.7 × 10^-11 N.m² kg^-2)
Solution:
Data : m₁ = 6 × 10²⁴ kg,
r = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m, F = 3.5 × 10²² N,
G = 6.7 × 10^-11 N.m²kg^-2, m₂ = ?

= 1.96 × 10³⁰ kg (mass of the sun)

Gravitation Class 10 Exercise Answers Project:
Take weights of five of your friends. Find out what their weights will be on the moon and the Mars.
Answer:
Help: The weight of a body
(i) On the earth. W₁ = mg₁
(ii) on the moon, W₂ = mg₂
(iii) on Mars, W₃ = mg₃
∴ W₂ = W₁ × \(\frac{g_{2}}{g_{1}}\) and W₃ = W₁ × \(\frac{g_{3}}{g_{1}}\)
Now, g₁ = 9.81 m/s², g₂ = 1.67 m/s² and g₃ = 3.72 m/s²
If W₁ = 500 N,
W₂ = 500 × \(\frac{1.67}{9.81}\)N = 85.12N(approx.)
and W₃ = 500 × \(\frac{3.72}{9.81}\)N = 189.6 N (approx.)

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 1)

10th Class Science Part 1 Chapter 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
What are the effects of a force acting on an object? (Note: a body ≡ an object)
Answer:

• A force can set a body in motion. For example, if a ball at rest on the floor is pushed, it rolls on the floor.
• A force can stop a moving body. For example, a moving bicycle can be brought to rest by application of brakes.
• A force acting on a body can change the speed of the body. For example, when brakes are applied to a moving bicycle, its speed decreases due to the friction between the brake shoes and the rim of the tire.
• A force can change the direction of motion of the body. For example, in a uniform circular motion of a body, the direction of motion of the body keeps on changing due to the applied force.
• A force can change the speed as well as the direction of motion of the body. For example, when a ball bowled by a bowler is hit by a batsman, there occurs a*change in the speed as well as the direction of motion of the ball.
• A force can change the shape and size of the body on which it acts. For example, when a rubber ball is pressed, it gets deformed and hence no longer remains spherical. Also, there can be a decrease in its volume.

1 Gravitation Exercise Question 2.
What types of forces are you familiar with?
Answer:
The gravitational force between the earth and the moon, the electromagnetic force between two charged particles in motion, the nuclear force between a proton and a neutron in the nucleus of an atom.

Gravitation 10th Class Exercise Question 3.
What do you know about the gravitational force?
Answer:
The gravitational force is a universal force, i.e., it acts between any two objects in the universe.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 1)

Science Part 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
What are Newton’s laws of motion?
Answer:
(1) Newton’s first law of motion: An object continues to remain at rest or in a state of uniform motion along a straight line unless an external unbalanced force acts on it.

(2) Newton’s second law of motion: The rate of change of momentum is proportional to the applied force and the change of momentum occurs in the direction of the force.

(3) Newton’s third law of motion: Every action force has an equal and opposite reaction force that acts simultaneously.
[Note: Equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.]

Use your brainpower! (Text Book Page No. 4)

10th Science Part 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
If area ESF in figure 1.5 is equal to area ASB, what will you infer about EF?
Answer:
The time taken by the planet to move from E to F equals the time taken by the planet to move from A to B.

Use your brainpower (Text Book Page No. 7)

Gravitation Exercise 10th Class Question 1.
According to Newton’s law of gravitation, every object attracts every other object.
Thus, if the earth attracts an apple towards itself, the apple also attracts the earth towards itself with the same force. Why then does the apple fall towards the earth, but the earth does not move towards the apple?
Answer:
The earth and the apple move towards each other, but the magnitude of the displacement of the earth is negligible relative to that of the apple. Also the observer is located on the earth.
[Note: The mass of the earth is far greater than that of an apple. Hence, the magnitude of the acceleration of the earth is negligible relative to that of the apple.]

Gravitation Class 10 Question And Answer Question 2.
The gravitational force due to the earth also acts on the moon because of which it revolves around the earth. Similar situation exists for the artificial satellites orbiting the earth. The moon and the artificial satellites orbit the earth. The earth attracts them towards itself but unlike the falling apple, they do not fall on the earth, why?
Answer:
This is because of the velocity of the moon and the satellites along their orbits. If this velocity was not there, they would have fallen on the earth.

Think about it (Text Book Page No. 8)

Std 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Exercise Question 1.
What would happen if there were no gravity?
Answer:
There would be no gravitational attraction between any two particles and hence no formation of the solar system, galaxy, etc.

Science 1 Gravitation Question 2.
What would happen if the value of G was twice as large?
Answer:
The gravitational force between any two particles would become double, also the value of g would become double.

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 8)

Gravitation Class 10 Exercise Question 1.
What would be the value of g on the surface of the earth if its mass was twice as large and its radius half of what it is now? (March 2019)
Answer:

∴ g₂ = 8g₁
Thus, the value of g on the surface of the earth would be eight times the present value.

Think about it (Text Book Page No. 9)

Std 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Answers Question 1.
Will the direction of the gravitational force change as we go inside the earth?
Answer:
No.

Gravitation Class 11 Exercise Solutions State Board Question 2.
What will be the value of g at the centre of the earth?
Answer:
Zero.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 10)

10th Ssc Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Question 1.
Will your weight remain constant as you go above the surface of the earth?
Answer:
No. As we go above the surface of the earth, our weight will go on decreasing.

Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Gravitation Question 2.
Suppose you are standing on a tall ladder. If your distance from the centre of the earth is 2R, what will be your weight?
Answer:

= \(\frac{1}{4}\left(\frac{G M m}{R^{2}}\right)\)

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 12)

Gravitation Class 11 Maharashtra Board Question 1.
According to Newton’s law of gravitation, the earth’s gravitational force is higher on an object of larger mass. Why doesn’t that object fall down with higher velocity as compared to an object with lower mass?
Answer:
F = ma and F = \(\frac{G M m}{r^{2}}\)
∴ Acceleration, a = \(\frac{G M}{r^{2}}\). This is independent of the mass (m) of the object. Hence, an object of larger mass and an object of lower mass fall down with the same velocity.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 6)

Question 1.
Assuming the acceleration in Example 2 above remains constant, how long will Mahendra take to move 1 cm towards Virat?
Answer:
Here, u = 0

= 1935 s = 32 minutes 15 seconds.

Fill in the blanks with appropriate words and write the completed sentences :

Question 1.
The ratio g(earth)/g(moon) is equal to……..
Answer:
The ratio g(earth)/g(moon) is equal to 6 (approximately)

Question 2.
The value of the acceleration due to gravity……..as we move from the equator to a pole.
Answer:
The value of the acceleration due to gravity increases as we move from the equator to a pole.

Question 3.
If the earth shrinks to half of its radius, its mass remaining the same, the weight of an object on the earth will become……..times.
Answer:
If the earth shrinks to half of its radius, its mass remaining the same, the weight of an object on the earth will become four times.

Question 4.
The SI unit of weight is the……..
Answer:
The SI unit of weight is the newton.

Question 5.
The CGS unit of weight is the……..
Answer:
The CGS unit of weight is the dyne

Question 6.
The weight of a body is ……..at the poles.
Answer:
The weight of a body is maximum at the poles.

Question 7.
Outside the earth, the weight of a body varies as……..
Answer:
Outside the earth, the weight of a body varies as 1/(R + h)²

Question 8.
Due to the …….. force, the earth attracts all objects towards it.
Answer:
Due to the gravitational force, the earth attracts all objects towards it. Gravitational

Question 9.
The acceleration due to gravity does not depend on the …….. of the body.
Answer:
The acceleration due to gravity does not depend on the mass of the body. Mass

Question 10.
According to Kepler’s first law, the orbit of a planet is …….. with the Sun at one of the……..
Answer:
According to Kepler’s first law, the orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the foci

Question 11.
According to Kepler’s second law, the line joining the planet and the Sun …….. in equal intervals of time.
Answer:
According to Kepler’s second law, the line joining the planet and the Sun Sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.

Question 12.
According to Kepler’s third law T² ∝ rⁿ, where n = ……..
Answer:
According to Kepler’s third law T² ∝ rⁿ, where n = 3

Question 13.
For a freely falling object, we can write Newton’s second equation of motion as ……..
Answer:
For a freely falling object, we can write Newton’s second equation of motion as S = \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt²

Question 1.
(A) Write the proper answer in the square.  (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)

If this F = x
Then F =
Answer:
F = \(\frac{x}{4}\)

(B) Write the proper answer in the square.  (March 2019)

If F = \(\frac{G m_{1} m_{2}}{d^{2}}\),
then F =
Answer:
F = \(\frac{G m_{1} m_{2}}{9 d^{2}}\)

Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The gravitational force between two particles separated by a distance r varies as ……..
(a) \(\frac{1}{r}\)
(b) r
(c) r²
(d) \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\)

Question 2.
In the usual notation, the acceleration due to gravity at a height h from the surface of the earth is ……..

Answer:
(c) g = \(\frac{G M}{(R+h)^{2}}\)

Question 3.
The SI unit of the universal constant of gravitation is ……..
(a) N.m²/kg²
(b) N.kg²/m²
(c) m/s²
(d) kg.m/s²
Answer:
(a) N.m²/kg²

Question 4.
The escape velocity of a body from the earth’s surface, v_sec = …….

Answer:
(c) \(\sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}}\)

Question 5.
How much will a person with 72 N weight on the earth, weigh on the moon?  (Practice Activity Sheet-1)
(a) 12 N
(b) 36 N
(c) 21 N
(d) 63 N
Answer:
(a) 12 N

Question 6.
What will be the weight of a person on the earth, who weighs 9N on the moon? (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
(a) 3 N
(b) 15 N
(c) 45 N
(d) 54 N
Answer:
(d) 54 N

State whether the following statements are True or False :  (If a statement is false, correct it and rewrite it.)

Question 1.
If the separation between two particles is doubled, the gravitational force between the particles becomes half the initial force.
Answer:
False. (If the separation between two particles is doubled, the gravitational force between the particles becomes \(\frac{1}{4}\) times the initial force.)

Question 2.
The CGS unit of the universal constant or gravitation is the dyne cm²/gram²?
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
At the centre of the earth, the value of the acceleration due to gravity becomes zero.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The weight of a body is minimum at the poles.
Answer:
False. (The weight of a body is maximum at the poles.)

Question 5.
Mass is a vector quantity.
Answer:
False. (Mass is a scalar quantity.)

Question 6.
weight is a vector quantity.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
g has maximum value at the equator.
Answer:
False. (g has maximum value at the poles.)

Question 8.
Outside the earth, g varies as 1/(R + h)².
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The value of G changes from place to place.
Answer:
False. (The value of G is the same throughout the universe.)

Question 10.
The value of g increases with altitude.
Answer:
False. (The value of g decreases with altitude.)

Question 11.
The escape velocity of a body does not depend on the mass of the body.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
The mass of a body is the amount of matter present in it.
Answer:
True

Match the following :

Answer:
(1) Escape velocity : \(\sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}}\)
(2) Gravitational acceleration : \(\frac{G M}{r^{2}}\) (r ≥ R)
(3) Gravitational potential energy : \(\frac{-G M m}{R+h}\)
(4) Gravitational force : \(\frac{G m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
State the SI and CGS units of G.
Answer:
The SI unit of G is N.m²/kg² and CGS unit is the dyne.cm²/g².

Question 2.
State any one characteristic of gravitational force.
Answer:
Gravitational force between two particles does not depend on the nature of the medium between them.

Question 3.
Name the force that keeps a satellite in the orbit around the earth.
Answer:
The gravitational force due to the earth keeps a satellite in the orbit around the earth.

Question 4.
Name the force due to which the earth revolves around the Sun.
Answer:
The earth revolves around the Sun due to the gravitational force of attraction exerted on it by the Sun.

Question 5.
What is the acceleration due to gravity at a height h ( = radius of the earth) from the surface of the earth? (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Answer:
The acceleration due to gravity at a height h ( = radius of the earth) from the surface of the earth is 2.45 m/s².

Question 6.
What is the relation between the SI unit of weight and the CGS unit of weight?
Answer:
The relation between the SI unit of weight (the newton) and the CGS unit of weight (the dyne) is 1 newton = 10⁵ dynes.

Question 7.
Write the formula for the centripetal force acting on a body performing circular motion.
Answer:
F = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)

Question 8.
Write the formula for the escape velocity of a body from the earth’s surface.
Answer:

Question 9.
What is the value of the acceleration due to gravity at the centre of the earth?
Answer:
Zero.

Question 10.
What are the factors on which the maximum height attained by a body thrown upwards depends?
Answer:
The initial velocity of the body, the acceleration due to gravity at that place, the buoyant force and frictional force due to air.

Some of the important terms in chapter Gravitation are given in the following box. Find them :

Answer:
(1) centripetal force
(2) escape velocity
(3) periodic time
(4) gravitational constant.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is centripetal force?
(OR)
Define centripetal force.
Answer:
In uniform circular motion of a body, the force acting on the body is directed towards the centre of the circle. This force is called centripetal force.

Question 2.
Give one example of centripetal force.
Answer:
The moon revolves around the earth due to the gravitational force exerted on it by the earth. This force is directed towards the centre of the earth and is thus a centripetal force.

Question 3.
Name the source responsible for the motion of a planet around the Sun.
Answer:
A planet revolves around the Sun due to the gravitational force exerted on it by the Sun.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
In the following figure, an orbit of a planet around the Sun (S) has been shown. AB and CD are the distances covered by the planet in equal time. Lines AS ad CS sweep equal areas in equal intervals of time. Hence, areas ASB and CSD are equal.  (Practice Activity Sheet-1)
(a) Which laws do we understand from the above description?
(b) Write the law regarding the area swept.
(c) Write the law T² ∝ r³ in your words.

Answer:
(a) From the given description we understand Kepler’s three laws.
(b) Kepler’s law of areas: The line joining the planet and the Sun sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
(c) Kepler’s law of periods: The square of the period of revolution of a planet around the Sun is directly proportional to the cube of the mean distance of the planet from the Sun.

Question 2.
Identify the law shown in Fig. 1.7 and state the three respective laws. (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)

Answer:
(a) From the given description we understand Kepler’s three laws.
(b) Kepler’s law of areas: The line joining the planet and the Sun sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
(c) Kepler’s law of periods: The square of the period of revolution or a planet around the Sun is directly proportional to the cube of the mean distance of the planet from the Sun.

Question 3.
Explain the term gravitational force. What is gravitation?
Answer:
There exists a force of attraction between any two particles of matter in the universe such that the force depends only on the masses of the particles and the separation between them. It is called the gravitational force and the mutual attraction is called gravitation.

Question 4.
State Newton’s universal law of gravitation. Express it in mathematical form.
Answer:
Newton’s universal law of gravitation :
Every object in the Universe attracts every other object with a definite force. This force is directly proportional to the product of the masses of the two objects and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Mathematical form: Consider two objects of masses m₁ and m₂. We assume that the objects are very small spheres of uniform density and the distance r between their centers is very large compared to the radii of the spheres (Fig. 1.8).

The magnitude (F) of the gravitational force of attraction between the objects is directly proportional to m₁m₂ and inversely proportional to r²
∴ F ∝ \(\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
∴ F = \(G\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
where G is the constant of proportionality, called the universal gravitational constant.
[Note: In the textbook, the word object/body is used.
Newton’s law of gravitation applies to particles.]

Question 5.
(i) Why is the constant of gravitation called a universal constant?
(ii) Newton’s law of gravitation is called the universal law of gravitation. Why?
Answer:
(i) The value of the constant of gravitation does not change with the nature, mass or the size of the material particles. It does not vary with the distance between the two particles. It is also independent of the nature of the medium between the two particles. Hence, it is called a universal constant.

(ii) As the law of gravitation given by Newton is applicable throughout the universe and to all particles, it is called universal law.

[ Note: The centre of mass of an object is the point inside or outside the object at which the total mass of the object can be assumed to be concentrated to study the effect of an applied force. The centre of mass of a spherical object having uniform density is at its geometrical centre. The centre of mass of an object having uniform density is at its centroid. If the two bodies are spherical and of uniform density, the gravitational force between them is always along the line joining the centres of the two bodies and the distance between the centres is taken to be r. When the bodies are not spherical or have irregular shape or have nonuniform density, the force is along the line joining their centres of mass and r is taken to be the distance between the two centres of mass.]

Question 6.
If the distance between two bodies is increased by a factor of 5, (i) by what factor will the gravitational force change if the masses are kept constant? (ii) by what factor will the mass of one of them have to be altered, keeping the other mass the same, to maintain the same gravitational force between the two bodies?
Answer:
If the distance between two bodies is increased by a factor of 5,
(i) the gravitational force between the bodies will decrease by a factor of 25 if the masses of the bodies are kept constant.
(ii) the mass of one of them will have to be increased by a factor of 25, keeping the mass of the other body the same, to maintain the same gravitational force between the two bodies.
[Note : Gravitational force F ∝ \(\frac{1}{r^{2}}\) and F ∝ m₁m₂.]

Question 7.
(i) Determine the SI unit of the universal constant of gravitation from the formula for the gravitational force between two particles. Hence, state the CGS unit of the constant of gravitation. (ii) Define G (universal gravitational constant).
Ans. (i) According to Newton’s law of gravitation, the gravitational force between two particles is
F = \(G\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
where m₁ and m₂ are the masses of the two particles, r is the distance between them and G is the universal constant of gravitation.
∴ G = \(\frac{F r^{2}}{m_{1} m_{2}}\)

The SI unit of force is the newton (N), that of distance is the metre (m) and that of mass is the kilogram (kg).
The SI unit of G is \(\frac{\mathrm{N} \cdot \mathrm{m}^{2}}{\mathrm{kg}^{2}}\).
The CGS unit of G is \(\frac{\text { dyne } \cdot \mathrm{cm}^{2}}{\mathrm{g}^{2}}\).

(ii) F = \(G\frac{m_{1} m_{2}}{r^{2}}\).
∴ G = \(\frac{F r^{2}}{m_{1} m_{2}}\)
If we take m₁ = m₂ = unit mass and r = unit distance, numerically, G = F, i.e., G (universal gravitational constant) represents the magnitude of the gravitational force of attraction between two unit masses, separated by a unit distance.

Question 8.
State the importance of Newton’s universal law of gravitation.
Answer:
The importance of Newton’s universal law of gravitation :
This law explains successfully, i.e., with great accuracy,

• The force that binds the objects on the earth to the earth
• The motion of the moon and artificial satellites around the earth
• The motion of the planets, asteroids, comets, etc., around the Sun
• The tides of the sea due to the moon and the Sun.

Question 9.
Compare the gravitational force on a body of mass 1 kg due to the earth with the force on the same body due to another body of mass 1 kg at a distance of 1 m from the first body. (Mass of the earth = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, radius of the earth = 6400 km)
Answer:
In the first case, m₁ = 1kg,
m2 = 6 × 10²⁴ kg and r = 6400 km = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
The gravitational force on the body.

= \(\frac{G \times 6 \times 10^{24} \mathrm{kg}^{2}}{(6.4)^{2} \times 10^{12} \mathrm{m}^{2}}\)
In second case, m₁ = 1 kg
m₂ = 1 kg and r = 1m
Gravitational force on the body,

Question 10.
Explain the term the earth’s gravitational force.
(OR)
Write a short note on the earth’s gravitational force.
Answer:
The earth attracts every object towards it because of the gravitational force. As the earth’s centre of mass is at its centre, the gravitational force exerted by the earth on an object is directed towards the earth’s centre. Hence, an object released from a point above the earth’s surface falls vertically downward towards the earth.

If an object is thrown vertically upward, its velocity goes on decreasing due to the earth’s gravitational force on the object. At one stage, the velocity of the body becomes zero and later the body falls back to the earth.

Question 11.
Take two balls of different masses, go to the top of a building, drop them simultaneously and observe what happens to the balls.
Answer:
The balls reach the ground almost at the same time.

Question 12.
Take two similar pages from your notebook. Crumple one paper and allow this and the other paper to fall on the ground simultaneously. What do you observe?
Answer:
The crumpled paper reaches the ground before the other one.

Question 13.
Take a feather and a paper. Allow them to fall to the ground simultaneously. Which will reach the ground earlier? Why?
Answer:
There is no unique answer. It depends on the feather and paper. Upthrust due to air and force due to friction with air play very important roles here. The acceleration of a body depends on the resultant of the earth’s gravitational force on the body and the upthrust and the force of friction due to air.

Question 14.
From Newton’s law of gravitation, derive the formula for the acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:
Suppose that a body of mass m is released from a distance r from the centre (O) of the earth (Fig. 1.9). Let M be the mass of the earth. According to Newton’s law of gravitation, the magnitude of the earth’s gravitational force acting on the body Is
F = G\(\frac{M m}{r^{2}}\)
where G is the universal constant of gravitation.

The acceleration produced by this force, force F

This is the formula for the acceleration due to gravity or the gravitational acceleration due to the earth. This acceleration is directed towards the earth’s centre.

If h denotes the altitude, r = R + h, where R is the radius of the earth.
∴ g = \(\frac{G M}{(R+h)^{2}}\)
For a body on the earth’s surface, h = 0 ∴ g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)
[Note: When we consider the gravitational interaction between the earth and a body on the surface of the earth or at some height above the surface of the earth, for many practical purposes we can assume that the earth behaves as if its mass were concentrated at the earth’s centre. The proof is not expected here.]

Question 15.
Explain the factors affecting the value of g.
Answer:
The value of the acceleration due to gravity, g, changes from place to place on the earth. It also varies with the altitude and depth below the earth’s surface. The factors affecting the’ value of g are the shape of the earth, altitude and depth below the earth’s surface.

(1) The earth is not perfectly spherical. It is somewhat flat at the poles and bulging at the equator. At the surface of the earth, the value of g is maximum (9.832 m/s²) at the poles as the polar radius is minimum, while it is minimum (9.78 m/s²) at the equator as the equatorial radius is maximum.

(2) As the height (h) above the earth’s surface increases, the value of g decreases. It varies as \(\frac{1}{(R+h)^{2}}\), where R is radius of the earth.

(3) In the interior of the earth, on average, the value of g is less than that at the earth’s surface. As the depth below the earth’s surface increases, the value of g decreases and finally it becomes zero at the centre of the earth.

Question 16.
If g = GM/r², then where will the value^ of g be high, at Goa Beach or on the top of the Mount Everest? (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
The value of g will be high at Goa Beach.

Question 17.
Why does an object released from the hand, fall on the earth?
Answer:
When an object is held in the hand, the gravitational force acting on the object due to the earth is balanced by the person holding the object. When the object is released from the hand, it falls on the earth due to the earth’s gravitational force.

Question 18.
Does the value of g depend on the mass of the falling body? Why?
Answer:
The value of g does not depend on the mass of the falling body.
The reason is the gravitational force on a body due to the earth is directly proportional to the mass of the body and for a given force, the acceleration of a body is inversely proportional to the mass of the body.

Question 19.
Define mass. State its SI and CGS units.
Answer:
The mass of a body is the amount of matter present in it. Its SI unit is the kilogram (kg) and CGS unit is the gram (g).
[Note: Mass has only magnitude, not direction. Thus, it is a scalar quantity.]

Question 20.
Define weight. State its SI and CGS units.
Answer:
The weight of a body is defined as the force with which the earth attracts it. Its SI unit is the newton and CGS unit is the dyne.

[Note : In the usual notation, the magnitude of the weight of a body on the earth s surface is W = \(\frac{G m M}{R^{2}}\) = \(m\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\) = mg. Thus, W ∝ g. Hence, weight varies just like the acceleration due to gravity. It is maximum at the poles and minimum at the equator. It decreases with altitude (ft) and depth (d) below the earth’s surface. It becomes zero at the earth’s centre. At a height above the earth’s surface, W = \(\frac{G m M}{(R+h)^{2}}\) at a depth d below the earth’s surface, W = \(\frac{G m M(R-d)}{R^{3}}\). Weight has magnitude and direction (towards the earth’s centre). It is a vector quantity.]

Question 21.
As per the request of one of his friends from the equator, Rahul buys 100 grams of silver at the north pole. He hands it over to his friend at the equator. Will the friend agree with the weight of the silver bought? If not, why?
Answer:
The weight of a body is given by W = mg, where m is the mass of the body and g is the acceleration due to gravity, g varies from place to place. The value of g at the equator is less than that at the north pole (as well as the south pole). Hence, the weight of the silver bought at the north pole would be less when the silver is weighed at the equator. Therefore, Rahul’s friend will disagree about the weight of the silver.
[Note: The mass being independent of the value of g, Rahul’s friends will agree about the mass of the silver.]

Question 22.
What is the difference between mass and weight of an object? Will the mass and weight of an object on the earth be the same as their values on Mars? Why?
Answer:
The mass of an object is the amount of matter present in it. It is same everywhere in the Universe and is never zero. It is a scalar quantity and its SI unit is kg. The weight of an object is the force with which the earth (or any other planet/ moon/star) attracts it. It is directed towards the centre of the earth. The weight of an object is different at different places on the earth. It is zero at the earth’s centre. It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is the newton (N). The magnitude of weight = mg.

The mass of an object will be the same on the earth and Mars, but the weight will not be the same because the value of g on Mars is different from that on the earth.

Question 23.
Explain the term free fall and state the corresponding kinematical equations of motion in the usual notation.
Answer:
When a body falls in air, there are three forces acting on the body : (1) the gravitational force due to the earth, acting downward (2) the force of buoyancy (upthrust) due to air, acting upward I (3) the force due to friction with air (called air resistance), acting upward (being always in the direction opposite to that of the velocity of the body).

Under certain conditions, the force of buoyancy due to air and friction with air can be ignored compared to the gravitational force of the earth. In that case (near the earth’s surface) the body falls with almost uniform acceleration (g). Whenever a body moves under the influence of the force of gravity alone, it is said to be falling freely. Strictly speaking, this is true only if the body falls in vacuum.

The kinematical equations of motion, in the usual i notation, are
v = u + gt, s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\) gt² and v² = u² + 2gs.
If the initial velocity (u) of the body is zero,
v = gt, s = \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt² and v² = 2 gs.

Question 24.
During a free fall, will a heavier object accelerate more than a lighter one?
Answer:
No. The two objects will have the same acceleration.

Question 25.
If you had to calculate the mass of the earth, how would you do it?
Answer:
If the acceleration due to gravity (g), the constant of gravitation (G) and the radius of the earth (R) are known, the mass of the earth (M) can be calculated using the formula g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)

Question 26.
What is gravitational potential energy?
(OR)
Define gravitational potential energy.
Write the formula for it.
Answer:
The energy stored in a body due to the gravitational force between the body and the earth is called the gravitational potential energy.

Gravitational potential energy of a body of mass m = \(-\frac{G M m}{R+h}\), where G = gravitational constant, M = mass of the earth, R = radius of the earth, h = height of the body from the surface of the earth.

[Note : As the body is bound to the earth due to the earth’s gravitational froce, the gravitational potential energy of the body is negative. If the body is given kinetic energy equal to \(\frac{G M m}{R+h}\) the body will overcome the earth’s gravitational force. It will then move to infinity and come to rest there.]

Question 27.
What is escape Velocity?
(OR)
Define escape velocity.
Answer:
When a body is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth, the minimum initial velocity of the body for which the body is able to overcome the downward pull by the earth and can escape the earth forever is called the escape velocity.

Question 28.
Explain the term escape velocity.
(OR)
Write a short note on escape velocity.
Answer:
In general, when a body is thrown vertically upward from the earth’s surface, its velocity goes on decreasing and after some time the body falls back to the ground. If its initial velocity is increased, the maximum height attained by it is more, but it does fall back to the ground. If the initial velocity is increased continuously, for a particular initial velocity, the body can overcome the earth’s gravitational force and move to infinity and come to rest there. This velocity is called the escape velocity.

Question 29.
Using the law of conservation of energy, obtain the expression for the escape velocity.
Answer:
Here, we shall not consider the effects of air. Suppose a body of mass m is thrown vertically upward from the surface of the earth. Let the initial velocity of the body be the escape velocity (v_sec).

When the body is on the earth’s surface, its total energy Ex = kinetic energy + potential energy = \(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2} \text { esc }\) + \(\left(-\frac{G m M}{R}\right)\) where G = universal gravitational constant, M = mass of the earth and R = radius of the earth.
Thus, E₁ = \(\frac{1}{2} m v_{\mathrm{esc}}^{2}-\frac{G m M}{R}\)
When the body moves to infinity and comes to rest there, its total energy,

According to the law of conservation of energy,
E₁ = E₂.

This is the required expression.

Question 30.
Express escape velocity in terms of g and R.
Answer:
Escape velocity, vesc = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}}\)
Now, g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)
∴ GM = gR²

Question 31.
Express escape velocity in terms of G, R and ρ (the earth’s density)
Answer:

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
If a feather and a stone are released from the top of a building simultaneously, the stone reaches the ground earlier than the feather.
Answer:
(a) The motion of a body falling in air accelerated due to the earth’s gravitational force on the body. The force due to buoyancy of air acts on the body in the upward direction. As the body falls, the friction with air opposes its motion.

(b) This opposition due to air depends on the size, shape, density and velocity of the body. It Is greater for a feather than for a stone. Hence, the stone has greater downward acceleration than the feather. Therefore, the stone reaches the ground earlier than the feather though ‘they are released simultaneously from the same height.

Question 2.
The weight of a body is different on different planets.
Answer:
(1) The weight of a body of mass m on the surface of a planet of mass M and radius R is
W = \(\frac{G m M}{R^{2}}\) usuai notation).

(2) For a given body, its mass is constant. G is the universal constant of gravitation. Different planets have different masses and radii such that the ratio (M/R²) is not the same. Hence, the weight of a body is different on different planets.

Question 3.
With a specific initial velocity, we can jump higher on the moon than on the earth.
Answer:
The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is about \(\frac{1}{6}\) of that on the earth. Hence, with a specific initial velocity, we can jump higher on the moon than on the earth. This can be seen from the equation h = u²/2g.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
mass and weight (2) universal gravitational constant and gravitational acceleration of the earth.
Answer:
(1) Mass:

• The mass of a body is the amount of matter present in it.
• It has magnitude, but not direction.
• It does not change from place to place.
• It can never be zero.
• Its SI unit is the kilogram.

Weight:

• The weight of a body is the force with which the earth attracts it.
• It has both magnitude and direction.
• It changes from place to place.
• It is zero at the centre of the earth.
• Its SI unit is the newton.

Question 2.
Universal gravitational constant:

• The universal gravitational constant numerically equals the force of attraction masses separated by a unit distance.
• Its value remains constant throughout the universe.
• It has magnitude but not direction.
• Its SI unit is N.m²/kg².

Gravitational acceleration of the earth:

• The gravitational between two unit acceleration of the earth is the acceleration produced in a body due to the gravitational force of the earth.
• Its value changes from place to place.
• It has both magnitude and direction.
• Its SI unit is m/s²

Solve the following examples/numerical problems:
(G 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², g = 9.8 m/s²)

Question 1.
The time taken by the earth to complete one revolution around the Sun is 3.156 × 10⁷ s. The distance between the earth and the Sun is 1.5 × 10¹¹ m. Find the speed of revolution of the earth.
Solution:
Data : T = 3.156 × 107 s,
r = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m, v =?

= 2.987 × 10⁴ m/s = 29.87 km/s
This is the speed of revolution of the earth.

Question 2.
Assuming that the earth performs uniform circular motion around the Sun, flnd the centripetal acceleration of the earth. [Speed of the earth =3 × 10⁴ m/s, distance between the earth and the Sun = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m]
Solution:
Data: v = 3 × 10⁴ m/s, r=1.5 × 10¹¹ m
Centripetal force = \(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\) = ma
∴ Centripetal acceleration of the earth,

= 6 × 10^-3 m/s²
It is directed towards the centre of the Sun.

Question 3.
What will be the gravitational force on 60 kg man on the Moon, Mars and Jupiter? Are they the same? Why?
M (Moon) = 7.36 × 10²² kg, R (Moon) = 1.74 × 10⁶m,
M (Mars) = 6.4 × 10²³ kg, R (Mars) = 3.395 × 10⁶ m,
M (Jupiter) = 1.9 × 10²⁷ kg.
R (Jupiter) = 7.15 × 10⁷ m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m/kg²
Solution:
(1) Data : m₁ = 60 kg, m₂ = 7.36 × 10²² kg,
R = 1.74 × 10⁶ m, F = ?

= 97.29 N
On the moon’s surface, the gravitational force on the man due to the moon = 97.29 N.

(2) Data : m₁ = 60 kg, m₂ = 6.4 × 10²³ kg,
R = 3.395 × 10⁶m, F = ?

= 222.2 N
On the surface of Mars, the gravitational force on the man due to Mars = 222.2 N.

(3) Data : m₁ = 60 kg, m₂ = 1.9 × 10²⁷ kg,
R = 7.15 × 10⁷ m, F = ?

= 1487 N
On the surface of Jupiter, the gravitational force on the man due to Jupiter = 1487 N.

Thus, the forces on the man are not the same because the ratio (M/R²) is not the same in the case of the moon, Mars, and Jupiter.

Question 4.
Mahendra and Virat are sitting at a distance of 1 meter from each other. Their masses are 75 kg and 80 kg respectively. What is the gravitational force between them? G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg². (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Solution:
Given: r = 1 m,
m₁ = 75 kg,
m₂ = 80 kg
G = 6.67 × 10-11 N.m²/kg²

= 4.002 × 10^-7 N
The gravitational force between Mahendra and Virat is 4.002 × 10^-7 N.

Question 5.
Spheres A and B of uniform density have masses 1 kg and 100 kg respectively. Their centres are separated by 100 m. (i) Find the gravitational force between them, (ii) Find the gravitational force on A due to the earth, (iii) Suppose A and B are initially at rest and A can move freely towards B. What will be the velocity of A one second after it starts moving towards B? How will this velocity change with time? How much time will A take to move towards B by 1 cm? (iv) if A begins to fall, starting from rest, due to the earth’s downward pull, what will be its velocity after one second? How much time will it take to fall through 1cm?
[M_(earth) = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R_(earth) = 6400 km]
Solution:Data: m₁ = 1 kg, m₂ = 100 kg, r = 100 m,
M =6 × 10²⁴ kg,
R = 64o0 km = 6400 × 10³ m,
t = 1 s, s = 1 cm = 1 × 10^-2 m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m2/kg
F₁ =?, F₂ =?, v₁ =?, t₁ =?, v₂ =?, t₁ =?

This is far greater than F₁.
(iii) Ignoring variation of acceleration with distance,

This velocity is directed from A to B. As the separation between A and B decreases, the acceleration of A and hence the velocity of A will increase.

Ignoring variation of acceleration with distance,

Question 6.
Two spheres of uniform density have masses 10 kg and 40 kg. The distance between the centres of the spheres is 200 m. Find the gravitational force between them.
Solution:
Data: m₁ = 10 kg, m₂ = 40 kg,
r = 200 m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², F = ?

The gravitational force between the two spheres = 6.67 × 10^-13 N.

Question 7.
Find the gravitational force between a man of mass 50 kg and a car of mass 1500 kg separated by 10 m.
Solution: Data : m₁ = 50 kg, m₂ = 1500 kg,
r = 10 m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², F = ?

= 5.0025 × 10^-8 N
The gravitational force between the man and the car = 5.0025 × 10^-8 N.

Question 8.
Find the magnitude of the gravitational force between the Sun and the earth. (Mass of the Sun = 2 × 10²⁴ kg, mass of the earth=6 × 10²⁴ kg and the thstance between the centres of the Sun and the earth 1.5 × 10¹¹ m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²)
Solution:
Data: m₁ = 2 × 10³⁰ kg,
m₂ = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, r = 1.5 × 10¹¹ m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², F =?

∴ F = 3.557 × 10²² N
The magnitude of the gravitational force between the Sun and the earth = 3.557 × 10²² N.

Question 9.
Find the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth. (M= 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R = 6400 km)
Solution:
Data: M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg,
R = 6400km = 6.4 × 10⁶m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg², g =?
g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)

The magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth = 9.77 m/s².

Question 10.
The mass of an imaginary planet is 3 times the mass of the earth. Its diameter is 25600 km arid the earth’s diameter is 12800 km. Find the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the planet, [g (earth) = 9.8 m/s²]
Solution:
Data: \(\frac{M_{2}(\text { planet })}{M_{1}(\text { earth })}\) = 3
D₁ (earth) = 12800 km

g₁ (earth) = 9.5 m/s², g₂ (planet) = ?

The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the planet = 7.35 m/s².

Question 11.
If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth is 9.8 m/s², what will be the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a planet whose mass and radius both are two times the corresponding quantities for the earth?
Solution:
Data: g_e = 9.8 m/s², M_p = 2M_e,
Rp = 2R_e, g_p = ?
Acceleration due to gravity, g = \(\frac{G M}{R^{2}}\)

acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the planet = 4.9 m/s².

Question 12.
A body is released from the top of a building of height 19.6 m. Find the velocity with which the body hits the ground.
Solution:
Data: h = 19.6 m, u = 0 m/s,
g = 9.8 m/s², s = 19.6 m, v = ?
v² = u² + 2 gs .
=2 gs …..(as u = 0 m/s)
= 2 × 9.8 m/s² × 19.6 m
= (19.6 m/s)²
∴ v = 19.6 m/s (downward velocity)
The velocity with which the body hits the i ground = 19.6 m/s (downward).

Question 13.
A stone on a bridge on a river falls into the river. If it takes 3 seconds to reach the surface of water, find (i) the velocity of the stone at the instant it touches the surface of water (ii) the height of the bridge from the surface of water.
Solution:
Data: u = 0 m/s, t = 3 s,
g = 9.8 m/s², v = ?, h = ?
(i) v = u + gt = 0 m/s + 9.8 m/s² × 3 s
= 29.4 m/s
The velocity of the stone at the instant it touches the surface of water = 29.4 m/s

(ii) s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)gt²
= 0 m/s × 3 s + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (9.8 m/s²) (3 s)²
= 4.9 × 9 m = 44.1 m
∴ The height of the bridge from the surface of water = 44.1 m.

Question 14.
A stone is dropped from rest from the top of a building 44.1 m high. It takes 3 s to reach the ground. Use this information to 1 calculate g.
Solution:
Data: u = 0 m/s, h = 44.1 m
∴ s = 44.1 m, t = 3 s, g =?

It is the acceleration due to gravity.
g = 9.8 m/s².

Question 15.
A metal ball of mass 5 kg falls from a height of 490 m. How much time will it take to reach the ground? (g = 9.8 m/s²) (March 2019)
Solution:
Data: s = 490 m, a = g = 9.8 m/s²,
u = 0 m/s, s = ut + \(\frac{1}{2}\)at²
∴ 490 = 0 × t + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9.8 × t² = 4.9t²
∴ t² = \(\frac{490}{4.9}\)
∴ t = 10 s This is the required time.

Question 16.
If the weight of a body on the surface of the moon is 100 N, what is its mass?  (g = 1.63 m/s²)
Solution:
Data: W= 100 N, g = 1.63 m/s², m = ?
∴ W = mg

∴ The mass of the body = 61.35 kg.

Question 17.
A 100 kg bag of wheat is placed on a plank of wood. What is the weight of the bag and what is the reaction force exerted by the plank?
Solution:
Data: m = 100 kg, g = 9.8 m/s²,
W = ?, reaction force = ?
Magnitude of the weight,
W = mg = 100 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 980 N
The weight of the bag = 980 N acting downward.
The reaction force exerted by the plank on the bag = 980 N acting upward.

Question 18.
Find the gravitational potential energy of a body of mass 10 kg when it is on the earth’s surface. [M(earth) = 6 × 1024 kg, it(earth) = 6.4 × 10⁶m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N. m²/kg²]
Solution:
Data: m = 10 kg, M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg,
R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²
The gravitational potential energy of the body

Question 19.
If the body in Ex. (26) performs uniform circular motion around the earth at a height of 3600 km from the earth’s surface, what will be its gravitational potential energy?
Solution:
Here, h = 3600 km = 3.6 × 10⁶ m
∴ The gravitational potential energy of the body

Question 20.
A body of mass 20 kg is at rest on the earth’s surface, (i) Find its gravitational potential energy, (ii) Find the kinetic energy to be provided to the body to make it free from the gravitational influence of the earth. (g = 9.8 m/s², R = 6400 km)
Solution:
Data : m = 20 kg, g = 9.8 m/s²,
R = 6400 km = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
(i) The gravitational potential energy of the body =

= – 20 kg × 9.8 m/s² × 6.4 × 10⁶ m
= – 1.2544 × 10⁹ J.

(ii) To make the body free from the gravitational influence of the earth, it should be provided kinetic energy equal to 1.2544 × 10⁹ J.

Question 21.
If the body in Ex. (28) is moving at 100 m/s on-the earth’s surface, what will be its (i) kinetic energy (ii) total energy?
Solution:
Data : m = 20 kg, u = 100 m/s .
(i) The kinetic energy of the body
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 20 kg × (100 m/s)² = 10⁵ J.

(ii) The total energy of the body = kinetic energy + potential energy = 10⁵ J + (- 1.2544 × 10⁹ J)
= (1 – 12544) × 10⁵ J = – 12543 × 10⁵ J
= – 1.2543 × 10⁹ J.

Question 22.
A satellite of mass 100 kg performs uniform circular motion around the earth at a height of 6400 km from the earth’s surface. Find its gravitational potential energy.  [g = 9.8 m/s², R = 6400 km]
Solution:
Data: m = 100 kg, g = 9.8 m/s²,
R = 6400 km = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, h = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
The gravitational potential energy of the satellite

Question 23.
Find the escape velocity of a body from the earth. [M(earth) = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R (earth) = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/ kg²]
Solution:
Data: M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m,
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²
The escape velocity of a body from the earth,

Question 24.
Find the escape velocity of a body from the earth. [R (earth) = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, ρ(earth) = 5.52 × 10³ kg/m³, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²]
Solution:
Data: R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, ρ = 5.52 × 10³ kg/ m³, G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N.m²/kg²
The escape velocity of a body from the earth

Question 25.
Calculate the escape velocity of a body from the moon. [g(moon) = 1.67 m/s², R(moon) = 1.74 × 10⁶ m]
Solution:
Data: g = 1.67 m/s², R = 1.74 × 10⁶ m
The escape velocity of a body from the moon,

Question 26.
The mass of (an imaginary) planet is four times that of the earth and its radius is double the rathus of the earth. The escape velocity of a body from the earth is 11.2 × 10³ mn/s. Find the escape velocity or a body from the planet.
Solution:
Data: M₂ = 4M₁, R₂ = 2R₁,

This is the escape velocity or a body from the planet.

Numerical Problems For Practice

[G = 6.67 × 1O^-11 N.m²/kg², mass or the earth =6 × 10²⁴ kg, radius or the earthe 6.4 × 10⁶ m]

Question 1.
A satellite of mass 1000 kg revolves around the earth in a circular path. If the distance between the satellite and the centre of the earth is 40000 km, find the gravitational force exerted on the satellite by the earth.
Answer:
250.1 N

Question 2.
The masses of two spheres are 10 kg and 20 kg respectively. If the distance between their centers is 100 m, find the magnitude of the gravitational force between them.
Answer:
1.334 × 10^-12 N)

Question 3.
A satellite revolves around the earth along a circular path. If the mass of the satellite is 1000 kg and its distance from the center of the earth is 20000 km, find the magnitude of the earth’s gravitational force acting on the satellite.
Answer:
1000.5

Question 4.
Find the acceleration due to gravity at a distance of 20000 km from the center of the earth.
Answer:
1.0 m/s²

Question 5.
What is the weight of a body of mass 100 kg at the south pole? (g = 9.832 m/s²)
Answer:
983.2 N (downward)

Question 6.
What is the weight of a body of mass 20 kg at the equator? (g = 9.78 m/s²)
Answer:
195.6 N (downward)

Question 7.
A body is released from the top of a tower of height 50 m. Find the velocity with which the body hits the ground, (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Answer:
31.3 m/s (downward)

Question 8.
A body is thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 9.8 m/s. Calculate the maximum height attained by the body. (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Answer:
4.9 m

Question 9.
A particle of mass 10^-6 kg performs uniform circular motion. Its period is 10 s and the radius of the circle is 2 m. Find (i) the speed of the particle (ii) the centripetal acceleration of the particle (iii) the centripetal force on the particle.
Answer:
(i) 1.257 m/s
(ii) 0.79 m/s²
(iii) 7.9 × 10^-7 N

Question 10.
Find the gravitational potential energy of a body of mass 200 kg on the earth’s surface. [M(earth) = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R(earth) = 6400 km]
Answer:
-1.251 × 10¹⁰J

Question 11.
Find the gravitational potential energy of a body of mass 10 kg when it is at a height of 6400 km from the earth’s surface.  [Given: a mass of the earth and radius of the earth. See Ex. 10 above.]
Answer:
-3.127 × 10⁸ J

Question 12.
Find the escape velocity of a body from the moon.
[M(moon) = 7.36 × 10²² kg, R(moon) = 1.74 × 10⁶ m]
Answer:
2.375 km/s

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Solutions My English Coursebook Chapter 2.2 Helen Keller and Anne Sullivan Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 My English Coursebook Solutions Chapter 2.2 Helen Keller and Anne Sullivan

My English Coursebook Std 9 Digest Chapter 2.2 Helen Keller and Anne Sullivan Textbook Questions and Answers

Warming up!

Chit-chat:

• What is your favourite school subject?
• Which subject do you find the most difficult?
• What do you do to try to understand it better?
• Can I help you to ……….. ?
• Can you help me to ………………. ?

1. Discuss the challenges that people have to face due to disabilities.
What provisions should be made in public places so that everyone gets the same access to public facilities?
Observe your surroundings and write whether such facilities are available. How can you help to improve the situation?

Question 1.
Discuss the challenges that people have to face due to disabilities :
Answer:

• Unfriendly public places –
• abused – exploited – excluded
• inferiority complex

Question 2.
What provisions should be made in public places so that everyone gets the same access to public facilities?
Answer:

1. Suitably altering buses, airplanes, train compartments to make them accessible to persons with disabilities.
2. Making necessary curbs, cuts and slopes in pavement for wheelchair users.
3. Providing ramps at all public places.
4. Engraving edges of railway platforms for the benefits of the visually impaired.

Question 3.
Observe your surroundings and write whether such facilities are available. How can you help to improve the situation?
Answer:

English Workshop:

1. Say whether the following sentences are true or false:

Question 1.
Say whether the following sentences are true or false:
(a) The most important day in Helen Keller’s life was when her teacher came to her.
(b) When young Helen stretched out her hand, her mother took it.
(c) Young Helen learnt to spell many words without understanding them.
(d) One day, young Helen understood that everything has a name.
(e) Young Helen did not try to put the pieces of the doll together.
(f) Young Helen felt sorry that she had broken the doll.
Answer:
(a) The most important day in Helen Keller’s life was when her teacher came to her. – True
(b) When young Helen stretched out her hand, her mother took it. – False
(c) Young Helen learnt to spell many words without understanding them. – True
(d) One day young Helen understood that everything has a name. – True
(e) Young Helen did not try to put the pieces of doll together. – True
(f) Young Helen felt sorry that she had broken the doll. – False

2. Listen carefully and classify the following into ‘one’ and ‘many’.
day, contrasts, teacher, lives, months, years, afternoon, porch, signs, face, fingers, leaves, blossoms, anger, bitterness, weeks, struggle, ship, darkness

Question 1.
Listen carefully and classify the following into ‘one’ and ‘many’.
day, contrasts, teacher, lives, months, years, afternoon, porch, signs, face, fingers, leaves, blossoms, anger, bitterness, weeks, struggle, ship, darkness

Answer:

one	many
day, teacher, afternoon, porch, face, anger, bitterness, struggle, ship, darkness	contrast, lives, months, years, signs, fingers, leaves, blossoms, weeks.

3. This narrative is written in the first person – using ‘I’. Rewrite the following sentences using ‘Helen Keller/Young Helen’ appropriately in place of ‘I’ and making other neccessary changes in the sentences

Question a.
I did not know what the future held of marvel or surprise for me.
Answer:
Young Helen did not know what the future held of marvel or surprise for her.

Question b.
The morning after my teacher came she led me into her room and gave me a doll.
Answer:
The morning after Helen Keller’s teacher came, she led her into her room and gave her a doll.

Question c.
On entering the door I remembered the doll I had broken.
Answer:
On entering the door, young Helen remembered the doll she had broken.

Question d.
Then my eyes filled with tears for I realised l what I had done, and for the first time I felt repentance and sorrow.
Answer:
Then young Helen’s eyes filled with tears: for she realised what she had done, and for the first time she felt repentance and sorrow.

4. Read the following sentences and frame at least two relevant questions on each.
(a) I was like that ship before my education began.
Questions with ‘who’, ‘what’, ‘when’.
Example: Who was like that ship before her education began?)
(b) One day I was playing with the new doll.
(c) I learnt a great many new words that day.
(d) She brought my hat.
(e) We walked down the path to the well-house.
(f) That living word awakened my soul.

Question b.
One day I was playing with the new doll.
Answer:
(i) When was I playing with the new doll?
(ii) What was I doing one day?

Question c.
I learnt a great many words that day.
Answer:
(i) What did I learn that day?
(ii) Who learnt many words that day?

Question d.
She brought my hat.
Answer:
(i) What did she bring?
(ii) Who brought my hat?

Question e.
We walked down the path to the well-house.
Answer:
(i) Where did we walk down?
(ii) Who walked down the path to the well- house?

Question f.
That living word awakened my soul.
Answer:
(i) What awakened my soul?
(ii) What did that living word awaken?

5. Write about your own experience. Do you remember an occasion when you did something successfully for the first time? Write about it in short (10-12 lines). Prepare an outline of your composition before you write it.

Question 1.
Write about your own experience. Do you remember an occasion when you did something successfully for the first time? Write about it in short (10-12 lines). Prepare an outline of your composition before you write it.
Answer:
The occasion when I was successful
When our teacher gave us an assignment to write a poem on nature, it was quite a difficult job for me. I tried my level best to arrange some words but I could not do it successfully. Then I took the help of my brother. He guided me how to do it. As per his guidance I collected some words related to nature. Then I tried to weave the words in lines. I tried to match the rhymes also.

Somewhere it was quite easy, whereas somewhere it was a difficult job for me. At last, after a lot of efforts and trials, I was successful to write a poem based on ‘Nature’. It gave me immense pleasure and joy. When I read it in the class, I got good praise and applause from the teacher as well as from my classmates. It was really a memorable occasion for me.

6. Gather more information about the following:

Question a.
Different types of impairment that limit a person’s activity or make it difficult for him/her to mix with others in society.
Answer:
Different types of impairment that limit a person’s activity.

• Visual impairment
• Hearing impairment
• impairment of speech production
• impairment of language comprehension
• Intellectual impairment
• Reading impairment

Question b.
How modern technology can be used to overcome these problems.
Answer:
Modern technology has been playing an important role in our day-to-day life. But it is more useful for the disabled people than the common man in the society. It facilitates as per the requirement of the person. It will be a boon for them. Devices like Captioned Television, Live Speech Captioning, Telecommunication Devices for the Deaf are useful for Hearing impairments. In the same way, other devices based on modern technology are also available for other impairments.

7. Complete the following sentences using your own ideas:
(a) The most important day I remember in all my life is the one on which ………… .
(b) I did not know what ………… .
(c) One day. while I was playing ………… .
(d) I realised what ………… .
(e) I do not remember what ………… .

Question a.
The most important day I remember in all my life is the one on which ………… .
Answer:
The most important day I remember in all my life is the one on which I was saved in a horrible accident when I was learning to ride bike. I lost my control and dashed the car in front of me. I fell down with bike on my legs. The people around came and lifted the bike and I was rescused.

Question b.
I did not know what ………… .
Answer:
I did not know what to do at that situation.

Question c.
One day. while I was playing, ………… .
Answer:
One day, while I was playing, I got fracture in my leg.

Question d.
I realised what ………… .
Answer:
I realised what I was doing was wrong.

Question e.
I do not remember what ………… .
Answer:
I do not remember what exactly I did at that moment.

Language study:

7. Find three examples of the following from the passage.
(a) articles
(b) compound words
(c) present participles
(d) past participles

Question 1.
Find three examples of the following from the passage.
(a) articles
(b) compound words
(c) present participles
(d) past participles.

My English Coursebook 9th Class Solutions Chapter 2.2 Helen Keller and Anne Sullivan Additional Important Questions and Answers

Read the following passage and do the activities:

Simple Factual Activity:

Question 1.
Say whether the following statements are True or False:
(Answers are given directly.)
Answer:

1. Anne Mansfield Sullivan was Helen Keller’s mother. – False
2. The author compares herself to the great ship that groped her way towards the shore. – False
3. The writer was standing on the porch dumb and expectant on that eventful day. – True
4. Helen’s eyes filled with tears when she realised what she had done. – True

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks and complete the following sentences: (Answers are directly given.)

1. The writer was interested in finger play so she tried to imitate.
2. When young Helen succeeded in making the letters correctly, she was flushed with childish pleasure and pride.
3. Earlier in the day Helen and Miss Sullivan had a tussle over the words mug and water.
4. When Miss Sullivan brought Helen’s hat, she realised that she was going out into the warm sunshine.

Question 3.
Complete the following sentences:
(Answers are directly given.)
1. The writer and her teacher were attracted by the fragrance of the honeysuckle with which the well house was covered.
2. As the cool stream gushed over Helen’s hand, she realised that water meant the wonderful cool something that was flowing over her hand.

Complex Factual Activities:

Question 1.
The author refers to two contrasting emotions, what are they?
Answer:

1. The first is when her teacher Anne Sullivan came in her life and she was filled with wonder.
2. On the afternoon of that eventful day she guessed vaguely from her mother’s signs and guessed something unusual was about to happen.

Question 2.
Match the following:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. The afternoon sun penetrated the mass of honeysuckle …	(a) when she considered the immeasurable contrasts between the two lives.
2. The writer was filled with wonder …	(b) how near the harbour she was.
3. The familiar leaves and blossoms came forth …	(c) and fell on the writer’s upturned face.
4. The writer was like compass or sounding-line and no way of knowing…	(d) to greet the sweet southern spring.

Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’
1. The afternoon sun penetrated the mass of honeysuckle …	(c) and fell on the writer’s upturned face.
2. The writer was filled with wonder …	(a) when she considered the immeasurable contrasts between the two lives.
3. The familiar leaves and blossoms came forth …	(d) to greet the sweet southern spring.
4. The writer was like compass or sounding-line and no way of knowing…	(b) how near the harbour she was.

Question 3.
What did young Helen’s teacher do when they first met?
Answer:
When Helen met her teacher for the first time, she caught Helen’s hand and held her close in her arms.

Question 4.
What were Helen’s reactions when she succeeded in making letters correctly?
Answer:
When Helen succeeded in making the letters correctly, she was flushed with childish pleasure and pride. She ran downstairs and held up her mother’s hand and made the letters for doll. She was simply making her fingers go in monkey-like imitation.

Question 5.
Arrange the following sentences in chronological order:
1. Helen learnt many words without understanding them.
2. Helen learnt the word ‘doll’ by imitation from her teacher for the very first time.
3. She realized that everything has a name.
4. When she was successful in making the letters of ‘doll’, she showed it to her mother.
Answer:
2. Helen learnt the word ‘doll’ by imitation from her teacher for the very first time.
4. When she was successful in making the letters of ‘doll’, she showed it to her mother.
1. Helen learnt many words without understanding them.
3. She realized that everything has a name.

Question 6.
What were the barriers? How could they be swept away?
Answer:
When the writer realised that every object had a name, each name gave birth to a new thought. Every object that she touched seemed to quiver with life as everything was strange and new to her. As every living word could give her new experience but some of them couldn’t. By trying to touch every living object she could name it. But she could not do it with objects that were invisible. ’

Question 7.
Why did young Helen feel repentance and sorrow?
Answer:
When young Helen broke her new doll into pieces, she had no idea that every part of it had a name. But when she realized that every object that existed has a name, she saw everything with a strange, new sight. When she remembered her broken doll she felt repentance and sorrow for what she had done.

Activities based on vocabulary:

Question 1.
Guess the meaning of:
Answer:

1. immeasurable contrasts – a vast difference
2. eventful day – the day full of events/activities
3. upturned – directed upward
4. unconsciously – without realizing
5. white darkness – It is symbolic to her condition (she was quite close to her destiny without being able to know it.)

Question 2.
Find out antonyms for the following from the extract. (Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. shrinked × stretched
2. died/ceased × existed
3. pain × pleasure
4. dully × keenly.

Question 3.
Pick out 4 infinitives from the extract:
Answer:

1. to reveal
2. to imitate
3. to impress
4. to love.

Question 4.
Classify the following words in the given columns:
fragrance, attract, stream, learn, hearth, enter, sorrow, realise
Answer:

Nouns	Verbs
fragrance, stream, hearth, sorrow	attract, learn, enter, realise

Question 5.
Find out four compound words from the lesson:
Answer:

1. honeysuckle
2. sounding-line
3. everything
4. well-house.

Activities based on contextual grammar:

Question 1.
Add a tail tag to the following sentences:
(Answers are directly given.)

1. She did not know what the future held of marvel or surprise for her, did she?
2. Helen was like that ship before her education began, wasn’t she?
3. Helen had no way of knowing how near the harbour was, had she?
4. The afternoon sun penetrated the mass of honeysuckle, didn’t it?

Rewrite the sentences by using ‘As soon as’:

Question 1.
On entering the door, I remembered the doll I had broken.
Answer:
As soon as I entered the door, I remembered the doll I had broken.

Personal Response:

Question 1.
What is the difference between wordless sensation and thought?
Answer:
Sensation is a physical feeling or perception resulting from something that happens to or comes into contact with the body. It is the ability to feel something physically and express without using words.

Thought is an idea or opinion produced by thinking or occurring suddenly in the mind. Sensation is different from thought. Thoughts are generated centrally in the brain and sensations occur at different places.

Question 2.
How can modern technology be used to overcome impairments?
Answer:
Technology has created a revolution in the life of disabled learners.
a. Disabled students have an adequate educational opportunities but application of computer based technology has created a sea of changes in available options for disabled students.

b. Computer programs have been designed to make it easier for disabled students to access material, communicate their ideas and work and participate in educational experiences.

Question 3.
Why should we help disabled people?
Answer:
We should help disabled people because though no fault of their own, they are in a situation where they require more assistance. If we help them wherever they want our help, they can boost their confidence to get success in their life. We are human and we are supposed to have empathy. So it is our duty to assist them wherever they want.

Activities Based on Language study

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the words by using correct letters:

1. w _ i c h
2. h o u _ e
3. g _ e e t
4. a _ g e r

Answer:

1. w h i c h
2. h o u s e
3. g r e e t
4. a n g e r.

Question 2.
Copy the following sentences in your notebook:
Answer:
1. “Light! give me light!” was the wordless cry of my soul.
2. Those words that were to make the world blossom for me ‘like Aaron’s rod, with flower.’

Question 3.
Put the following words in alphabetical order :
1. porch, dumb, expectant, blossom.
2. interested, imitate, impress, impatient.
Answer:
1. blossom, dumb, expectant, porch.
2. imitate, impatient, impress, interested.

Question 4.
Punctuate the following sentences :
1. why dont you try to understand my situation ruta said her father
2. the tourist exclaimed what a beautiful place kashmir is
Answer:
1. “Why don’t you try to understand my situation Ruta?” said her father.
2. The tourist exclaimed, “What a beautiful place Kashmir is!”

Question 5.
Write four small words (minimum 3 letters each) using the letters in the given f word:
“immeasurable”
Answer:

1. sure
2. measure
3. ease
4. able.

Question 6.
Spot the error and rewrite the correct sentences:
1. My father have been working in a bank from last 20 years.
2. Yesterday I will see him while going to office.
Answer:
1. My father has been working in a bank from last 20 years.
2. Yesterday I saw him while going to office.

Question 7.
Write related words as shown in the example
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

Question 8.
Complete the following word-chain of adjectives. Add four words, each beginning with the last letter of the previous word:
white → …………… → ……………… → ………………. → …………….. .
Answer:
white → enormous → sacred → decent → tired.

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Make your own meaningful sentence by using the phrase ‘to be able to’.
Answer:
I was not able to complete my paper in given time.

Question 2.
Add a prefix or suffix to make new words and use any one of the root words in your own sentence:
Answer:
1. unusual
2. conscious
Sentence: He was late as usual.

Oral Work:

Question 1.
What is the difference between finger play, spelling a word mechanically and writing a meaningful word?

Question 2.
Read aloud the paragraph ‘We walked down… be swept away’ using proper intonation.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Health and Diseases Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Health and Diseases

Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Health and Diseases Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Distinguish between- Infectious and non – infectious diseases.

Infectious diseases	Non-infectious diseases
1. The diseases which can be transmitted from one patient to other person are called infectious diseases.	1. The diseases which cannot be transmitted from one patient to other person, are called non-infectious diseases.
2. Contaminated air, water, food or carrier! vector animals or insects spread the infectious diseases.	2. Non-infectious diseases are not transmitted through any medium.
3. infectious diseases are acute diseases as they are suddenly caused due to infections from either bacteria, virus or protozoan. Thus, their symptoms are seen sooner.	3. Some non-infectious diseases are due to hereditary causes, some are a clue to failure in metabolism, some due to deficiency of the nutrients. Their symptoms are not seen suddenly but are developed gradually.
4. Antibiotics or antihelminth medicines are used to treat the infectious diseases. E.g. Tuberculosis, hepatitis, leprosy, cough and cold, etc.	4. Antibiotics cannot be used for treating non-infectious diseases. These diseases have a proper treatment. E.g. Diabetes, cancer, heart diseases, etc.Tuberculosis, hepatitis, leprosy, cough and cold, etc.

2. Identify the odd term. 

Question a.
Malaria, hepatitis, elephantiasis, dengue.
Answer:
Hepatitis (All other diseases are caused by the carrier mosquito.)

Question b.
Plague, AIDS, Cholera, T.B.
Answer:
AIDS [All others are bacterial (caused by bacteria) diseases.]

3. Answer in one to two sentences.

Question a.
Which are various media of spreading the infectious diseases?
Answer:
Infectious diseases spread through contaminated air, water, food, vectors such as insects, animals and man.

Question b.
Give the names of five non-infectious diseases other than given in the lesson.
Answer:
Asthma, cataract, diseases of kidney such as kidney stones and renal failure, arthritis, Alzheimer which is a condition during old age, hypertension, migraine, etc.

Question c.
Which are the main reasons of diabetes and heart diseases?
Answer:
Improper lifestyle, wrong type of diet, lack of exercise, excessive mental stress and strain, imbalance in secretion of hormones, etc. are the main reasons for diabetes and heart diseases.

4. What can be achieved/can be prevented?

Question a.
Drinking boiled and filtered water.
Answer:

1. When water is boiled, all the disease causing pathogens present in it are killed.
2. Different diseases like cholera, enteritis, diarrhoea, dysentery, hepatitis, typhoid are caused by such water-borne pathogens.
3. If we boil the water we are protected against all such diseases.
4. If the i water is filtered we can avoid infections from nematode Dracunculus which causes Naru. By boiling and filtering water, even the epidemics by such infectious diseases can be controlled.

Question b.
Avoiding smoking and alcoholism.
Answer:
1. Smoking and alcoholism are two dangerous habits that cause addictions. Alcoholism causes disorders of liver.
2. The addict suffers from malnourishment.

3. His I mental and psychological conditions become abnormal. There is social and familial) impacts too due to alcoholistn.

4. Smoking is an invitation for cancer. In cigarettes/ bidis, there is hazardous nicotine. Nicotine is not only toxic but is also carcinogenic. Cancers of oral cavity, tongue, respiratory tract, lungs is very common among smokers. Therefore, addictions like smoking and alcoholism should always be avoided.

Question c.
Regular balanced diet and exercise.
Answer:
1. Regular and balanced diet results into perfect health. The disease fighting power or immunity of a person is increased due to healthy diet.
2. One can avoid of frequent infections and also mental well¬being is established.
3. Heart disease, diabetes, obesity, etc. can be avoided by not consuming high caloric junk food.
4. Exercise improves blood circulation. Many disorders which are caused by faulty lifestyle can be prevented by having regular balanced diet and exercise, thus one must always follow these for well-being.

Question d.
Proper checking of blood before blood donation.
Answer:
1. There are definite blood groups.
2. During blood transfusion, the donor’s and recipient’s blood should be well-matched with each other. Otherwise, blood gets clumped inside the body of recipient.
3. Through infected blood, the viruses such as those causing hepatitis B or AIDS are transmitted to other healthy persons. Thus, for prevention of transmission of such diseases, blood should be checked before blood donation.

5. Read the passage and answer the questions.

Master X’ is a 3-year-old child. He is living with his family in a slum. The public toilet is present near his house. His father is drunkard. His mother does not know the importance of balanced diet.

Question a.
Master ‘X’ can suffer from which different possible diseases in above conditions?
Answer:
Master ‘X’ stays in an area which is devoid of cleanliness. The public toilet is near his house. This indicates that he will have to fight against many infectious diseases. Because his father is a drunkard, there will always be a dearth of money in r the house. He may not be able to afford, enough and balanced food. Thus his diet must be deficient in vitamins and minerals.

Moreover, his mother is ignorant about the importance of health and a balanced diet. This must be causing Master ‘X’ malnourishment and loss of immunity. The financial conditions and the addition of the father must be causing stress in the house.

This will further add stress on Master ‘X’ resulting into susceptibility to infections. As it is due to the location the germs are around and thus they may be attacking Master ‘X’. He will on and off suffer from digestive disorders! such as typhoid, hepatitis, cholera, enteritis, etc.

Question b.
How will you help him and his family in this situation?
Answer:
Initially, we shall help Master ‘X’ to procure healthy and balanced diet having fruits, vegetables, milk, etc. His mother will be taught importance of the balanced diet. The surroundings should be clean and hygienic. Food should be covered, houseflies should not be allowed to contaminate the food. Germicidal floor cleaners and disinfectants should be used to keep off the houseflies and cockroaches. His father will be taken to de-addiction centres such as ‘Alcoholics Anonymous’. He will be persuaded to leave alcoholism.

Question c.
Which disease can occur to the i father of master ‘X’?
Answer:
Father of Master ‘X’ can develop diseases of liver and kidney.

6. Give the preventive measures of following diseases:

Question a.
Dengue:
Answer:
Dengue is transmitted through bite of mosquito of Aedes aegypti. DEN-1, 2 virus belonging to the type – flavivirus is the causative pathogen for Dengue. Wherever there is stagnant or accumulated water, there is possibility of mosquito breeding. Therefore, care is to be taken to drain of such water. Thus this is a very important preventive measure. Especially, in the man¬made containers and in clean water, the Aedes mosquito prefers to breed.

Therefore, such water storages should be either covered or should be decanted. Another way to keep off from dengue is to increase our immunity to fight against the virus. There is vaccine called CYD-TDV or Dengvaxia which is synthesised in 2017. But it is still not considered to be completely safe.

Question b.
Cancer:
Answer:
The most important preventive measure is to remain away from the carcinogenic substances. Tobacco, gutkha, cigarette, bidi, etc. are addictive things which are very bad for our health. The nicotine present in these cause cancers of oral cavity and of respiratory system. Radiations can also cause cancer.

We should not expose ourselves to hazardous radiations. Balanced and healthy diet, proper exercise and living stress free with mental balance are some of the preventive measures of the cancer. Only for few types of cancer like cervical cancer in women, vaccine has been developed.

Question c.
AIDS:
Answer:
When blood transfusion is done, the blood should be checked for the presence of HIV. The used syringes, needles, etc. should not be used without sterilization. Through blood and blood products and body fluids HIV finds its way into the body. Therefore, these precautions should be taken. Unsafe sexual contact is the most important mode of transmission of HIV. Thus one should never deal with such dangerous acts. Awareness about AIDS and HIV is the real preventive measure.

7. Explain the importance.

Question a.
Balanced diet.
Answer:
The diet that contains all the nutrients in the balanced proportion is called balanced diet. One can avoid malnutrition by taking balanced diet. The immunity increases due to balanced diet containing good proportion of vitamins and minerals. Some diseases can be avoided due to raised immunity. Wrong lifestyle and wrong diet can cause hypertension, diabetes or heart disease. To maintain our health and keep the body in equilibrium, we have to take balanced diet.

Question b.
Physical exercise/Yogasanas.
Answer:
By exercise and yoga, the blood circulation of body is improved. Body and joints remain flexible. Mental strain and stress is reduced. Insomnia (inability to fall asleep), arthritis, indigestion, and some other disorders can be avoided. The person who performs exercise, always remains away from the addictions. Yoga makes levels of hormones, enzymes, etc. in equilibrium. By keeping control over breathing through pranayama many respiratory and circulatory disorders can be prevented.

8. Make a list. 

Question a.
Viral diseases.
Answer:
AIDS, Hepatitis, Influenza, Rabies, Polio.

Question b.
Bacterial diseases.
Answer:
Typhoid, Tuberculosis, Cholera, Leprosy.

Question c.
Diseases spread through insects.
Answer:
Malaria, Dengue, Elephantiasis.

Question d.
Hereditary diseases.
Answer:
Diabetes, Haemophilia, Muscular dystrophy, Colourblindness.

9. Write the information on modern diagnostics and treatments of cancer.

Question a.
Answer:
1. Following methods are used as diagnostic methods to detect the cancer. Techniques like CT scan, MRI scan, mammography, biopsy.
Treatment of the cancer is done by the following methods:

2. For treatment of cancer, some conventional methods are used. Along with these methods, chemotherapy, radiation therapy and surgery are commonly used to treat cancerous growth and tumours. New and modern techniques of robotic and laparoscopic surgery are also used for the treatment.

10. Enlist the names and composition of the medicines present at your home.

Question 1.
Prepare posters giving information about various diseases, public awareness and arrange exhibition in school.

Question 2.
Visit the public health center/clinic nearby and collect the information about vaccination.

Question 3.
Compose a street-play to increase public awareness about dengue, malaria, swine flu and present ¡tin the area nearby your school.

Project:

Question 1.
Prepare posters giving information about various diseases, public awareness and arrange exhibition in school.

Question 2.
Visit the public health center/clinic nearby and collect the information about vaccination.

Question 3.
Compose a street-play to increase public awareness about dengue, malaria, swine flu and present it in the area nearby your school.

Class 8 Science Chapter 2 Health and Diseases Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
For eradication of tuberculosis everybody should be vaccinated by …………. vaccine.
Answer:
For eradication of tuberculosis everybody j should be vaccinated by B.C.G vaccine.

Question 2.
Hepatitis B can be transmitted by ………….
Answer:
Hepatitis B can be transmitted by blood transfusion.

Question 3.
For treating diarrhoea/dysentery…………. is given to the patient.
Answer:
For treating diarrhoea/dysentery O.R.S. is given to the patient.

Question 4.
…………. virus is responsible for the infection of swine flu.
Answer:
Influenza A (H1N1) virus is responsible for the infection of swine flu.

Question 5.
…………. mosquito spreads dengue.
Answer:
Aedes aegypti mosquito spreads dengue.

Question 6.
Malaria is caused by female mosquito of …………. genus.
Answer:
Malaria is caused by female mosquito of Anopheles genus.

Question 7.
…………. test is performed on blood to diagnose AIDS.
Answer:
ELISA test is performed on blood to diagnose AIDS.

One word in the following sentences is wrong. Change it to make the sentences correct:

Question 1.
Culex mosquito is seen in clean water.
Answer:
Culex mosquito is seen in dirty water.

Question 2.
Transmission of swine flu is done by dogs and human beings.
Answer:
Transmission of swine flu is done by pigs and human beings.

Question 3.
Hydrophobia is the main symptom of typhoid.
Answer:
Hydrophobia is the main symptom of rabies.

Question 4.
The maximum number of patients of diabetes are found in America.
Answer:
The maximum number of patients of diabetes are found in India.

Question 5.
Generic medicines are also called branded medicines.
Answer:
Generic medicines are also called general medicines.

Question 6.
If the secretion of insulin is increased, then the diabetes is caused.
Answer:
If the secretion of insulin is decreased, then the diabetes is caused.

Question 7.
Virus causing rabies enter the brain through food.
Answer:
Virus causing rabies enter the brain through neurons.

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Bacterial diseases	Bacteria
1. Typhoid	(a) Mycobacterium tuberculi
2. Cholera	(b) Bacillus
3. Diarrhoea	(c) Vibrio choleri
4. Tuberculosis	(d) Salmonella typhi

Answer:

Bacterial diseases	Bacteria
1. Typhoid	(d) Salmonella typhi
2. Cholera	(c) Vibrio choleri
3. Diarrhoea	(b) Bacillus
4. Tuberculosis	(a) Mycobacterium tuberculin

Question 2.

Importance of the day	Date
1. World Diabetes Day	(a) 7th April
2. World Heart Day	(b) 14th June
3. World Blood Donation Day	(c) 29th September
4. World Health Day	(d) 14th November

Answer:

Importance of the day	Date
1. World Diabetes Day	(d) 14th November
2. World Heart Day	(c) 29th September
3. World Blood Donation Day	(b) 14th June
4. World Health Day	(a) 7th April

Identify the odd term:

Question 1.
Chemotherapy, Radiation therapy, Surgery, Pranayama
Answer:
Pranayama (All others are treatment for cancer.)

Question 2.
Chronic cough, Hoarse voice, Uncontrolled blood sugar level, Difficulty in swallowing.
Answer:
Uncontrolled blood sugar level (All others are symptoms of cancer of throat.)

Question 3.
Mantra, Vaccination, Black magic, Hatred.
Answer:
Vaccination (This is the only way for prevention of diseases. Rest of the others are blind faiths which are unscientific.)

Consider the relation between the items in the first pair and write the correlation for second pair:

1. Swine flu : Virus : :
Tuberculosis : : …………….
Answer:
Bacteria

2. Anopheles : Malaria :
Culex : …………………
Answer:
Elephantiasis

3. Housefly : Typhoid : : Dog : ………….
Answer:
Rabies

4. Decrease in blood platelets : :
Dengue : : Difficulty in breathing : ……………
Answer:
Swine flu

5. Cancer : Laparoscopic surgery : :
Heart disease :……………
Answer:
By-Pass surgery.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Typhoid and Tuberculosis :
Answer:

Typhoid	Tuberculosis
1. Typhoid is caused by bacteria (Salmonella) that is passed by contaminated food and water and is spread through house flies.	1. Tuberculosis is caused by bacteria (Mycobacterium) which pass through the spittle of the patient.
2. The infection of typhoid is through food or water via the mouth.	2. The infection of tuberculosis is through air via the nose.
3. Typhoid affects stomach and intestine.	3. Tuberculosis affects lungs and chest.
4. There is high fever for specific period in typhoid.	4. There is continuous low grade fever in tuberculosis.
5. There is stomachache and headache in typhoid.	5. There is chest pain in tuberculosis.
6. Vaccination for typhoid is given at the time of suspected epidemic.	6. BCG vaccination is given to all at a young age only.

What can be achieved/can be prevented?/Give reasons.

Question 1.
People suffering from communicable diseases should avoid going to public places.
Answer:

1. Communicable diseases spread when people share space with a diseased person.
2. If people suffering from l communicable diseases go to a public place, they would spread the disease causing germs in the air.
3. These germs can be transmitted to other healthy persons.
4. If the resistance power of the persons is less, they will fall sick by getting infected.
5. This may break into an epidemic. Therefore, people suffering from communicable diseases should avoid going to public places.

Question 2.
Pet animals should be given anti-rabies vaccine.
Answer:

1. We keep animals like cats and dogs at home as pets.
2. They may get infected with the virus of rabies.
3. If such an infected pet bites us, we may also get rabies.
4. Rabies is a lethal disease.
5. In order to protect the animals and to prevent rabies being transmitted, they should be given anti-rabies vaccine.

Question 3.
Tuberculosis is considered as the most communicable disease.
Answer:

1. Tuberculosis is caused due to bacterial infection.
2. It is an air-borne infection and spreads through the spittle of T.B. patient.
3. When personal and public hygiene is not followed, this disease spreads very rapidly.
4. It is estimated that every two minutes, one patient dies of T.B. in India. Tuberculosis, therefore, is considered as the most communicable disease.

Question 4.
ORS gives temporary relief to the patient of diarrhoea.
Answer:

1. In diarrhoea, due to loose motions the patient becomes dehydrated.
2. The eyes get sunken and the mouth becomes dry.
3. If immediate help is not given, the condition can become critical. The absorption function of the intestine is disturbed.
4. But by giving ORS, enough water, sugar and salt enter the body saving the life of the patient.
5. The sugar and salt in the ORS gets absorbed in the intestine and reduce the dehydration.
6. However, for eradication of infection, proper medical treatment is to be given, therefore, ORS gives only a temporary relief to the patient of diarrhoea.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which virus causes dengue and how does it spread?
Answer:
Dengue is caused by DEN-1, 2 virus belonging to the type – flavivirus. Aedes aegypti type of mosquito spreads the disease by transferring this virus through its bite.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for spread of swine flu?
Answer:
Swine flu is caused by the virus influenza A (H1N1). Its carrier is pig. The contact with such pigs or infected persons can cause infection of swine flu. The infection spreads through sweat and through secretions of nose, throat and saliva of the diseased person.

Question 3.
What are the symptoms of swine flu?
Answer:
Symptoms of swine flu : Palpitations, difficulty in breathing, sore throat, body pain along with high fever.

Question 4.
In whom was HIV first reported?
Answer:
HIV was first reported in an African species of monkeys

Question 5.
What is a malignant tumour?
Answer:
Due to uncontrolled cell division
there is a formation of lump of cancerous cells. If this lump is without the covering, then it is called malignant tumour.

Question 6.
How is efficiency of the heart reduced?
Answer:
When the blood circulation for the heart muscles is obstructed, it does not receive enough oxygen and nutrients. Due to this condition heart has to exert more and gets stressed resulting into loss of efficiency.

Question 7.
What are the different types of treatment for heart diseases?
Answer:
Angioplasty, By-Pass surgery, open heart surgery, installation of stents, installation of pacemaker, heart transplant are some of the treatment for heart diseases.

Question 8.
What is Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana? When was it started?
Answer:
Government of India started the Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana on 1st July 2015. Under this scheme people who are not able to afford best quality medicines are given generic medicines of the same quality at much reduced price.

Question 9.
When can eye donation be done? What is the advantage of eye donation?
Answer:
Anybody can donate eyes posthumously. Due to eye donation, some blind person can regain the sight.

Explain the importance:

Question 1.
Generic medicines.
Answer:
Generic medicines are also called general medicines. They are affordable for the common citizens of India. These medicines are manufactured and distributed without any patent. They are similar in quality and composition as the branded i medicines. The proportion of compounds in these medicines and its formula of preparation is readily available. Thus the money spent on the research is reduced. Therefore, generic medicines are much cheaper than the expensive branded medicines.

Question 2.
Blood donation.
Answer:
Blood donation is said to be the greatest donation that one can give. Blood donation can save someone’s life. By one unit blood of a single donor, three different patients can be saved. From such blood red blood cells, white blood cells and blood i platelets can be separated and given to different patients who are in need with corresponding component. Blood cannot be manufactured artificially and hence blood donation is the only way to collect blood. One healthy person can donate blood four r times in a year, thus saving 12 patients.

Question 3.
First Aid for Heart Disease.
Answer:
A person who is suffering from cardiac problems can get a heart attack suddenly. In such case, the patient should be given immediate and appropriate treatment to save his or her life. First and foremost one should call 108 for cardiac ambulance. Then the patient’s pulse or heartbeats should be checked to know his/her condition. Check the consciousness of the patient. Then make the patient to lie on a hard surface in horizontal position.

Perform C.O.L.S. or, ‘Compression Only Life Support’ on the patient. During this procedure, a pressure is given in the centre of the thorax of a patient for at least 30 times at the rate of 100 to 120 r strokes per minute. This is a first aid for the r heart attack. Before the arrival of doctor or proper medical aid, the life of a patient is saved.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Write a brief account about tuberculosis.
Answer:
Mycobacterium tuberculae is the bacteria which causes tuberculosis (TB) infection. This infectious and communicable disease passes through spittle of the patient. The sneezing and coughing of patient cause f droplet infections. With prolonged contact with the patient and using the objects of the patient there is greater chance of acquiring TB infection. Different body organs such as bones, uterus and lungs can be affected by tuberculosis.

The pulmonary TB i.e. TB of the lungs is more common. The symptoms of TB are prolonged cough, blood through spittle, decrease in the body weight and difficulty in breathing. B.C.G. vaccine can be given in young age for prevention of TB. The patient needs to be isolated if TB is detected. Regular antibiotics have to be taken. DOTS process of medication needs to be followed.

Question 2.
Write the symptoms of dengue.
Answer:
Symptoms of dengue are as follows:

1. High and severe fever.
2. Severe headache accompanied with vomiting.
3. Pain in the eye sockets as if someone is pushing the eyes out.
4. Rapid reduction in the number of blood platelets.
5. Internal haemorrhages in the body.

Question 3.
How is rabies caused? What are the important symptoms of the rabies?
Answer:
Rabies is a viral disease. The bite of a rabid animal (the animal who is already infected with rabies virus) transfers the virus in the human blood through the bite wound. Dog, rabbit, monkey and cat can be infected with rabies if they are not vaccinated. The virus of rabies enters the brain through neurons. If not treated in time, rabies can be fatal.

Symptoms of rabies: There is a fever which lasts for 2 to 12 weeks. The victim becomes hyper-excited. He /She shows exaggerations in behaviour. Hydrophobia is very unique symptom in which person is scared and phobic of water. The symptoms can be seen within 90 to 175 days after the animal-bite.
When the dog or any animal bites, before the symptoms are seen, the victim should immediately take anti-rabies vaccine. This vaccination can save a person.

Question 4.
What are the causes of cancer?
Answer:
The carcinogenic substances can cause cancer. Thus such substances should never be used. Tobacco, gutkha and other nicotine containing products can cause cancer. Smoking and alcoholism can also induce cancer development. Cancer is also hereditary disease which is said to be caused by oncogenes. The lack of high fibre food in the diet and junk food in great quantities can induce the cancer development in some part of the alimentary canal.

Question 5.
Write the symptoms of cancer.
Answer:

1. If part of the respiratory system is under the attack of cancer, it can cause, long term cough, hoarse voice, difficulty in swallowing or difficulty in breathing.
2. The wounds do not become cured and the scar too is incurable. Inflammations does not subside.
3. There is formation of tumour like lump in the breast of the females.
4. In all the types of cancer there is unexplained weight loss.

Question 6.
What are the preventive measures to avoid the cancer?
Answer:
Complete control over diet should be followed. It should be’ healthy and nutritive. Such diet protects one from the cancer. The modern treatment processes should be immediately carried out, if the cancer is detected. With time-lapse, the growth of the cancer keeps on increasing. Physical exercises should be regularly done. Tobacco consumption, smoking are some addictions that can induce cancer. These should never be tried.

Question 7.
What are the causes and symptoms of diabetes?
Answer:
Causes of diabetes: The pancreas in normal persons secrete hormone insulin which maintains the sugar level in the blood. When there is deficiency of insulin, the symptoms of diabetes develop due to uncontrolled blood sugar level. Hereditary causes also can develop diabetes.

Obesity, lack of physical exercise, mental stress can also lead to diabetes. Overconsumption of fried food and over-indulgence in eating sweetmeats increase the chances of diabetes.

Symptoms of diabetes: The person who develops diabetes has frequent urination and continuous thirst. The body weight also reduces rapidly. Sometimes it may rise suddenly. There is continuous feeling of fatigue.

Question 8.
What are the causes of heart diseases?
Answer:
Addictions such as smoking, alcoholism and junk food lead to heart disease. Diabetes, hypertension, obesity are responsible for developing heart disease. Lack of physical exercise, no physical work, continuous sedentary mode are some causes which reduce the efficiency of the working of heart. Mental strain and stress, anger, frustration, anxiety are some psychological reasons that can lead to heart problems

Question 9.
What happens when medicines are missed?
Answer:
When medicines are taken without the consultation of doctor, there are certain problems. When the medicines and drugs are taken without any cause or symptom, then it is a misuse. Overdose of pain killers produce side effects. Some of these cause damage to nervous system, excretory system and liver. Overdose of antibiotics develops nausea, stomachache, loose motions and rash, white patches on tongue, etc.

Questions based on charts/tables:

Question 1.
Complete the table: Prepare similar table of information as the table given on page 7 about various disease like enteritis, malaria, plague and leprosy.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw a flow diagram to show treatment for heart diseases.
Answer:

Activity-based questions:

Question 1.
Enlist the names and composition of the medicines present at your home.
Answer:
Students are expected to write this answer based on the medicines in their own homes.

Question 2.
Observe and discuss :

Answer:
Observe the following pictures and write description in the boxes.

Open-Ended Questions:

Question 1.
Poor people do not afford the costly medicines. Is there any alternative for this? Which one?

Answer:
Some medicines are very costly. The poor people cannot afford such expensive medicines. In such cases, some social organizations may give some help to these patients. Some trusts like Tata trust can also offer help to the needy for the treatment.

Some hospitals have social workers who help the needy for raising the funds for poor patients. Another way is to use generic medicines.

These medicines are at par in quality with the branded medicines but they are quite less in the price. They are available in the generic medicine shops. One can also take benefit of Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana.

Question 2.
What measures will you take to stop the breeding of mosquitoes?
Answer:
We have to take care that there is no water stagnated in and around the house. The garden plants and pots in the house should be checked for the mosquito larvae and eggs if any. If water is not receding and remaining accumulated, then the spraying of insecticides should be done with the help of elders. With the help of elders in the house, the complaint can be lodged in the Malaria eradication department in the nearby Municipality or Gram Panachyat office.

If the water is in ponds, we can release guppy fishes to eradicate the mosquito larvae. The fish feed on the larvae and automatically control the mosquito population.

Question 3.
Our behaviour with HIV infected person must be normal or should not be normal? What is your opinion? Write it with correct explanation.
Answer:
Our behaviour with HIV infected person must be normal. There are no chances of acquiring AIDS by having normal behaviour with the HIV positive person. HIV can pass only through body fluids and blood from HIV infected person to the other normal person. Similarly, the needles or syringes used by HIV infected person can cause the infection of HIV to the other person.

Such ways of contamination should always be avoided. The sexual contact or the blood transfusion with HIV positive person should always be avoided. But the normal behaviour such as hand-shake, eating together, studying in the same class will not matter at all in the transmission of AIDS.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Give examples of 3 plants that have:

Question a.
Spiny fruits
Answer:
Jack fruit, Pineapple, Lychee (litchi), Datura

Question b.
Spiny stem
Answer:
Cactus, Wild rose, Catclaw acacia, Silk, Cotton

Question c.
Red flowers
Answer:
Rose, Dahlia, Hibiscus, Tulips,

Question d.
Yellow flowers
Answer:
Marigold, Daffodil, Sunflower, Daisy

Question e.
Leaves which close at night
Answer:
Mimosa plant, Tallwood, Prayer plant, Gulmohar

Question f.
Single seeded fruits
Answer:
Mango, Lychee, Jamun

Question g.
Many seeded fruits
Answer:
Custard apple, Papaya, Watermelon.

2. Observe any one flower and its various parts and describe it in your own words.

Question a.
Answer:

A flower has following parts:
1. Pedicel: (a) Flower may have a long or a short stalk called pedicel, (b) One end of the pedicel is attached to the stem, (c) The other end of the pedicel is expanded and swollen. It is called the receptacle, (d) Petals and other parts of the flower are supported on the receptacle.
2. Calyx: In the bud condition, the petals are covered by leaf like parts called sepals which are green in colour. They form the calyx.
3. Corolla: This is made up of colourful parts called petals.
4. Androecium: (a) This is the male reproductive part of the flower, (b) It consists of stamens, (c) Each stamen is made up of anther and filament.
5. Gynoecium: (a) This is the female reproductive part of the flower, (b) This is made up of carpels, (c) A carpel consists of stigma, style and ovary.

3. What are the similarities and differences between?

Question a.
Jowar and Moong
Differences:

Jowar	Moong
i. It has fibrous root.	i. It has tap root.
ii. It is a monocotyledonous seed.	ii. It is a dicotyledonous seed.
iii. It is a rabi crop.	iii. It is a kharif crop

Similarities:
Jowar and Moong both are angiosperms.

Question b.
Onion and Coriander
Differences:

Onion	Coriander
i. It is a biennial plant.	i. It is an annual plant.
ii. It has monocoty­ledonous seed.	ii. It has dicotyledonous seeds.
iii. It has fibrous root.	iii. It has tap root but later on changes to fibrous root system.

Similarities:

1. Both are used in cooking.
2. Both are edible.
3. Both belongs to kingdom plantae.

Question c.
Leaves of banana and Leaves of mango
Answer:

Leaves of banana	Leaves of mango
i. It has parallel venation.	i. It has reticulate venation.
ii.  It is very large in size.	ii. It is small in size.
iii. It is a monocotyledonous plant.	iii. It is a dicotyledonous plant.

Question d.
Coconut tree and Jowar stalk plant
Answer:
Differences:

Coconut tree	Jowar stalk plant
i. It is tall and has a thick stem	i. It is small and has a thin stem.
ii. It has strong root system.	ii. It has weak root system.
iii. Each and every part of tree is useful.	iii. Only seeds are useful.

Similarities:

1. Both are from same kingdom plantae.
2. Both are autotrophic.
3. Both are monocotyledonous plants.

4. Explain the following images in your own words.

Question a.

Answer:

1. Diagram A is of maize seed. It is a monocotyledonous seed and does not divide into two equal parts. The plant has fibrous root system.
2. Diagram B is of bean seed. It is a dicotyledonous seed and it divides into two equal parts. The plant has tap root system.

5. Describe the functions of various parts of a plant.

Question a.
Describe the functions of various parts of a plant.
Answer:
The functions of various parts of a plant are as below.
1. Root: (a) Fixation: It anchors the plant body to the soil, so helps in fixation, (b) Absorption: It absorbs water and nutrients from the soil, so helps in absorption, (c) Conduction: The root translocates water and mineral salts into the stem. (d) Storage: A certain amount of food is stored in the root which is utilized as it grows.
(e) Preventing soil erosion: It helps to bind the soil particles and prevent them from being blown away by wind or water.
2. Stem: (a) It supports and holds leaves, flower and fruits, (b) The stem conducts the water and minerals from roots to leaves and fruits, (c) It stores the food.
3. Leaves: (a) It synthesizes food for the plant, (b) Stomata, the tiny openings in the leaf help in gaseous exchange and are responsible for the process of transpiration.
4. Flower: It helps in pollination.
5. Fruit: (a) It protects the seed, (b) It helps in seed dispersal.
6. Seed: A new plant develops from it.

6. Certain properties are mentioned below. Find a leaf corresponding to each property and describe those plants.

Question a.
Certain properties are mentioned below. Find a leaf corresponding to each property and describe those plants.
leaves with smooth surface, leaves with rough surface, fleshy leaf, spines on leaf.
Answer:

1. Leaves with smooth surface: e.g. Banana leaf. It is large in size. It is closely rolled up one over the other. Together they look like a trunk but they form only an apparent trunk. It has parallel venation.
2. Leaves with rough surface: e.g. Hibiscus leaf. It has reticulate venation. Leaf margin is toothed.
3. Fleshy leaf: e.g. Jade plant, water hyacinth. It has fleshy, glossy and smooth leaves. They are coloured jade green and having a slightly red tinge towards the edge of leaves when exposed to higher level of light.
4. Spines on leaf: e.g. Opuntia, Ci/cas, kevda. Opuntia is a desert plant. Leaf is thick, fleshy and having spines on it.

7. Find the plant parts.

Question a.

Answer:

ROOT, ROOT CAP, ROOT HAIR, BUD, PETALS, STEM, RADICLE, FLOWER, LEAF, VEIN, CALYX, NODE, OVUM.

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants Structure And Function Question Answer Activity:

Sketch various types of leaves in Paintbrush on the computer and save the sketches in a folder of your own name.

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function Important Questions and Answers

Plants Structure And Function Exercise Fill in the blanks:

Plants Structure And Function Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 1.
The part that grows from inside the seed towards the soil is called the …………….. .
Answer:
radicle

Plants Structure And Function Class 7 Question 2.
The part that grows above the soil from the seed is called the …………….. .
Answer:
plumule

Plants Structure And Function Question And Answer Question 3.
The part of the plant growing below the soil from radicle for support is called …………….. .
Answer:
root

Plants Structure And Function Class 7 Exercise Question 4.
The …………….. protects the root-tip from injuries.
Answer:
root cap

Plants Structure And Function Exercise Question 5.
Roots bearing hair like processes near the root tips are called …………….. .
Answer:
root hairs

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants Structure And Function Question Answer Question 6.
Thread-like or fibre like roots arising from the stem are called ……………. .
fibrous roots

Question 7.
The stem grows above the soil from the …………….. of the sprouting seed.
Answer:
plumule

Question 8.
Leaves come out at the …………….. .
Answer:
nodes

Question 9.
The part of the stem between two nodes is called …………….. .
Answer:
inter node

Question 10.
The tip or the apical end of the stem is called a …………….. .
Answer:
bud

Question 11.
The broad, spread out part of the leaf is called the …………….. or …………….. .
Answer:
leaf blade, lamina

Question 12.
The tip of the leaf is called the …………….. .
Answer:
leaf apex

Question 13.
Leaves of some plants have a stalk called a …………….. .
Answer:
petiole

Question 14.
The portion of the leaf attached to the stem is called the …………….. .
Answer:
leaf base

Question 15.
Small leaf like structures near the leaf base is called …………….. .
Answer:
stipides

Question 16.
Flowers may have a long or a short stalk called …………….. .
Answer:
pedicel

Question 17.
One end of the pedicel is attached to the …………….. .
Answer:
stem

Question 18.
…………….. is a male reproductive organ of the flower.
Answer:
Androecium

Question 19.
…………….. is a female reproductive organ of the
Answer:
gynoecium

Question 20.
Androecium consists of …………….. .
Answer:
stamens

Question 21.
Gynoecium consists of …………….. .
Answer:
carpels

Question 22.
Seeds which get divided into two equal parts are called …………….. seeds.
Answer:
dicotyledonous

Question 23.
Seeds which do not divide into two equal parts are …………….. called seeds.
Answer:
monocotyledonous

Question 24.
Petals and other parts of the flower are supported on the …………….. .
Answer:
receptacle

Question 25.
Sepals are …………….. in colour.
Answer:
green.

Match the columns:

Question  1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Peepal	a. carpels
2. Maize	b. stamen
3. Androecium	c. parallel venation
4. Gynoecium	d. reticulate venation

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Peepal	d. reticulate venation
2. Maize	c. parallel venation
3. Androecium	b. stamen
4. Gynoecium	a. carpels

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column B’
1. Tap roots	a. stem
2. Fibrous roots	b. root
3. Radicle	c. monocotyledonous plants
4. Plumule	d. dicotyledonous plants

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column B’
1. Tap roots	d. dicotyledonous plants
2. Fibrous roots	c. monocotyledonous plants
3. Radicle	b. root
4. Plumule	a. stem

Question 3.

Column A’	Column B’
1. Leaf-tip	a. petiole
2. Edge of leaf blade	b. leaf margin
3. Portion of leaf attached to stem	c. lamina
4. Stalk of leaf	d. leaf apex
	e. leaf base

Answer:

Column A’	Column B’
1. Leaf-tip	d. leaf apex
2. Edge of leaf blade	b. leaf margin
3. Portion of leaf attached to stem	e. leaf base
4. Stalk of leaf	a. petiole

Say whether True or False Correct and rewrite the false statements:

Question 1.
Stem grows from radicle.
Answer:
False. Stem grows from the Plumule

Question 2.
Leaf margins may be entire, dentate or lobed.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The leaf blade of leaves in some plants is divided into many small parts called leaflets.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Maize plant has reticulate venation.
Answer:
False. Maize plant has parallel venation

Question 5.
A carpel consists of stigma, style and ovary.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
A stamen is made up of nodes and internodes.
Answer:
False. A stamen is made up of anther filament

Question 7.
The ovary develops into a fruit.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Fertilized ovules form the seeds.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
A mango fruit contains many seeds.
Answer:
False. A mango fruit contains only one seed

Question 10.
A fruit like cashew have seed outside the fruit.
Answer:
True.

Question 11.
Leaves of some plants do not have a petiole.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
The peepal leaf has parallel venation.
Answer:
False. It has reticulate venation.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Pea, Moong, maize, groundnut
Answer:
Maize – Its seed is monocotyledonous, while others have dicotyledonous seeds.

Question 2.
Cashew, apple, mango, chikoo
Answer:
Cashew – Its seed is outside the fruit, others have internal seeds.

Question 3.
Stigma, anther, style, ovary
Answer:
Anther – It is a part of androecium, while others are a part of gynoecium.

Question 4.
Petiole, vein, calyx, apex
Answer:
Calyx – It is a part of flower, whereas others are parts of leaf.

Question 5.
Aerial, stilt, runner, lobed
Answer:
Lobed – It is a type of leaf margin, while others are types of modified roots.

Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Which types of roots do the fenugreek, spinach and onion plants have?
Answer:

1. Fenugreek and spinach have tap roots with a few secondary roots whereas onion has fibrous root.
2. Fenugreek roots also have some nodules which contain nitrogen fixing bacteria.

Question 2.
What are called prop roots?
Answer:
Roots emerging from the trunk and branches of a banyan tree grow towards the soil. These roots are called prop roots.

Question 3.
What is called reticulate venation?
Answer:

1. A leaf is divided into two equal parts by a single mid-vein which lies along the midline of the leaf blade.
2. Secondary veins arise from the mid-vein. They are branched and form a network or reticulum. Such a type of venation is called reticulate venation.

Question 4.
What is called parallel venation?
Answer:
In a leaf all the veins are parallel, running from the leaf base to the leaf apex. Such a venation is called parallel venation.

Question 5.
What is pollination?
Answer:
After maturity, anthers burst and the pollen grains which are released fall on the stigma. This process is called pollination.

Question 6.
Why are the underground parts of plants like radish, carrot, beet and sweet potato thick, fleshy and swollen? Which parts of the plant are they?
Answer:
The underground parts of plants like radish, carrot, beet and sweet potato are thick, fleshy and swollen because they store food in the form of starch. These are the root part of the plant.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Tap roots and fibrous roots.
Answer:

Tap roots	Fibrous roots
1. Roots of some plants produce secondary roots that grow obliquely and spread far and wide in the soil. This type of root is called a tap root.	1. Thread like or fibre roots arising from the stem are called fibrous roots.
2. It is found in dicotyledonous plant.	2.  It is found in monocotyle-donous plant.

Question 2.
Dicotyledonous seeds and monocotyledonous seeds.
Answer:

Dicotyledonous seeds	Monocotyledonous seeds
1. Seeds which get divided into two equal parts are called dicotyledonous seeds.	1. Seeds which do not divide into two equal parts are called monocotyledonous seeds.
2. Dicotyledonous seeded plants have tap root system.	2. Monocotyledonous seeded plants have fibrous root system.

Draw neat and labelled diagram for the following:

Question 1.
Tap root
Answer:

Question 2.
Parts of a leaf.
Answer:

Question 3.
Parts of stem
Answer:

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Certain properties are mentioned below. Find a leaf corresponding to each property and describe those plants.
Answer:

1. Leaves with smooth surface: e.g. Banana leaf. It is large in size. It is closely rolled up one over the other. Together they look like a trunk but they form only an apparent trunk. It has parallel venation.
2. Leaves with rough surface: e.g. Hibiscus leaf. It has reticulate venation. Leaf margin is toothed.
3. Fleshy leaf: e.g. Jade plant, water hyacinth. It has fleshy, glossy and smooth leaves. They are coloured jade green and having a slightly red tinge towards the edge of leaves when exposed to higher level of light.
4. Spines on leaf: e.g. Opuntia, Cycas, kevda. Opuntia is a desert plant. Leaf is thick, fleshy and having spines on it.

Use your brainpower!

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What would have happened if plants like tamarind, banyan and mango had fibrous roots?
Answer:
If plants like banyan, mango, tamarind had fibrous roots they would get uprooted and fall even with a little strong wind as the roots would not be able to support and anchor the trees firmly.

Question 2.
What will happen if the root-tip is injured?
Answer:

1. Root cap helps the root to grow downward It protects the sensitive part of the root and eases the movement of the root through the soil.
2. Injury of the root tip causes the root to grow randomly and it also may lead to injury of the sensitive part of the root.

Question 3.
Which types of roots do the fenugreek, spinach and onion plants have?
Answer:

1. Fenugreek and spinach have tap roots with a few secondary roots whereas onion has fibrous root.
2. Fenugreek roots also have some nodules which contain nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

Question 4.
Of what use to a plant are the insects flitting about around its flowers?
Answer:

1. The insects try to suck the nectar from the flowers and in that process the pollen grains stick to their legs.
2. When they sit on another flower the pollen grain stick to the stigma and the pollination takes place. Thus, these insects help in the pollination.

Observe the figure and answer the questions given.

1.

Question a.
What is shown in the picture?
Answer:
The picture shows the arrangement of leaves on the stem.

Question b.
What arrangement is shown in (A), (B), and (C)?
Answer:
(A) Alternate (B) Opposite (C) Whorled

2.

Question a.
Lable parts 1 to 6.
Answer:

1. Gynoecium or carpel
2. Corolla
3. Androecium (Stamen)
4. Ovary
5. Corolla
6. Pedicel

Question b.
Name the female reproductive part.
Answer:
Gynoecium

Question c.
Name the colourful part of the flower.
Answer:
Corolla

Question d.
Which part develops into fruit?
Answer:
Ovary

Question e.
Which pa pollination?
Answer:
The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of flower is called pollination.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Solutions My English Coursebook Chapter 4.3 Silver Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 My English Coursebook Solutions Chapter 4.3 Silver

My English Coursebook Std 9 Guide Chapter 4.3 Silver Textbook Questions and Answers

Warming up!
Chit-chat

1. Have you ever attended a sky-watch or a star-gazing party?
2. Have you ever slept under the open sky?
3. Do you study at night or early in the morning?
4. Do you sleep with your windows closed or open?

Images

Question 1.
Imagine that your class is to be divided into groups or houses. Each house will have their own colour, symbol, dress code, sport, motto, a common room with objects of their interest and suitable furniture. Think of sets of four names for the groups. Form groups and work out the (imaginary) details for each set. Some suggestions are given here:

Answer:

Category	Names
Metals	iron	copper	silver	gold
Flowers	orchid	lily	jasmine	bluebell
Stars or galaxies	Sirius	Conopus	Alphard	Procyon
Trees	sal	neem	deodar	chinar
Seasons	spring	summer	winter	monsoon

Deodar House

• Colour – Pink
• Symbol – Rose
• Dress code – pink shirt/top

Common room to have:

Two chairs with small round table to sit and study, two cupboards with books to read, newspapers, magazines, sofa to rest, vase in corner, pink background to the room, room freshener.

• Sports: Rugby
• Motto: Unity is strength.

[The answers given above are for reference, students are expected to do this activity in the class.]

My English Coursebook 9th Class Solutions Chapter 4.3 Silver Additional Important Questions and Answers

Simple Factual Activities:

Question 1.
Complete the following sentences with the help of the poem:
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. The moon and the mouse are only the moving objects in the poem.
2. Everything appears silver in the poem because of the silver moonlight.
3. The moon walks in the night in her silver shoes.

Question 2.
Complete the following web with the names of the things that appear silver in the moonlight: (Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

Complex Factual Activities:

Question 1.
Which of the objects, animals, etc. in the poem are at rest without any motion?
Answer:
The fruits, trees, casements, thatch, kennel, dog, cote, doves, fish, reeds and the stream are the objects, animals, etc. in the poem that are at rest without any movement.

Question 2.
In which line does the word silver/silvery in the poem occur? What pattern does it show?
Answer:
The word silver/silvery occurs in the second, fourth, sixth, eighth, tenth, twelfth, and fourteenth line of the poem. The word silver/silvery is used in even numbered lines and not in the odd numbered lines in the entire poem. It adds uniformity and rhythm to the poem.

Poetic device Activities:

Question 1.
Write down the musical (rhyming) words from the poem.
Answer:
The musical (rhyming) words used in the poem are:

1. moon – shoon
2. sees – trees
3. catch – thatch
4. log – dog
5. peep – sleep
6. by – eye
7. gleam – stream.

Question 2.
Write down the rhyming scheme of the poem.
Answer:
The rhyming scheme for the first two stanzas is aahb. The rhyme scheme of the final stanza is aabbcc.

Appreciation of Poem:

1. Title: The title of the poem is “Silver”.
2. Poet: The poet of the poem is Walter de la Mare (1873-1956).

3. Theme/Central Idea: The poem is about a moonlit night. The silvery light of the moon covers the whole earth and everything on it looks silvery. The poem stands out for its rich visual imagery.

4. Rhyme Scheme: The rhyme scheme for the first two stanzas is ‘aabb’. The rhyme scheme for the final stanza is ‘aabbcc’.

5. Figure of Speech: Simile, Personification.

6. Special Feature: This poem is very rich in its visual imagery. The poem rolls out before us like a landscape painting. A dense silence runs through the poem. The moon and the mouse are the only moving objects in the poem. The rest of the things mentioned in the poem are at rest in their silvery beauty.

7. Favourite Line: My favourite lines from the poem are:

• “…she peers, and sees/Silver fruit upon silver trees.”
• Couched in his kennel, like a log, With paws of silver sleeps the dog;

8. Why I like the poem: I like the poem for its pleasing rhyme scheme ‘aabb’. I also like the great sound effect the poem produces when we read it aloud.

Activity:

Question 1.
If you were asked to draw a detailed picture of the scene described in the poem, what objects, animals, natural features, etc. will you show in the picture? Make a list.
Answer:
If I was asked to draw a detailed picture of the scene described in the poem, the objects, the picture are:

1. rabbit
2. icy mountains
3. white dog
4. hut
5. river
6. swan
7. racket
8. mirror

Question 2.
Can you think of a parallel animals, natural features, etc. that I would show in dawn/evening when everything is steeped in golden light?
Answer:
Yes, in the evening, the sun sinks below the horizon to set. As it goes lower and lower its dark – orange – crimson rays spread across the sky and the surroundings steep in gold light. It brings an awesome scenery to view.

Question 3.
The same landscape appears different at different times. What message can we draw from this?
Answer:
Two different interpretations can be made from the given sentence:

• A person/an object can have multiple characteristics that reveal in different situations.
• Perception of the same thing may vary from person to person.
• PFC Pivot Point Calculator

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Solutions My English Coursebook Chapter 4.2 Reading Works of Art Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 My English Coursebook Solutions Chapter 4.2 Reading Works of Art

My English Coursebook Std 9 Guide Chapter 4.2 Reading Works of Art Textbook Questions and Answers

English Workshop:

1. Spot the error in the spellings of the following words with reference to the passage and rewrite them correctly.

Question 1.
Spot the error in the spellings of the following words with reference to the passage and rewrite them correctly.

1. renouned
2.  feetures
3. pentmgs
4. circals
5. inflar
6. geometic
7. figars
8. achiving.

Answer:

1. renowned
2. features
3. paintings
4. circles
5. inner
6. geometric
7. figures
8. achieving.

2. Complete the following diagram:

Question 1.
Complete the following diagram:

Answer:

3. Complete the following sentences with reference to the passage:

Question 1.
Complete the following sentences with reference to the passage:
(a) Raza’s paintings do not depict …………………. .
(b) Raza’s paintings are done in the style ……………… .
(c) Raza’s paintings are not inspired by ………………. .
(d) Raza’s paintings present images from his own …………….. .
(e) Raza’s paintings radiate ……………. .
(f) The …………….. became the core of Raza’s paintings.
(g) For an artist like Raza, his work, or paintings are an effective …………………. .
Answer:
(a) Raza’s paintings do not depict lifelike human figures or copies of scenes.
(b) Raza’s paintings are done in the abstract style.
(c) Raza’s paintings are not inspired by any external factor.
(d) Raza’s paintings present images from his own inner mind.
(e) Raza’s paintings radiate peace.
(f) The bindu or point became the core of Raza’s paintings.
(g) For an artist like Raza, his work, or paintings are an effective medium of communication.

4. Read the passage on ‘Gond Art’ carefully. Then complete the following sentences without going back to the passage:

Question 1.
Read the passage on ‘Gond Art’ carefully. Then complete the following sentences without going back to the passage:
Answer:

1. Gond art is a tribal art.
2. The Gondi language is similar to Telugu, a Dravidian language.
3. Originally people used to draw pictures on the earthen walls of their houses.
4. In folk arts, you yourself prepare the ‘canvas’ – the surface on which to draw and the colours with which you draw.

5. Write about the following important features of Gond art with the help of the passage.

Question 1.
Write about the following important features of Gond art with the help of the passage.

Answer:
1. Developed and Preserved by: The Gond tribal people residing largely in Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha in India.
2. A medium of: It is a medium of expressing, recording and preserving what is seen. people used to draw pictures on earthen walls of their homes itself.
3. Preparing colours: In the days of the past several things in nature such as soil of different shades, the juice of plants, leaves, tree bark, flowers, fruits and even things like coal and cow-dung were used to prepare colours.
4. Outlines: In the Gond style of art, the designs may vary a little from artist to artist but the designs that fill it make the whole picture look lively and attractive.
5. Variation in drawing: The colours, textures and patterns used in drawing vary from painting to painting.
6. Texture designs: By using dots, straight lines, dotted lines, curvy shapes and circles simple texture designs are made.

6. Why does the author think that the roots of folk art lie in women’s chores?

Question 1.
Why does the author think that the roots of folk art lie in women’s chores?
Answer:
In the past, it was the duty of women to look after her home and hearth. It included decorating the house with different things like flowers, rangolis. They handled it very creatively while shouldering the other responsibilities of their home. They used their own creativity while doing it, so the author thinks that the roots of folk art lies in women’s chores.

7. From the passages, list the words related to – (a) geometry (b) colours (c) designs.

Question (a)
geometry
Answer:

Question (b)
colours
Answer:

Question (c)
designs.
Answer:
human figures, scenes, abstract.

8. These two passages are examples of a short introduction to works of art – a short review. They cover the following points:

Question 1.
These two passages are examples of a short introduction to works of art – a short review. They cover the following points:
Answer:

1. The name of the creator
2. The theme or subject matter
3. Type of art
4. Individual style
5. Presentation techniques
6. Its effect on viewers
7. Message or interpretation

Question 2.
What points will you include if you had to review a book or film or a play? List the points.
Answer:
If I had to review a book, a film or play, I would like to include the following points:

1. The theme of the book/film/play.
2. The plot and the story.
3. The characters in the book/film/play.
4. Flow of language and style of narration.
5. Authenticity of the book/film/play (story).
6. The message conveyed in the book/film/play.

Question 3.
Choose a book/film and review it in short using the points you have listed.
Answer:
Review of the book

The Three Mistakes of My Life

‘The Three Mistakes of My Life’ is a novel written by Chetan Bhagat who writes about Indians and for Indians. His characters are young and passionate. The novel follows the story of three friends and is based in the city of Ahmedabad in Gujarat.

Govind Jaat Patel is an ordinary guy with whom anybody can relate. Being a Gujarati his ambition is to become a businessman. His friend is Omi who is the son of a Hindu priest of the local temple. He is confused about his religious views which are mainly influenced by Bitoo Mama. Ishan is a big cricket freak and a patriot.

He was the best cricketer in his locality and school. He helps Govind’s business by organizing daily cricket coaching camps. He has a younger sister Vidya who is weak in Mathematics. Ishan asks Govind to take her Mathematics tuition. In between their tuition, they fall in love which is kept secret.

The whole story revolves around Govind and his friends and the three mistakes he made. It is pop- fiction of lightest, laziest sort, which tackles serious real-life issues and incidents giving it a veneer of earnest thoughtfulness that stands up to nothing. It is written simply and has the quality that makes one want to read the book in one sitting. The target audience of the book is the young generation. It is based on fun, emotion and pace to turn it into a potential best-seller.

9. You know that an adverb is a word that tells us something more about a verb, an adjective, another adverb etc. It can give us information about the place, time, manner etc. of the action denoted by the verb.

For example, ‘here’ tells us a place. ‘Now’ gives us information about time. ‘Fast’ gives us information about manner. In the same way, an adverb clause is a group of words that can also tell us something about place, time, manner etc. of the action denoted by the verb. Read the following examples, given and then complete the sentence using your own ideas:

Question (a)
Place: You may sit wherever you like.
You may sit ………………………………..
Answer:
(a) Place: You may sit wherever you like.
You may sit next to Ishan.

Question (b)
Time: I entered the school when the bell was ringing.
I entered the school ……………………..
Answer:
(b) Time: I entered the school when the bell was ringing.
I entered the school with my classmates.

Question (c)
Manner: I love my country like a true Indian should.
I love my country………………………….
Answer:
(c) manner: I love my country like a true Indian should.
I like my country more than you.

My English Coursebook 9th Class Solutions Chapter 4.2 Reading Works of Art Additional Important Questions and Answers

Simple Factual Activities:

Question 1.
Name the following:
Answer:

1. The state where Raza was born – Madhya Pradesh
2. The institute where he studied art – Chitrakala Mahavidyalaya, Nagpur
3. The institute where he took his higher education in Mumbai – J. J. School of Art, Mumbai
4. The country he settled – France

Question 2.
Complete the following web :
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

Question 3.
Complete the following sentences with reference to the passage: (Answers are directly given.)
Answer:
1. Raza passed away on 23rd July 2016.
2. Raza’s wife was French.

Question 4.
Complete the following web-chart:
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

Complex Factual Activities:

Question 1.
How did Raza And his paintings?
Answer:
Raza found his paintings through the study of Indian art and its heritage, cultural context and philosophy.

Question 2.
What are the specialities of Raza’s paintings?
Answer:
The specialities of Raza’s paintings are:

1. His paintings belong to the abstract style of paintings.
2. They are not inspired by any external factor whereas based on inner mind of the painter.
3. They communicate with the viewers.

Question 3.
What are Raza’s paintings based on? How did he describe his work?
Answer:
Raza’s paintings are based on spirituality, metaphysical path and the bindu or point. He described his work as his own inner experience and involvement with the mysteries of nature and form, which is expressed in colour, line, space and light.

Question 4.
What legacy did Raza leave behind?
Answer:
Raza left behind a rich legacy of sensitive paintings (achieved through extraordinary compositions of lines and colours) that depict extraordinary compositions.

Question 5.
Complete the following sentences:
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:
1. In the Gond style of art, outlines may vary from artist to artist but the designs that fill it make the whole picture look lively and attractive.
2. The designs in Gond style art contain simple textures of dots, straight lines, dotted lines, curvy shapes and circles.

Activities based on vocabulary:

Question 1.
Find out antonyms from the passage for the following words: (Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. outer × inner
2. city × village
3. ordinary × extraordinary
4. international × national

Question 2.
Spot the error in the spelling of the following words and rewrite them correctly:
1. dicided
2. diffarent
Answer:
1. decided
2. different.

Question 3.
Write related words with “Artist”.
Answer:
design, outlines, picture, texture, pattern, style.

Activities based on contextual grammar:

Question 1.
Identify the tense:
1. You will find them in almost all paintings.
2. Raza found his paintings through his study of Indian art.
Answer:
1. Simple future tense
2. Simple past tense

Question 2.
Frame a Wh-type question to get underlined part as an answer:
Answer:
1. His paintings belong to the abstract style of paintings.
2. Sayed Haider Raza is popularly known as Raza.
Answer:
1. What do his paintings belong to?
2. What is Sayed Haider Raza popularly known as?

Question 3.
Change the voice:
1. He was honoured with all the three Padma awards – Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan.
2. Raza left behind a legacy of sensitive paintings.
Answer:
1. The Government of India honoured him with all the three Padma awards – Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Vibhushan.
2. A legacy of sensitive paintings was left behind by Raza.

Question 4.
Make the following sentences exclamatory:
1. His paintings are very expressive.
2. Raza had a great creativity.
Answer:
1. How expressive his paintings are!
2. What a great creativity Raza had!

Question 5.
What a deep thought this art conveys! (Make it assertive.)
Answer:
This art conveys a very deep thought.

Question 6.
Creating folk art is a very enriching experience. (Make it exclamatory.)
Answer:
What an enriching experience creating folk art is!

Question 7.
Complete the words using correct letters:

1. s_ene
2. st _ le
3. pa_nt
4. c_ eate

Answer:

1. scene
2. style
3. paint
4. create.

Question 8.
Copy the following sentences correctly:
Answer:
1. He studied art at the J. J. School of Art in Mumbai.
2. What a deep thought this art conveys – and so easily !

Question 9.
Put the following words in alphabetical order:
1. vicious, dreadful, thrilled, favourable
2. enchanted, enabled, explained, endangered.
Answer:
1. dreadful, favourable, thrilled, vicious,
2. enabled, enchanted, endangered, explained,

Question 10.
Punctuate the following sentences:
1. ariel my joyful spirit said prospero bring ferdinand here at once for my daughter must see him
2. most sure she is the goddess of the island he thought to himself
Answer:
1. “Ariel, my joyful spirit,” said Prospero. “Bring Ferdinand here at once, for my daughter must see him.”
2. “Most sure, she is the goddess of the island!” he thought to himself.

Question 11.
Write four small words (minimum letters each) using the letters given word: “treacherous”
Answer:

1. teacher
2. reach
3. each
4. ache.

Question 12.
Spot the error and rewrite the correct sentences:
1. Prospero touch Miranda with his magic stick and she fell fast asleep.
2. How happy Alonso was to saw his lost son !
Answer:
1. Prospero touched Miranda with his magic stick and she fell fast asleep.
2. How happy Alonso was to see his lost son !

Question 13.
Write related words as shown in the example: (Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

Question 14.
Complete the following word-chain of verbs. Write four words, each beginning with the last letter of the previous word:
explore → ……………… → ………………. → ……………… → ………………….
Answer:
explore → eliminate → embrace → evaluate → emerge.

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Make a meaningful sentence by using the following phrase in your own sentence.
‘to settle down’.
Answer:
It is pretty difficult to settle down in cities like Mumbai.

Question 2.
Add a prefix or suffix to make new words and use any one of the root words in your own sentence:
1. rich
2. effect.
Answer:
1. rich-enrich
2. effect-effective.
The painter has used rich attractive colour combinations in his painting.

Question 3.
Add a subordinate clause to expand the sentence meaningfully:
You can see my paintings ………………………..
Answer:
You can see my paintings when vou come to mv house.

Personal Response:

Question 1.
Write 4-5 sentences about any other Indian painter you like.
Answer:
M. F. Husain is my favourite modern painter who was born in Pandharpur town of Maharashtra. He is one of the most famous artists of India both at the national as well as the international level. M. F. Husain was once called ‘the Picasso of India’ by the Forbes magazine. The Government of India awarded the prestigious Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan for his work.

Question 2.
What are the essential things required to become a good painter?
Answer:
The essential things that are required to become a good painter are :

1. interest in painting
2. a good concentration skill
3. capacity to sit for a long time at one place
4. good eyesight
5. imagination
6. the knowledge of mixing colours.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Solutions My English Coursebook Chapter 2.1 Comparisons Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 My English Coursebook Solutions Chapter 2.1 Comparisons

My English Coursebook Std 9 Digest Chapter 2.1 Comparisons Textbook Questions and Answers

Warming up!

Chit-chat:

• What is your favourite colour?
• What does it remind you of?
• Are you afraid of the dark?
• What does it make you think of?
• If you were asked to design a big garden, what will you include in it?

Expanding Word Webs:

Question 1.
Form pairs. List the names of as many vehicles as you can. Choose any two of them, but they must be of different types. Then draw a word web for each of them to show their appearance, qualities and the things that these features remind you of. You may use words as well as phrases in the web.

Answer:
Words that can be used in Word-web:

1. terrific
2. brand-new
3. sleek
4. tiny/huge
5. powerful
6. affordable
7. expensive
8. easy-to-drive
9. eco-friendly
10. luxurious – arrows.
11. fuel-efficient
12. automatic
13. lefthand drive
14. fastest
15. imported

Name of the vehicles:

1. bicycle
2. bullock-cart
3. car
4. bus
5. truck
6. motorcycle
7. scooter
8. boat
9. ship
10. train
11. helicopter
12. aeroplane.

Choose any two of above vehicles and write related

Question 2.
Note the difference between drive and ride. Use the two words correctly in your own sentences :
Answer:

1. Ride – to sit on and be carried by an animal or a two wheeler.
   Sentence – I don’t like to ride on a camel.
2. Drive – to sit in a vehicle and force to go in some directions.
   Sentence – My father drives the car with full speed.

Question 3.
Describe your dream vehicle in a few lines :
Answer:
Flying car is my dream vehicle. It will fly in the air. It will fly fast and save our time. There will be no traffic jam problem. No need to construct roads for it. It will save fuel and will be eco-friendly.

English Workshop:

1. List all the adjectives in the poem. Use the comparative forms of at least 8 of them to write new comparisons. Two of them have been given as examples.

Question 1.
List all the adjectives in the poem. Use the comparative forms of at least 8 of them to write new comparisons. Two of them have been given as examples.
Answer:

1. as rapid as spaceship
2. as tough as snail
3. as dangerous as dinosaur
4. as brave as tiger
5. as nice as lamb
6. as yellow as lemon
7. as delicious as jam
8. as hot as desert
9. as deep as sea
10. as fine as house
11. as green as pea
12. as dark as cave
13. as crunchy as toast
14. as heavy as road drill
15. as fearful as ghost

2. List all the nouns in the poem. Find a suitable adjective – other than the ones given here – for each of the nouns and write meaningful similes for at least 8 of them.
For example, as yellow as a lemon.

Question 1.
List all the nouns in the poem. Find a suitable adjective – other than the ones given here – for each of the nouns and write meaningful similes for at least 8 of them.
For example, as yellow as a lemon.
Answer:

1. as useful as ore
2. as lovely as a kitten
3. as stable as a rock
4. as warm as a mitten
5. as narrow as tunnel
6. as cute as an elf
7. as tricky as a mountain path
8. as safe as shelf

3. Form groups of 6-8. Think of similes using different objects, for example,
Dry as land, Wet as a puddle.
Now try to put together the similes to make a poem with rhyming lines.

Question 1.
Form groups of 6-8. Think of similes using different objects, for example,
Dry as land, Wet as a puddle.
Now try to put together the similes to make a poem with rhyming lines.

4. Write the pairs of rhyming words.

Question 1.
Write the pairs of rhyming words.
Answer:

1. kitten – mitten
2. moon – noon
3. elf – shelf
4. shelf – yourself.
5. snail – nail
6. lamb – jam
7. sea – pea
8. toast – ghost.

5. Start a collection of idioms with comparisons. Use the following categories:

Question 1.
Start a collection of idioms with comparisons. Use the following categories:
Answer:
(a) idioms with colours:

1. as black as coal
2. as white as snow
3. as red as blood
4. as blue as the sky
5. as green as an emerald
6. as pink as a rose
7. as yellow as gold
8. as orange as a pumpkin
9. as brown as a coffee bean

(b) Idioms with animals:

1. as cunning as a fox
2. as brave as a lion
3. as hairy as a gorilla
4. as hungry as a horse

(c) Idioms with objects:

1. as black as coal
2. as soft as butter
3. as light as cotton

6. Given below are some idiomatic comparisons with ‘like’. Can you guess their meaning? Look them up in a good dictionary. You won’t find them under ‘like’.
Which words will you look up to find these comparisons?

• Like a bull in a china shop (Here, china means delicate articles of porcelain)
• Like a cat on a hot tin roof.
• Like a red rag to a bull.
• Like a cat that stole the cream.
• Like water off a duck’s back.
• Memory like a sieve.

Using your imagination write more comparisons using ‘like’.

My English Coursebook 9th Class Solutions Chapter 2.1 Comparisons Additional Important Questions and Answers

Read the following extract and do the activities:

Simple Factual Activities:

Question 1.
Read the extract and complete the following by choosing the correct alternative:
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. While comparing a spaceship with a snail, the narrator used speed, as a common feature in both. (speed/weight)
2. Square and round are shapes, commonly used to compare, (shapes/objects)

Question 2.
Match the following:

‘A’	‘B’
1. big	(a) toast
2. fierce	(b) desert
3. dry	(c) cave
4. warm	(d)  dinosaur
	(e)  tiger

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
1. big	(d)  dinosaur
2. fierce	(e)  tiger
3. dry	(b) desert
4. warm	(a) toast

Question 3.
Answer in 1-2 words:
Answer:

1. How is a mountain path? – crooked
2. What is the world full of? – opposites
3. What is hard and what is soft? – a rock, a mitten
4. What is commonly compared in a giant and an elf? – height

Question 4.
Match the following :

‘A’	‘B’
1. dark	(a) elf
2. hard	(b) ox
3. strong	(c) cool
4. short	(d) rock
	(e) tunnel

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
1. dark	(e) tunnel
2. hard	(d) rock
3. strong	(b) ox
4. short	(a) elf

Complex Factual Activity:

Question 1.
Complete the following:
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:
1. According to the poet a spaceship is fast whereas a snail is slow.
2. The poet says a road drill is noisy and a ghost is quiet.

Appreciation of Poem:

1. Title: The title of the poem is ‘Comparisons’.
2. Poet: The poem is by an anonymous (= unknown) poet.

3. Theme/Central Idea: The central idea of the poem is given in the last but one line of the poem. The poem celebrates the diversity in the universe. The poem also reminds us that all sorts of people and things are needed to make our world beautiful.

4. Rhyme Scheme: The rhyme Scheme of first six stanzas is ‘abcb’. The last stanza has six lines and its rhyme scheme is ‘abcbdb’.
5. Figure of Speech: Similes.

6. Special Features: The structural quality is a special feature of this poem. The quatrain stanzas and their ‘abcb’ rhyme scheme flows with the force of ballad. Here, in the conclusive two lines, the pace of the poem slows down and poet’s argument sinks deep down in our hearts.
7. Favourite line: The world is full of opposites, so think of some yourself.

8. Why I like the poem: I like this poem because it made me think for the first time the extreme diversity in the world around me. I think the poem helped me in looking at the world around me in a different light.

Vocabulary Focus:

Question 1.
Write adjectives/words used here, to show – shape, size, temperature:
Answer:

• shape – round, square
• size – big, small
• temperature – dry, wet.

Question 2.
List all the adjectives in the poem. Use the comparative forms to write new comparisons:
Answer:
1. (a) faster than the wind
(b) slower than a tortoise

2. (a) bigger than my brother
(b) smaller than my sister

3. (a) fiercer than a giant
(b) gentler than a butler

4. (a) cooler than ice
(b) warmer than a sweater

5. (a) sourer than tamarind
(b) sweeter than mango

6. (a) noisier than a machine
(b) quieter than a cave.

7. (a) stronger than a tiger
(b) weaker than a rabbit

8. (a) taller than a tree
(b) shorter than plant

9. (a) darker than night
(b) lighter than tubelight

10. (a) harder than a stone
(b) softer than butter

11. (a) crooked than hillroad
(b) straighter than a railway line

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Solutions My English Coursebook Chapter 1.5 The Necklace Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 My English Coursebook Solutions Chapter 1.5 The Necklace

My English Coursebook Std 9 Digest Chapter 1.5 The Necklace Textbook Questions and Answers

Warming up!

Chit-chat:

• Do you like jewellery and ornaments?
• Do you like to dress up for special occasions?
• How do you do that?
• What makes a person happy and confident’?
• during special functions and parties?

Talking about Myself:

Write a few lines about yourself – your name, appearance. family, the place where you live, your school, your friends. neighbours. relatives, your likes, dislikes, hobbies, what you are good at, etc.

Now create an imaginary ‘persona’ for yourself. It should be quite different from your real self. Or, you may choose a fictional character – a character from a novel, story, etc. Write a few lines about this imaginary persona and introduce yourself in that role.

Imaginary Persona

• Hi, I am Vishalbahu.
• I like to obstruct and punish criminals.
• I simply love stunts and fights.
• I enjoy flying secretly all over the world.
• I don’t like people who trouble common people.
• I hate crimes and injustice caused to innocent people.
• I find exercises, combats very interesting.
• I can do any impossible things in the world.
• I am good at every difficult or hard work.
• I am not so good at office work and housework.

A Turn by Turn Story:

Form groups of 6-8. One person chooses any familiar object and announces its name in the group. All the others talk about it one by one, adding one (new) complete sentence at a time. The person who has chosen the object takes down all the sentences. After 2-3 rounds, read the sentences together and try to build a story around them.

Part I

English Workshop:

1. Read each of the following sentences aloud. Write who said it and to whom.

Question 1.
(a) Look. here’s something for you.”
(b) “Why. the dress you go to the theater in!”
(c) ‘I would rather not go to the party.”
(d) ‘Choose, my dear.”
(e) You have nothing else?”
(f) “Would you lend me this, just this?”
(g) “What ! … How ! … That’s impossible!
Answer:
(b) Mathilde’s husband said to Mathilde.
(c) Mathilde said to her husband.
(d) Madame Forestier said this to Mathilde.
(e) Mathilde said this to Madame Forestier.
(f) Mathilde said this to Madame Forestier.
(g) Mathilde’s husband said this to Mathilde.

2. Read the conversations in the story aloud using proper intonation.

Question 1.
Read the conversations in the story aloud using proper intonation.

3. Write a few lines about what Mathilde had and what she dreamt about.

Question 1.
Write a few lines about what Mathilde had and what she dreamt about.

4. Write what you think about the following thoughts and actions of Mathilde.

Question a.
Mathilde was beautiful, and so she wanted to marry an aristocrat.
Answer:
She was not wrong to think so, because I think every woman, beautiful or not, wants to marry a person, who has a good position and wealth.

Question b.
Mathilde was sad because she did not get any luxuries.
Answer:
Her thinking was not correct. Not every one gets a luxurious life. She should have managed in whatever they were earning and lived a simple but happy life.

Question c.
Mathilde felt that her house was shabby and poorly furnished.
Answer:
Her feelings are wrong because it depends on the people who live in the house to keep the house clean, tidy and beautiful with whatever furniture, things they have got.

Question d.
Mathilde wanted other people to envy her.
Answer:
Mathilde’s thought was wrong because happiness does not depend on making the people envy you. She wished that people would have admired her if she had rich dresses and jewels.

Question e.
Mathilde was not happy to see the invitation.
Answer:
Mathilde did not care about the importance of the invitation, her husband had received. She was thinking only about the dress she would wear there.

Question f.
Mathilde wanted a new dress for herself.
Answer:
Mathilde wanted a new dress for herself only to selfishly corner her husband for extorting money from him to buy a new dress. Her thought was silly and unreasonable.

Question g.
Mathilde borrowed a diamond necklace from her friend and wore it to the party.
Answer:
Borrowing a diamond necklace was not a dire need of Mathilde. She could have used flowers instead; but she wanted another woman’s necklace to make a show of her beauty. She did not understand that borrowing is begging.

Question h.
Mathilde lost her necklace.
Answer:
Mathilde was so overwhelmed and captivated by her success that she was not aware of her responsibility of safe-keeping the borrowed necklace carefully. She lost it only because of her carelessness.

5. Prepare a formal invitation using the following format:

Language Study:

6. Read the phrases: The necklace, an error, all these things, another woman, one evening, her husband. In all these phrases we see some words used before the nouns. They specify or make it clear what noun we are talking about. These words that are used at the beginning of a noun phrase are known as determiners.
Determiners include articles (a, an, the), possessive pronouns (my, our, your, her, etc.), words like this, that, much, many, all, and numbers.

Part II

Chit-chat:

• Have you ever lost anything valuable?
• Name a book/movie that made you think.
• What was it about?
• What was the best part about the book/movie?

English Workshop:

1. Spot and circle the error m the following sentences. Then rewrite the sentences after correcting them.

Question 1.
Spot and circle the error m the following sentences. Then rewrite the sentences after correcting them.
(a) But they could not found it.
(b) You must right to your friend.
(c) At the end of one week, they have lose all hope.
(d) He would borrowed the rest.
(e) You should have return it sooner.
(f) And this life lasted for ten year.
(g) “No, I am Mathilde bisel.”
(h) Madame Forestier were stunned.
Answer:
(a) But they could not find it.
(b) You must write to your friend.
(c) At the end of one week, they have lost all hope.
(d) They stared at each other
(e) He would borrow the rest.
(f) You should have returned it sooner.
(g) And this life lasted ten years.
(h) “No, I am Mathilde Loisel.”
(i) Madame Forestier was stunned.

2. Complete the following table.

Question 1.
Complete the following table.

3. Write what you think about the following thoughts and actions of Mathilde

Question a.
Mathilde was shocked despaired over the loss of her necklace
Answer:
I think her reaction to the loss of her necklace was natural. But she herself was responsible for the tragedy. Her stubborn behaviour is to be blamed for the loss.

Question b.
Mathilde wrote a note to her friend as dictated by her husband.
Answer:
The couple couldn’t find the lost necklace even after a long search. They expected to find it some day. For that they needed some more time and Mathilde was compelled to write the false letter to I her friend. Her action of telling lies and betraying her friend was immoral and ridiculous.

Question c.
Mathilde and her husband decided to replace the necklace.
Answer:
I think that their decision of replacing the necklace was immature and insincere. Instead, they should have clearly and openly told Madame Forestier about the incident. It could have saved them from the horrible life they had to face and the dreadful debt they had to pay.

Question d.
Mathilde returned the diamond necklace to her friend
Answer:
I think, it was her moral responsibility to return the borrowed diamond necklace immediately after the party day but she delayed. She did so to hide the fact that she had lost the diamond necklace. Her negligence made her to make one more wrong.

Question e.
Mathilde did not tell her friend about the loss and replacement.
Answer:
It was another big mistake she committed. It was her thoughtless action. Had she told her friend about the loss of the necklace, further ruinous incidents wouldn’t have occurred and the remedy for the problem would have been very simple and easy.

Question f.
Mathilde worked very very hard to pay the debt.
Answer:
Mathilde’s action shows that she was a completely transformed woman. She had changed her attitude towards her lifestyle. She forgot her dreams of living a luxurious life. She worked hard and saved money for repaying the debt. She felt duty-bound for coming out of the devastating situation, she was responsible for.

Question g.
Mathilde and her husband paid off the debt in ten years.
Answer:
The income of Mathilde’s husband was meagre. So both of them worked very hard for ten long years to save money for repaying the debt. They curtailed their needs severely, her husband worked extra to ease the burden of debt. Somehow they faced the woes together bravely and sincerely.

4. Form pairs. Discuss how ‘Part II’ of the story could have been different. Write your storyline in the form of bullets showing the main events.

Question 1.
Form pairs. Discuss how ‘Part II’ of the story could have been different. Write your storyline in the form of bullets showing the main events.
Answer:
The cabman, who dropped them at their door found the necklace after two days while cleaning his cab → behind the space of the seats → fallen from the gaps of the seats → remembered the lady wearing the necklace → was an honest and God-fearing man → went to their house →handed over the necklace to them → it could have changed the whole story.

5. Imagine what must have happened after Mathilde’s friend discovered that the diamonds were real. Do you think she would return it to Mathilde? Would that make Mathilde happy?

Question 1.
Imagine what must have happened after Mathilde’s friend discovered that the diamonds were real. Do you think she would return it to Mathilde? Would that make Mathilde happy?
Answer:
Mathilde’s friend was rich but a kind-hearted and generous woman. She knew that Mathilde had to face many miseries for ten years. I think she would return the necklace to Mathilde. Mathilde would be happy to find some relief after ruinous sufferings.

6. Discuss the following and write about it in your own words in 5-6 lines.

Question 1.
Discuss the following and write about it in your own words in 5-6 lines.
(a) What would you do, if something like this happens to you?
(b) What opinion do you form about Mathilde’s husband from lier story?
(c) Which events in the story (Part I and Part II) changed Mathilde’s life?
Answer:
(Use the following points to write your answers.)
(a) Points:

• would go to friend and explain-
• would ask for time to return the money for the necklace –
• since friend rich, she may have accepted the idea.)

(b) Points:

• Husband
• good – kind – supportive
• considerate – a very nice human being.

(c) Points :

• Invitation to party – borrowing the necklace
• losing the necklace – returning the necklace by borrowing money

Language study:

7. Read the table of verb forms given below.

Question 1.
Read the table of verb forms given below.

The base form is used as an infInitive: You may go. She will go.
in orders: Go home. and in the simple present tense: I go to school. We go
home. Do you go there every day? The children/They go up, etc.
Note that we use the ‘-s form’ with ‘he’, ‘she’, ‘it’, third-person singular subjects to show the simple present.
The past tense form has ‘-ed’ at the end. But many commonly used verbs have different past tense forms. Examples: Came, went, spoke.
. The ‘-ing’ form is known as the present participle. It is used with forms of ‘be’ to show continuous action – Examples: I am eating. You were eating. She was eating.
It is also used in certain constructions like He sat copying a manuscript.

The past participle used with forms of ‘have’ shows completed action – Examples: I have eaten. They have come, etc.
It is also used in certain constructions like ‘They looked at each other, stunned!’
It is also used in passive constructions. We will learn about ‘passive voice’ later.

Make a table of verb forms for your own reference. Try to arrange the verbs in alphabetical order. Keep adding new verbs to your table from time to time. When you write, check your work to see whether you have used the correct verb form.

Question 1.
Read the different following information about different forms of verbs:
Answer:
1. The base form is used as an infinitive: You may go. She will go.
In orders: Go home. And in simple present tense: I go to school. We go home. Do you go there every day? The children/They go up, etc.

2. Note that we use the e-s form’ with ‘he’, ‘she’, ‘it’, third person singular subjects to show
the simple present.

3. The past tense form has ‘-ed’ at the end. But many commonly used verbs have different past tense forms. Examples: came, went, spoke.

4. The ‘-ing’ form is known as the present participle. It is used with forms of ‘be’ to show continuous action – Examples: I am eating. You were eating. She was eating. It is also used in certain constructions like : He sat copying a manuscript.

5. The past participle used with forms of ‘have’ shows completed action.
Examples: I have eaten. They have come, etc.
It is also used in certain constructions like ‘They looked at each other, stunned!’

My English Coursebook 9th Class Solutions Chapter 1.5 The Necklace Additional Important Questions and Answers

Read the following passage and do the activities :

Simple Factual Activities :

Question 1.
Say whether the following statements are True or False :
Answer:

1. Mathilde was married to a big officer at the Ministry of Education. – False
2. Mathilde’s former schoolmate was very rich. – True
3. Mathilde had rich dresses, jewels and everything that she loved. – False
4. Mathilde was happy with the invitation brought by her husband – False

Question 2.
Who said to whom? Complete the table :
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

Dialogue	Who said	To whom
1. “Here’s something for you.”	Mathilde’s husband	Mathilde
2. “What do you want me to do with that?”	Mathilde	Mathilde’s husband

Question 3.
What did the envelope hold?
Answer:
The envelope held an invitation from the Minister of Education and Mme. Georges Rampouneau to Mr and Mrs. Loisel.

Question 4.
State whether the following statements ) are True or False :
Answer:

1. Mathilde’s husband suggested her to wear the dress she wore when she went to the theatre. – True
2. Mathilde was upset for three days because she had no good dress to wear. – False
3. Mathilde was ready to wear flowers. – False
4. She demanded four hundred francs for her dress. – True

Question 5.
Write who said it and to whom :
“But I don’t know what you like.”
Answer:
Madame Forestier said this to Mathilde.

Question 6.
Choose the correct option from the brackets and complete the sentences :
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. Mathilde went to Madame Forestier. (The jeweller/Madame Forestier)
2. Madame Forestier took out a large box from her mirrored wardrobe. (large box/necklace)
3. Mathilde tried on the jewellery in the mirror. (dress/jewellery)
4. Mathilde discovered a diamond necklace in Madame Forestier’s large box. (a black satin box/a diamond necklace)

Question 7.
What did Madame Forestier’s large box contain?
Answer:
Madame Forestier’s large box contained bracelets, necklaces and other jewellery.

Question 8.
Complete the following sentences using the information given in the passage:
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. Mathilde was floating in a cloud of happiness.
2. Both, husband and wife left at about four o’clock in the morning.
3. In front of the mirror Mathilde took a final look at herself in all her glory.
4. She no longer had the necklace round her neck.

Question 9.
Who said it and to whom :

Question a.
“I no longer have Madame Forestier’s necklace.”
Answer:
Mathilde said this to her husband.

Question 10.
Complete the following sentences with the information given in the passage :
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. She remained in her ball dress all night, her mind blank.
2. At the end of one week they had lost all hope.
3. The husband and wife were sick with grief and anguish.
4. Mr. Loisel said, “We must consider how to replace the jewel.”

Question 11.
Who said this to whom :
1. “I might have needed it.”
2. “Don’t sell it for three days.”
Answer:
1. Madame Forestier said this to Mathilde.
2. Mr. Loisel and Mathilde said to the jeweler.

Question 12.
Say if the following statements are True or False:
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. Madame Forestier was rather angry with Mathilde for returning the necklace late. – True
2. A string of diamonds they found at Palais Royal was worth thirty-six thousand francs. – False
3. The new necklace cost them thirty- four thousand francs. – False
4. Mr Loisel borrowed money from every type of money-lender. – True

Question 13.
Complete the sentences using the information from the passage :
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. At the end of ten years, they had paid off everything.
2. How little is needed for one to be ruined or saved!
3. Mathilde played her part heroically.
4. She came to know the drudgery of housework.

Question 14.
Answer the following questions :

Question a.
Who is Madame Loisel?
Answer:
Madame Loisel is Mathilde.

Question b.
What work did Mathilde’s husband do for a tradesman?
Answer:
Mathilde’s husband did accounts for a tradesman.

Question 15.
Say whether the following statements are True or False:
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. Madame Forestier recognised her dear friend immediately. _ False
2. Madame Forestier still looked young, beautiful and charming. – True
3. It had taken them ten years to pay for the imitation diamond neclace. – True
4. The imitation was not worth five hundred francs at most! – False

Complex Factual Activities :

Question 1.
Complete the following :
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

Question 2.
Why was Mathilde married to a minor official’?
Answer:
Mathilde was a pretty, charming girl but was born in a family of clerks. This had decided her future. Because of her ill-fate she had to marry a ‘minor official’.

Question 3.
Why did Mathilde weep with misery after visiting her schoolmate?
Answer:
Mathilde wept with misery after visiting her schoolmate because she couldn’t get the riches and the luxurious life in which the schoolmate was relishing. She dreamt of all those things her friend was enjoying. She herself could not have them because of her destiny.

Question 4.
Mathilde was sad, restless and anxious though her dress was ready because ….
Answer:
Mathilde was sad, restless and anxious though her dress was ready because she had no jewels, she had not a single precious stone to wear. She almost had decided not to go to the party.

Question 5.
Mathilde’s husband turned pale because….
Answer:
Mathilde’s husband turned pale because he had been saving the exact amount demanded by Mathilde to buy a gun for a hunting summer, in the country near Nanterre. He would lose his opportunity for buying dress for Mathilde.

Question 6.
Write the following sentences in order of their occurrence :
1. Her friend put a large box of jewellery before Mathilde.
2. She fled home with her treasure.
3. Mathilde went to Madame Forestier.
4. She discovered a diamond necklace.
Answer:
3. Mathilde went to Madame Forestier.
1. Her friend put a large box of jewellery before Mathilde.
4. She discovered a diamond necklace.
2. She fled home with her treasure.

Question 7.
Which sentences tell us that Mathilde greatly desired the necklace?
Answer:
The Sentences: Her heart began to beat with uncontrolled desire. Her hands trembled as she took it. She stood lost in ecstasy as she looked at herself in the mirror. She asked her friend anxiously, “Would you lend me this, just this?”

Question 8.
Complete the web :
Answer:

Question 9.
Describe the efforts made by the couple to find the lost necklace:
Answer:
They looked in the folds of Mathilde’s dress, in the folds of her cloak, in her pockets, everywhere. Mr. Loisel walked over the whole route they had walked to find the necklace. He went to the police station, to the newspapers to offer a reward, to the cab companies and everywhere they expected to find the necklace but found nothing.

Question 10.
Complete the web
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

Question 11.
How did life of Mathilde change after the horrible incident?
Answer:
Mathilde’s life was completely changed. She dismissed her maid and did extremely unpleasant labours in the kitchen. She washed the dishes, the dirty linen, she carried the garbage down to the street every morning, carried up the water and dressed like a common woman. She had to bargain at markets, quarrel and face insults over every miserable sou. She lived the horrible life of the very poor.

Question 12.
Arrange the following sentences in order of their occurence:
1. Mathilde tells Madame Forestier about her hard time and miseries.
2. Madame Forestier tells that the necklace was an imitation.
3. Madame Forestier did not recognise Mathilde because she was completely changed.
4. Mathilde met Madame Forestier in the Champs Elysees on Sunday.
Answer:
4. Mathilde met Madame Forestier in the Champs Elysees on Sunday.
3. Madame Forestier did not recognise Mathilde because she was completely changed.
1. Mathilde tells Madame Forestier about her hard time and miseries.
2. Madame Forestier tells that the necklace was an imitation.

Activities based on vocabulary:

Question 1.
Match the words in Column ‘A’ with their meaning in Column ‘B’ :

‘A’	‘B’
1. aristocrat	(a) destiny
2. fate	(b) great success
3. shabby	(c) nobleman
4. triumph	(d) nearly worn out

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
1. aristocrat	(c) nobleman
2. fate	(a) destiny
3. shabby	(d) nearly worn out
4. triumph	(b) great success

Question 2.
Write any four words from the passage that show the feeling of great pain:
Answer:
regret, despair, misery and tormented.

Question 3.
Write English terms that stand for the French terms Monsieur and Mme:
Answer:
Mr and Mrs.

Question 4.
Write the long forms of the following contracted forms:

1. Let’s
2. don’t
3. hadn’t
4. what’s.

Answer:

1. Let us
2. do not
3. had not
4. what is.

Question 5.
Write four words from the passage that reflect (show) that the person is in difficult situation.
Answer:
stammered, stunned, distressed, stuttered.

Question 6.
Fill in the blanks with proper letters so as to find the words: (Answers are directly given.)
Answer:
1. the objects such as rings, necklaces, etc. that

2. a large cupboard for hanging clothes.

3. a piece of ornament consisting of chain of beads, diamonds, etc. worn around the neck =

4. a strong wish to have something =

Question 7.
Write any four adjectives from the passage.
Answer:
elegant, gracious, smiling, panic-stricken.

Question 8.
Write any four adverbs with ‘-ly’ from the passage.
Answer:
wildly, fmally, sadly, suddenly.

Question 9.
Which words from the passage are related with ‘success’?
Answer:
full of joy, triumph, cloud of happiness, glory.

Question 10.
Write the meanings of:
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

1. glimmer of hope: a small sign of hope/success.
2. a hollow, pale figure: a person having empty mind and almost white face because of frustration and exhaustion.
3. sick with grief and anguish: mentally ill because of great sadness and pain.
4. cloak: ladies’ garment without sleeves, worn over their other clothes.

Question 11.
Find and write all the numbers mentioned in the passage :
Answer:
Forty thousand, thirty-six thousand, thirty- four thousand, eighteen thousand.

Question 12.
Write from passage the words related to money matters.
Answer:
worth, sell, borrow, notes, agreements, dealt, money-lender.

Question 13.
Write from the passage the phrases related to ‘housework’.
Answer:
Drudgery of housework, odious labours of the kitchen, washing dishes, washing dirty linen, carry the garbage, carry up the water, bargain at markets.

Question 14.
Match from the passage the adjectives in Column ‘A’ with the nouns in Column ‘B’ :

‘A’	‘B’
1. dreadful	(a) sou
2. miserable	(b) labours
3. horrible	(c) debt
4. odious	(d) life

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
1. dreadful	(c) debt
2. miserable	(a) sou
3. horrible	(d) life
4. odious	(b) labours

Question 15.
Match the words in Column ‘A’ with their meaning in Column ‘B’ :

‘A’	‘B’
1. familiarly	(a) artificial/not real
2. astonished	(b) in a friendly manner
3. imitation	(c) very surprised
4. innocent	(d) having not done anything wrong

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
1. familiarly	(b) in a friendly manner
2. astonished	(c) very surprised
3. imitation	(a) artificial/not real
4. innocent	(d) having not done anything wrong.

Question 16.
Write from the passage the verbs that end : with ‘-ed’.
Answer:
astonished, addressed, stammered, uttered, changed, stunned, smiled, moved.

Activities based on contextual grammar :

Question 1.
Find and write the adjectives from the passage for the following nouns :

1. house
2. girl
3. official
4. mansion.

Answer:

1. shabby and poorly furnished
2. pretty and charming
3. minor
4. grand and palatial.

Question 2.
He turned a little pale.
(Change the sentence into simple present Tense.)
Answer:
He turns a little pale.

Question 3.
Choose the correct option of the question tag:
I can give you four hundred francs.
(i) , can I?
(ii) , don’t I?
(iii) , can’t I?
(iv) , couldn’t I?
Answer:
I can give you four hundred francs, can’t I?

Question 4.
She replied,” I am upset that I have no jewels.” (Choose the correct option to transform it into Reported speech.)
a. She replied that I was upset that I had no jewels.
b. She replied that she is upset that she has no jewels.
c. She replied she was upset that she has no jewels.
d. She replied that she was upset that she had no jewels.
Answer:
c. She replied she was upset that she has no jewels.

Question 5.
Choose the correct wh-question from the alternatives to get the underlined part as an answer:
She discovered, in a black satin box, a diamond necklace.
(a) What did she discover in a black satin box?
(b) When did she discover a diamond necklace in a black satin box?
(c) Where did she discover a diamond necklace?
(d) Why did she discover a diamond necklace?
Answer:
(c) Where did she discover a diamond necklace?

Question 6.
Write the following sentence in simple present tense:
She threw her arms around her friend’s neck.
Answer:
She throws her arms around her friend’s neck.

Question 7.
Find the determiners from the following sentences and underline them :
(Answers are directly underlined.)
Answer:
1. They were dropped off at their door in the Rue des Martyrs.
2. Forgetting everything in the triumph of her beauty.

Question 8.
Do as directed :

1. She took a final look at herself. (Write simple present tense form for the underlined word.)
2. The day of the party arrived. (Rewrite the sentence using simple future tense.)
3. She danced wildly (Use past progressive tense and rewrite the sentence.)

Answer:

1. She takes a final look at herself.
2. The day of the party will arrive.
3. She was dancing wildly.

Question 9.
It was worth forty thousand francs.
(Use ‘They’ in place of ‘It’ and rewrite the correct sentence.)
Answer:
They were worth forty thousand francs.

Question 10.
He went to get the new necklace. (Rewrite the sentence using simple present tense for the underlined verb.)
Answer:
He goes to get the new necklace.

Question 11.
Change the following sentences in passive voice :
1. They dismissed their maid.
2. They rented a garret under the roof.
Answer:
1. Their maid was dismissed by them.
2. A garret under the roof was rented by them.

Question 12.
How strange life is!
(Make it an assertive sentence,)
Answer:
Life is very strange.

Question 13.
Complete the table with the correct forms of the given verbs.
Answer:

Do as directed :

Question 1.
1. She had no rich dresses : (Make the sentence affirmative without changing the meaning.)
2. These were the only things she loved. (Make the sentence negative without changing the meaning.)
Answer:
1. She had poor dresses.
2. She loved nothing but (except) these things.

Question 2.
They could not find it.
(Begin with It could not… and change the voice.)
Answer:
It could not be found by them.

Question 3.
He said to Mathilde, “Tell her you have broken the clasp of the necklace.”
(Change into Indirect speech.)
Answer:
He told Mathilde to tell her she had broken the clasp of the necklace.

Question 4.
Use simple present tense form and rewrite the following sentences :

Question a.
He went to the police station.
Answer:
He goes to the police station.

Question b.
They lost all hope.
Answer:
They lose all hope.

Question 5.
How you’ve changed!
(Make an assertive sentence.)
Answer:
You’ve completely changed,

Question 6.
They were similar.
(Make it negative without changing meaning.)
Answer:
They were not different.

Question 7.
I am Mathilde Loisel.
(Choose correct Question Tag,)
(i) , am I?
(ii) , amn’t I?
(iii) , aren’t I?
(iv) , don’t I?
Answer:
(iii) , aren’t I?

Question 8.
Fill in the table with correct verb forms.
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

base form	Past tense	Past participle
bring	brought	brought
see	saw	seen
feel	felt	felt
sing	sang	sung

Personal Response:

Question 1.
What do you feel when you receive an invitation for a party? Why?
Answer:
When I receive an invitation for a party, I feel very happy because we get to meet our friends and relatives at the party and we can spend some time rejoicing. We also get to eat tasty food in the party.

Question 2.
Was Mathilde’s husband a considerate person? How do you know that?
Answer:
Mathilde’s husband was really a very considerate person. Though his wife was obstinate and stubborn, he tried to fulfill all her unreasonable wishes. He sacrificed his own hunting joy and gave his savings to please Mathilde. This shows that he was a very considerate person.

Question 3.
Mathilde asked her friend, “Would you lend me this, just this?”
Why, do you think, did Mathilde say ‘just this’?
Answer:
I think, Mathilde was fully satisfied with the diamond necklace she got. It looked beautiful in her neck as she had desired. So she did not want anything else except that diamond necklace and so she insisted to lend her that and only that necklace.

Question 4.
Why, do you think, did Mathilde not notice the loss of her necklace?
Answer:
I think, she was thinking only about the triumph of her beauty and success in the party. She had lost her attention towards her necklace. Secondly, they left the party early in the morning, could not find a cab and had to walk for a long distance. This also must be the cause of the distraction.

Question 5.
Do you think, the arrangement made by Mr Loisel with the jeweller, was fair? Give your reason:
Answer:
Yes I think the arrangement was fair. According to the arrangement the jeweller would take the necklace back for thirty-four thousand if the other (the lost) necklace was found before the end of February. It would help them to get some more time to find the necklace and again they would ; be losing only two thousand francs instead of thirty- 5 six thousand.

Question 6.
Why does Madame Forestier speak coldly to Mathilde?
Answer:
Mathilde returned the necklace after so many days. Madame Forestier did not like it and was angry with Mathilde. It is the usual tradition to return the borrowed things immediately after the work is done, but Mathilde did not do it. By speaking coldly Madame Forestier expresssed her anger and displeasure.

Question 7.
What is meant by the horrible life of the very poor?
Answer:
The horrible life of the poor means a very tiring, bad, unpleasant and painful life. The poor are the people who live a miserable life with very little or no money at all. They have no money to satisfy their day-to-day basic needs. They have to work hard all the day to make both ends meet. Mathilde experienced this horrible life of the poor for saving money to clear the debt.

Question 8.
Write what you think about the following thought and action of Mathilde :
Mathilde told her friend about the lost necklace.
Answer:
Mathilde was now a relieved person. Though it was her fault, she must have thought that she should tell the truth to her friend and tell her how she struggled for ten long years that made her look old.

Question 9.
Who do you think was responsible for Mathilde’s misery? Was it her friend, she herself, her husband or the circumstances?
Answer:
It was Mathilde who was mainly responsible for her misery. Her wilfulness and obstinate behaviour were the root cause of the disastrous incident. She borrowed the necklace and lost it and that led to her misery. Her friend and her husband were, in no way, responsible for it. Of course the circumstances, to some extent too are responsible for it.

Oral Work:

Question 1.
Read the conversations in the story aloud using proper intonation.

Writing Skill:

Question 1.
Prepare a formal invitation using the format given on the textbook page no. 27.
Answer:

Activities Based on Language study

Do as directed!

Question 1.
Complete the words by using correct letters :

1. o _ h e r
2. y o _ n g
3. p _ o u d
4. s p e _ k

Answer:

1. o t h e r
2. y o u n g
3. p r o u d
4. s p e a k

Question 2.
Copy the following sentences correctly in your notebook :
Answer:
1. He said,” Here’s something for you!”
2. “What’s the matter? Let’s see, Mathilde.”

Question 3.
Put the following words in alphabetical order:
1. glory, street, amount, pleasure.
2. mansion, mirror, mutter, matter.
Answer:
1. amount, glory, pleasure, street.
2. mansion, matter, mirror, mutter.

Question 4.
Punctuate the following sentences :
1. you could wear flowers he said they are very fashionable at this time of year
2. what is the matter asked her husband
Answer:
1. “You could wear flowers,” he said,
“They are very fashionable at this time of year.”
2. “What is the matter?” asked her husband.

Question 5.
Write four small words (minimum letters each) using the letters in the given word:
‘schoolmate’ :
Answer:

1. school
2. come
3. late
4. home.

Question 7.
Write related words as shown in the example :
(Answers are directly given.)
Answer:

Question 8.
Complete the following word-chain withing for.m. Add four words, each beginning with the last letter of the previous word:
going → ………………. →……………. →…………… → ………….. .
Answer:
going → growing → gaining → guarding → grumbling.

Question 9.
Make your own meaningful sentence by using the phrase ‘to be aware of’.
Answer:
We should be aware of the consequences of bad habits.

Question 10.
Add a prefix or suffix to make new words. and use any one of the root words in your own sentence:
1. annoy
2. exhaust
Answer:
1. annoyance
2. exhaustion
Sentence: There is no need to exhaust yourself for such a petty job.

Question 11.
Add a clause to expand the sentence meaningfully:
I don’t remember ………………………………… .
Answer:
I don’t remember when I met him last.