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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Part 1 Chapter Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 8 Question Answer How Seasons Occur Part 2 Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Complete the statements using correct options:

How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Question 1.
The apparent movement of the sun means that ________.
(a) the sun revolves around the earth in a year.
(b) it appears that the sun moves to the north or south in a year.
(c) the earth keeps on changing its position.
Answer:
(b) it appears that the sun moves to the north or south in a year.

How Seasons Occur Part 2 Question 2.
If the axis of the earth were not tilted ________.
(a) the earth would not have rotated around , itself.
(b) the earth would have revolved around the sun with greater velocity.
(c) different parallels on the earth would have experienced the same climate throughout the year.
Answer:
(c) different parallels on the earth would have experienced the same climate throughout the year.

How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 3.
21sl June and 22nd December are solstice days, that is ________.
(a) the sun starts its southward journey from Tropic of Cancer on 21st June and Northward journey from Tropic of Capricon on 22nd December.
(b) the Dakshinayan of the sun takes place between 21st June and 22nd December.
(c) the Uttarayan of the earth takes place between 22nd December and 21st June.
Answer:
(a) the sun starts its southward journey from Tropic of Cancer on 21st June and Northward journey from Tropic of Capricon on 22nd December.

How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Class 7 Answers Question 4.
The revolution of the earth around the Sun and the tilt of the axis of the earth together are responsible for the ______.
(a) summer, rainy season, retreat of monsoon, winter.
(b) summer, winter and spring.
(c) summer and winter.
Answer:
(c) summer and winter.

2. Answer the following questions:

How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Questions And Answers Question 1.
What leads to the occurrence of seasons?
Answer:
(i) Seasons occur due to the revolution of the earth.
(ii) Seasons also occur due to the tilt of the earth’s axis of rotation.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Question 2.
What is the duration of the day on equinox?
Answer:
(i) The circle of illumination divides all the parallels from the north pole to the south pole equally.
(ii) Everywhere on the earth, the night time and day time are of equal duration. This condition is called equinox.
(iii) Thus, the duration of the day will be twelve hours on equinox.

How Seasons Occur – Part 1 Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Why is the effect of the seasons not experienced in the equatorial region?
Answer:
(i) Seasons have been decided on the basis of the duration of sunlight, equinoxes & solstices
(i) The equatorial region receives perpendicular sunray almost throughout the year.
(ii) Hence the climate of that region does not change at all in the year.
(iii) Hence the effect of the seasons is not experienced in the equatorial region.

How Seasons Occur – Part 1 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Why is the sun visible for more than 24 hours during Dakshinayan in the region between the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole?
Answer:
(i) Sunrays are never perpendicular on any of the parallels between Tropic of Cancer & the North pole or between Tropic of Capricorn & the South pole.
(ii) In the period from 23rd September to 21st March (Dakshinayan) the region between Antarctic circle and the south faces the sun. The whole of Antarctic Circle falls within the zone of illumination.
(iii) So the sun is visible in the sky for more than 24 hours.

Geography Class 7 How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Question 5.
Why are penguins not found at the North Pole?
Answer:
(i) The living world on the earth is affected by the cycle of seasons.
(ii) Penguins are native to south pole. Penguins have adapted to the natural conditions prevailing in the Antarctic regions of the south pole.
(iii) Besides predators like polar bears roam within the Arctic Circle. Hence penguins are found at the South pole & not at the North pole.

3. Rewrite the following statements after correcting them:

Question 1.
The earth’s velocity varies according to the period of revolution.
Answer:
The earth’s velocity varies due to the rotation of the earth.

Question 2.
If we observe from the northern hemisphere we see the apparent movement of the sun.
Answer:
We see the apparent movement of the sun from both the northern & southern hemispheres.

Question 3.
The dates of equinox change every year.
Answer:
The dates of equinox does not change every year. They vary by a day or so.

Question 4.
North Canada experiences summer from September to March.
Answer:
North Canada experience winter from September to March.

Question 5.
When it is summer in South Africa, Australia has winter.
Answer:
When it is summer in South Africa, Australia has summer.

Question 6.
Duration of daytime is less on the vernal and autumnal equinoxes.
Answer:
On the vernal (spring) equinox and autumnal equinox, day and night time are of the same duration.

4. Spot the error in the diagram given below:

Answer:
Spring Equinox – 21st March
Summer Solstice – 21st June
Winter Solstice – 22nd December

5. Draw a diagram showing the cycle of seasons in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:

ICT Question :

Question 1.
Using the internet sites or a calendar, find and note the duration of the day for specific dates between 22nd March and 23rd September. Calculate the duration of the nights too. Using this information draw a compound bar graph.
Question 2.
Draw a diagram of aphelion and perihelion positions of the earth on the computer.

Activity:

Using the internet, collect pictorial information of any four migratory birds/animals.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell:

Figure shows the position of the earth with its tilted axis on 21st June and 22nd December. It also shows its illuminated and dark positions. Observe the figure and answer the following.

Question 1.
In fig ‘A which pole is receiving sunlight?
Answer:
North Pole is receiving sunlight in Fig ‘A’

Question 2.
In fig ‘B’ which pole is not receiving sunlight?
Answer:
North Pole is not receiving sunlight in Fig. ‘B’

Question 3.
Which hemisphere has the longest daytime on 21st June?
Answer:
Northern hemisphere has the longest daytime on 21st June.

Question 4.
Which hemisphere will have the longest night on 22nd December?
Answer:
Northern hemisphere will have the largest night in 22nd December.

Question 5.
On which date will the Tropic of Cancer receive perpendicular sunrays?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer will receive perpendicular sunrays on 21st June.

Question 6.
Considering the position of the north pole, which season will prevail in the northern hemisphere from 22nd March to 23rd September?
Answer:
Summer season will prevail in the northern hemisphere from 22nd March to 23rd September.

Question 7.
The cricket matches in Australia are generally in summer, when does Australia have summer?
Answer:
Summer season prevails in Australia from 23rd September to 21st March.

Question 8.
In which period is the ‘midnight sun’ observable in Norway? Which season will there be at that time?
Answer:
Midnight sun is observable in Norway from 21st March to 23rd September. It will be summer in Norway that time.

Question 9.
At what time will the midnight sun be visible at the “Bharati Research Station” of India at Antarctica? What will be the season there at that time?
Answer:
The midnight sun will be visible at Bharati Research Station of India at Antarctica from 23rd September to 21st March. It will be summer season there.

Use your brain power:

Question 1.
The summer capital of Jammu & Kashmir is Srinagar while the winter capital is Jammu. What could be the reason?
Answer:
(i) Jammu is located in the southern part of the state of Jammu & Kashmir whereas Srinagar is located to its north.

(ii) Also Jammu is located at an altitude of 350m whereas Srinagar is located at an altitude of approximately 1500m.

(iii) So Jammu has higher temperature in summer as compared to Srinagar. As Srinagar has pleasant climate in summer, it acts as summer capital of the state.

(iv) As winters are not very cold in Jammu & it is early accessible, it acts as a winter capital of the state.

Question 2.
While India & England are located in the same hemisphere why are the cricket matches in these two countries arranged in different months?
Answer:
(i) As India is a tropical country summers temperature are very high. England on the other hand falls in the temperate zone which has mild summers. Hence, England is suitable for cricket matches in summer.

(ii) As England lies in the temperate zone it her very cold winters. India on the other hand has mild winters as it is a tropical country. Thus India is suitable for cricket matches in winters. Hence, although India & England are located in the same hemisphere, due to latitudinal differences, the cricket matches in these two countries are arranged in different months.

Question 3.
On 21st March and 23rd September, daytime and night time are same all over the earth. But why do some parts experience summer and some winter on the these days?
Answer:
(i) If the earth’s axis were not tilted, the same climatic conditions would have prevailed on each of the different parallels throughout the year.

(ii) The seasons would not have occurred. It is due to the tilt of the earth’s axis that some parts of the earth experience summer and some winter on these days.

Question 4.
Mention any two countries in the world where one needs woollen clothing in the month of May. Also mention their latitudinal positions.
Answer:
South Africa is on 23°S latitude.
Iceland is on 65°N latitude.

Question 5.
On equinox days, the two poles experience either sunrise or sunset. On which pole will it be sunrise on 21st March?
Answer:
Sunrise will be experienced on the North pole.

Think about it:

Question 1.
In which direction will the location of sunrise and sunset appear to move after 22nd of December?
Answer:
On 22nd December the sun reaches the southernmost position as seen from the earth. The sun seems to stand still at the Tropic of Capricon and then reverses its direction. The sun appears to move northwards after 22nd December.

Observe Fig of textbook page 47 carefully & answer:

Question 2.
positioned relative to the sun on the dates given in the figure?
Answer:
(i) The northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun in the period between 21st March is 23rd September. Hence, northern hemisphere experiences summer season.

(ii) It is tilted away from the sun in the period between 23rd September to 21st March. Hence, northern hemisphere experiences winter season.

Question 3.
Which season will you experience in the northern hemisphere around 22nd December?
Answer:
We will experience Winter season in the northern hemisphere around 22nd December.

Question 4.
What would be the season in the northern hemisphere around 21st June?
Answer:
It will be Summer season in the northern hemisphere around 21st June.

Question 5.
If it is winter in the northern hemisphere which season will it be in opposite hemisphere?
Answer:
If it is winter in the northern hemisphere, the southern hemisphere will experience summer season.

Question 6.
At any given point of time why are the season in the northern and southern hemisphere different?
Answer:
(i) Regardless of the time of the year, the northern and southern hemisphere experience opposite seasons.

(ii) In the period from 21st March to 23rd September the northern hemisphere is exposed to more direct sunlight because this hemisphere faces the sun.

(iii) In the period from 23rd September to 21st March the southern hemisphere is exposed to more direct sunlight.

(iv) It is the tilt of the Earth that causes the difference in the seasons.

Question 7.
What effects do the seasons have on the biodiversity in India? Write briefly about it:
Answer:
(i) The living world on the earth is affected by the cycle of seasons.

(ii) Change in seasons cause immense biodiversity loss, affecting both individual species and their ecosystem that support economic growth and human well being.

(iii) Greater frequency and severity of heat waves and extreme weather is a threat to the survival of mankind and animals too.

(iv) Floral and animal activity variation depends on seasonal temperature variation with different species flowering at specific times before or after monsoon seasons.

(v) Any change in rainfall pattern poses a threat to agriculture.

Give it a try:

Question 1.
Regarding daytime & the cycle of season, what conditions would have prevailed at the following place, if the earth’s axis were not tilled? (Canada, Tasmania, Nigeria, West Indies, Peru, Borneo)
Answer:

• Effect on day & night time: If the earth’s axis were not titled the duration of day time & night time would have been equal throughout the year.
• Effect on seasons: There would be no seasonal change on the earth.
• Canada and Tasmania would experience winter throughout the year as they are located near the poles.
• West Indies, Peru, Nigeria, Borneo would experience summer throughout the year as they are located near the equator.

Can you tell:

Discuss the activity you have been carrying out since June (Refer ch. 1) make use of the observation tables for the months of June, September & December.

Question 1.
In which month the duration of the day was around 12 hours?
Answer:
The duration of the day was around 12 hours in the month of September.

Question 2.
What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
The duration of day is 12 hours in the month of September because both the hemispheres of the earth are at equal distance from the sun & the equator receives perpendicular rays of the sun.

Question 3.
Bring out the differences between the duration of daytime in the months of June, September & December.
Answer:
The duration of day is around 13 hours in the month of June. It decreases to around 12 hours in the month of September. It is around 11 hours in the month of December.

Question 4.
What could be the reason for the change in the shadow of the stick?
Answer:
There is a change in the shadow of the stick because there is a change in position of the sunrise & sunset.

Question 5.
What did you observe about the position of the sun at the horizon at the time of sunrise & sunset?
Answer:
(i) After 21st June the position of the sun at the horizon at the time of sunrise & sunset shifted southwards.
(ii) After 22nd December the position of the sun at the horizon at the time of sunrise & sunset shifted north wards.

Question 6.
Which of the following factors could be related with the change in the position of the shadow of the stick & the difference in the duration of daytime?
(i) Rotation of the earth
(ii) Distance between the earth & the sun
(iii) Revolution of the earth.
(iv) The axis of the earth.
Answer:
(i) Revolution of the earth
(ii) The axis of the earth.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The position of the sun at sunrise, appears to change on the ______ everyday.
Answer:
horizon

Question 2.
_______ occurs only with reference to the northern and the southern hemispheres.
Answer:
Seasons

Question 3.
The path of the revolution of the earth around the sun is ______.
Answer:
elliptical

Question 4.
As the earth revolves around the sun, its perpendicular rays fall on the _____ twice a year.
Answer:
equator

Question 5.
In the northern hemisphere prevails from 21st March to 21st June, while ______ prevails from 23rd September to 22nd December.
Answer:
spring, autumn

Question 6.
________ is the longest day and has the shortest night in the northern hemisphere.
Answer:
21st June

Question 7.
_____ marks the longest day and the shortest night in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:
22nd December

Question 8.
On the _____ the duration of day and night is the same throughout the year.
Answer:
equator

Question 9.
The occurrence of seasons one after the other leads to the ______.
Answer:
cycle of seasons

Question 10.
Agricultural seasons also depend on the local ________ conditions.
Answer:
climatic

Question 11.
Continuous, occurrence of rain in a specific period gives rise to additional _______ besides summer and winter.
Answer:
season

Question 12.
On _____ and ______ day time and night time are same all over the earth.
Answer:
21st March, 23rd September

Question 13.
The period in which the position of the rising sun keeps moving towards the south is called _______.
Answer:
Dakshinayan

Question 14.
The period in which the position of the rising sun keeps moving towards the north is called _______.
Answer:
Uttarayan

Question 15.
In the northern hemisphere 23rd September is called ____ equinox.
Answer:
Autumnal

Complete the following sentence:

Question 1.
The movement of the sun towards the north or south in a year is called ________.
Answer:
the apparent movement of the sun

Question 2.
Seasons occur only with reference to _______.
Answer:
the northern and the southern hemisphere

Question 3.
The diurnal apparent movement of the sun is related to _______.
Answer:
the rotation of the earth

Question 4.
The annual apparent movement of the sun is related to ______.
Answer:
the revolution of the earth and the tilt of earth’s axis

Question 5.
In the first week of July, the earth is at _______.
Answer:
the farthest point from the sun.

Question 6.
The circle of illumination1 divides ______.
Answer:
all the parallels from the north pole to the south pole equally.

Question 7.
In the northern hemisphere, spring prevails ______.
Answer:
from 21st March to 21st June.

Question 8.
In the northern hemisphere, autumn prevails ______.
Answer:
from 23rd September to 22nd December.

Question 9.
Only on 21st June and 22nd December, the sun rays become _____.
Answer:
perpendicular on the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricon respectively

Question 10.
Seasons have been decided on the basis of _________.
Answer:
the duration of sunlight, equinoxes and solstices

Question 11.
The living world on the earth is affected by ________.
Answer:
the cycle of seasons.

Question 12.
Continuous occurrence of rain in a specific period gives rise to _____.
Answer:
an additional season besides summer and winter.

Complete the statements using the correct options:

Question 1.
In the course of one year, Arctic tern has to travel in search of food.
(a) around 50,000 km.
(b) around 70,000 km.
(c) around 90,000 km.
Answer:
(b) around 70,000 km.

Question 2.
Due to severe winter and lack of food, Siberian cranes from the cold northern regions visit India travelling around
(a) 8 to 10 thousand kilometers.
(b) 10 to 12 thousand kilometers.
(c) 12 to 14 thousand kilometers.
Answer:
(a) 8 to 10 thousand kilometers.

Question 3.
The two Poles experience either sunrise or sunset on
(a) Solstice days.
(b) Equinox days.
(c) Dakshinayan.
Answer:
(b) Equinox days.

Question 4.
The diurnal apparent movement of the sun is related to
(a) the revolution of the earth.
(b) rotation of the earth.
(c) tilt of the earth’s axis.
Answer:
(b) rotation of the earth

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the apparent movement of the sun?
Answer:
The movement of the sun towards the north or south in a year is called the apparent movement of the sun.

Question 2.
What is Equinox?
Answer:
On 21st March and 23rd September, the north pole and the south pole are at the same distance from the earth due to which the daytime & night time are of equal duration every where on earth. This is called Equinox.

Question 3.
How have seasons been decided?
Answer:
Seasons have been decided on the basis of the duration of sunlight, equinoxes and solstices.

Question 4.
Name the four seasons of Europe and North America.
Answer:
The four seasons in Europe and North America are summer, autumn, winter and spring.

Question 5.
Which living creatures are found in the Antarctic region?
Answer:
Birds like penguins, fish like seal and animals like walruses are found in the Antarctic region.

Question 6.
Which animals are found in the polar region of the northern hemisphere?
Answer:
In the polar region of the northern hemisphere animals like reindeer, polar bears, Arctic foxes, etc are found.

Question 7.
What are the factors that influence the seasons?
Answer:
The changes in the atmosphere, vapour in the air, the wind and the precipitation influence the seasons.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Dakshinayan?
Answer:
The period in which (from 21st June to 22nd December) the position of the rising sun keeps on moving towards the south is called as Dakshinayan.

Question 9.
What is Uttarayan?
Answer:
The period in which (from 22nd December to 21st June) the position of the rising sun keeps on moving towards the north is called as Uttarayan.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is called perihelion position of the earth?
Answer:

• As the earth moves in an ellipse, its distance from the sun does not remain the same.
•  It is at its minimum distance in the first week of January.
• This is called the perihelion position of the earth.

Question 2.
What is called aphelion position of the earth.
Answer:

• In the first week of July, the earth is at the farthest point from the sun.
• This is called the aphelion position.

Question 3.
What is called circle of illumination?
Answer:

• The illuminated and dark portions of all the parallels including the equator is called circle of illumination.
• It divides all the parallels from the north pole to the south pole equally.

Question 4.
What are Solstice days?
Answer:

• Solstice days are the days when the earth’s tilt towards the sun is at its maximum.
• On 21st June the northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun and the Tropic of Cancer starts receiving perpendicular rays of the sun.
• On 22nd December the Southern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun & the Tropic of Capricorn starts receiving perpendicular rays of the sun.
• These two days are called solstice days.

Question 5.
Draw the diagram showing the Aphelion and perihelion position:
Answer:

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Air Pressure Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Geography Chapter 4 Question Answer Air Pressure Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Air Pressure Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Air Pressure Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Give reasons:

Question 1.
Air pressure decreases with increasing altitude.
Answer:

• The proportion of dust in the air, water vapour, heavy gases, etc. is higher in the air and closer to the surface of the earth.
• This proportion decreases with increasing altitude.
• As one moves higher and higher from the surface of the earth, the air becomes thinner and thinner.
• As a result, the air pressure decreases with increasing altitude.

Question 2.
Pressure belts oscillate.
Answer:

• The duration and the intensity of sunrays varies during particular periods of the year in both the hemispheres.
• So, the locations of the temperature zones and the pressure belts dependent on the sun’s heat also vary.
• This change is of the order of 5° to 7° towards the north in Uttarayan1 and 5° to 7° south in Dakshinayan2.
• In this way pressure belts oscillate.

2. Give short answers to the following questions.

Question 1.
What effect does temperature have on air pressure?
Answer:

• Temperature and air pressure are closely related. Wherever the temperature is high, the air pressure is low.
• As the temperature rises, the air gets heated, expands, and becomes lighter.
• This lighter air in the vicinity of the earth’s surface starts moving up towards the sky
• As a result, the air pressure in such areas decreases.

Question 2.
Why is the subpolar low pressure belt formed?
Answer:

• Due to earth’s curvature, the area between two parallels gets reduced as we move towards the poles.
• This results in lesser friction1 of the air with the earth’s surface.
• Air in this region is thrown out because of this reduced friction and also because of the earth’s rotational motion.
• This leads to the development of a low pressure belt in the sub polar region i.e. in area between 55° & 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.

3. Write notes on:

Question 1.
Mid-latitudinal high pressure belts.
Answer:

• The heated air from the equatorial region becomes lighter, starts ascending and after reaching higher altitudes, moves towards the polar region, i.e., towards the North and the South Pole.
• Due to low temperatures at the higher altitudes, the air cools down and becomes heavier.
• This heavier air descends down in both the hemispheres in the region between 25° to 35° parallels.
• This leads to the formation of high pressures, belts in these parallels of latitudes in both the hemispheres.
• This air is dry, hence the region does not get rainfall.
• Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in these regions.

Question 2.
Horizontal distribution of air pressure.
Answer:

• The heat received from the sun is uneven in different regions.
• The distribution of temperature is uneven from the equator to the poles.
• This difference can lead to difference in air pressure.
• There are four air pressure belts formed on the earth surface.
• Equatorial low-pressure belt between 5°N and 5°S parallels as the temperature is high here.
• Mid latitudinal high-pressure belt between 25° and 35° parallels due to descending heavier air.
• Subpolar low-pressure belt formed between 55° and 65° parallels due to friction and rotation.
• Polar high-pressure belt formed between 80° and 90° parallels due to low temperatures.

4. Fill in the gaps with the appropriate option.

Question 1.
At higher altitudes air becomes ________. (thicker, thinner, hotter, more humid)
Answer:
thinner

Question 2.
Air pressure is expressed in _______ .(millibars, millimeters, milliliters, milligrams)
Answer:
millibars

Question 3.
On the earth, air pressure is _______.(uniform, uneven, high, low)
Answer:
uneven

Question 4.
The ______ pressure belt spreads between 5° North and 5° South parallel. (equatorial low, polar high, subpolar low, mid-latitudinal high)
Answer:
equatorial low

5. How does a high-pressure belt get formed near 30 ° parallel? Why does this region have hot deserts?
Answer:
(i) The heated air from the equatorial region becomes lighter, starts ascending and after reaching higher altitudes, moves towards the polar region, i.e., towards the North and the South Pole.

(ii) Due to low temperatures at the higher altitudes, the air cools down and becomes heavier. This heavier air descends down in both the hemispheres in the region between 25° to 35° parallels.

(iii) This leads to the formation of high pressures belts in these parallels of latitudes in both the hemispheres.

(iv) This air is dry, hence the region does not get rainfall. Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in these regions.

6. Draw a neat diagram showing pressure belts. Label the diagram.
Answer:

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Air Pressure InText Questions and Answers

Formative Assessment
Can you tell?

Observe the diagram Fig. (a) and (b) carefully and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which pressure belt is mainly found in the Tropics?
Answer:
Equatorial low pressure belt is mainly found in the tropics.

Question 2.
With which pressure belt are the polar winds associated? In which temperature zone are they observed?
Answer:
The polar winds are associated with polar high pressure belt and sub polar low pressure belt. It is observed in the frigid zone.

Question 3.
What could be the reason behind a low pressure belt in the Tropics?
Answer:
Low pressure belt is formed in the tropics because the temperature is high.

Question 4.
With which pressure belts are the winds in the Temperate zone associated?
Answer:
The winds in temperate zone are associated with mid latitudinal high pressure belt.

Question 5.
Write the latitudinal extent of the low pressure belts.
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of Equatorial low pressure belt is between 50°N & 50°S parallel & the latitudinal extent of the sub polar low pressure belt is between 55° & 65° parallel in both the hemispheres.

Observe the map given above and study the distribution of air pressure and answer the following

Question 1.
The nature of the isobars.
Answer:
The isobars are joining places of equal air pressure on the map.

Question 2.
High and low pressure belts and their latitudinal position.
Answer:
(i) The latitudinal position of high pressure belt is between 25° & 35° parallels and between 80° & 90° parallels in both the hemisphere
(ii) The latitudinal position of low pressure belt is between 0° & 5° parallels and between 55° & 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.

Question 3.
The direction of the isobars and the distance between successive isobars over the oceans and continents.
Answer:
(i) In the northern hemisphere most of the isobars are in southwest to north east direction over the continents. Also the distance between the isobars varies.

(ii) Closely spaced isobars indicate large pressure changes over a small area. Widely spaced isobars indicate gentle or gradual pressure change.

(iii) In the southern hemisphere, the isobars extend  in east-west direction. The distance between the isobars is fairly constant over the oceans & so the isobars are fairly parallel to each other.

Question 4.
Comparison of the isobars in the northern and the southern hemispheres.
Answer:
In the northern hemisphere the isobars are far spaced and uneven, whereas in the southern hemispheres it is closely spaced and parallel.

Use your brainpower !

Question 1.
If there is low pressure at the equator, what will be the condition of air pressure in the Arctic Zone?
Answer:
The Arctic zone will experience high pressure as the temperature is lower than 0°C.

Try this:

Question 1.

• Take a flying lantern.
• Tie an approximately 5m long thread to the flying lantern so that you can bring the lantern down whenever required.
• After carefully reading the instructions given on the package of the lantern open it and light the candle placed in it.
• After some time, bring the lantern down with the help of the thread and put off the candle.

Question 2.
Did the flying lantern start ascending immediately after the candle was lit?
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
What would have happened to the flying lantern had the candle got extinguished after the lantern had gone up in the air?
Answer:
The lantern would have fallen back on the earth.

Give it a try: 

Question 1.
Study the temperative distribution map given in your std VI textbook and the pressure distribution map in this lesson to find the correlation between air temperature and air pressure.
Answer:

• The temperature deceases continuously from the equator to the poles but the air pressure varies alternately.
• In the equatorial region the average temperature is high. Hence, the air pressure is low.
• In the polar regions, the temperature is low & hence the air pressure is comparative high.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Air Pressure Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
Pressure belts oscillates between ______ parallels. (5° to 7°, 10° to 20°, 80° and 90°, 25° to 30°)
Answer:
5° to 7°

Question 2.
The instrument used to measure air pressure is ______ .(barometer, thermometer, hygrometer, seismometer)
Answer:
barometer

Question 3.
In both the polar regions, the temperature is below ________ throughout the year. (5°C, 0°C, 7°C, 6°C)
Answer:
0°C

Question 4.
The line that joins the places of equal pressure on the map is called an _______. (isotherm, isohytes, millibars, isobar)
Answer:
isobar

Match the following:

Question 1.

A (Pressure Belt)	B (Parallels)
(1) Sub Polar low pressure (2) Mid latitudinal high pressure (3) Polar high pressure (4) Equatorial low pressure	(a) 25° to 35° (b) 5°N and 5°S (c) 55° to 65° (d) 80° to 90°

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – d
4 – b

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The latitudinal extent of the temperate zones is much _____ while belts are narrower.
Answer:
Larger

Question 2.
The extent of air pressure belt is upto ______ parallel.
Answer:
10°

Question 3.
Pressure belts are formed between the _______ and the pole.
Answer:
Equator

Question 4.
The sun rays fall perpendicular between the ______and ________.
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn

Question 5.
Due to the earths curvature, the area betweentwo parallels gets ______ as we move towards the poles.
Answer:
reduced

Question 6.
The air pressure at sea level is ______ millibars.
Answer:
1013.2

State whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
Air pressure is uniform on all places on the earth’s surface.
Answer:
false

Question 2.
Whenever the temperature is high, the air pressure is also high.
Answer:
false

Question 3.
The heat received from the sun, is uneven in different regions.
Answer:
true

Question 4.
In both the polar regions, the temperature is low throughout the year.
Answer:
true

Question 5.
Air pressure is measured in units of millimetres.
Answer:
false

Answer the following questions in one to two sentence:

Question 1.
Which factors influence air pressure?
Answer:
The altitude of a region, temperature of the air and the amount of water vapour in the air are some factors influencing air pressure.

Question 2.
What is the extent of air pressure belt?
Answer:
The extent of air pressure belt is generally upto 10° parallel.

Question 3.
What is the latitudinal extent of temperate zone?
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of temperate zone is from 23°30’N to 66°30’N and 23° 30’S to 66° 30’S.

Question 4.
What is the temperature in the polar region?
Answer:
In both the polar regions, the temperature is below 0°C throughout the year.

Question 5.
Why do all things in and on the earth stay earth bound?
Answer:
All things in and on the earth stay bound due to the earth’s gravity.

Question 6.
Why are temperature zones created on the surface of the earth?
Answer:
The heat received from the sun is uneven in different regions. Hence the distribution of the temperature is uneven from the equator to the poles. As a result, temperature zones are created.

Question 7.
Most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in which region?
Answer:
Most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in the mid latitudinal high pressure belt ie; between 25° to 30° parallels in both hemispheres.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Air pressure is maximum at sea level.
Answer:

• All things in and on the earth stay earthbound because of the earth’s gravity. This includes air which is in the gaseous form.
• Due to the earth’s gravity, air is pulled to the earth’s surface.
• Also as one moves higher & higher from the earth’s surface the air becomes thinner & thinner.
• Therefore, the air pressure is maximum at sea- level.

Question 2.
A low pressure belt is formed near the equator.
Answer:

• The sunrays can be perpendicular between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• The temperature is higher in this region.
• Hence air in this region gets heated, expands and becomes lighter and moves towards the sky.
• As this process operates continuously, a low pressure belt gets formed in the central part of this region between the parallels 5° N and 5° S, near the equator.

Question 3.
High pressure belt is formed near the polar region.
Answer:

• In both the polar regions, the temperature is below 0° throughout the year.
• The air is cold.
• Hence, high pressure belt is formed in the polar region.

Question 4.
Low pressure belt is observed between 55° and 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.
Answer:

• Due to the earth’s curvature, the area between two parallels gets reduced as we move towards the poles. This results in lesser friction of the air with the earth’s surface.
• The air between 55° and 65° parallels is thrown out because of the reduced friction and also due to the earth’s rotation.
• Therefore, a low pressure belt is observed between 55° and 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.

Question 5.
Temperature and air pressure are closely related.
Answer:

• Wherever the temperature is high, the air pressure is low. As the temperature rises the air gets heated, expands, and become lighter.
• Thin, lighter air in the vicinity3 of the earth’s surface starts moving up towards the sky. As a result the air pressure in such area decreases.
• Hence, temperature and air pressure are closely related.

Question 6.
Most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in mid-latitudinal high pressure belts.
Answer:

• The air in mid-latitudinal high pressure belt (between 25° to 35° parallels in both hemisphere) is found to be dry.
• The amount of water vapour is very low & hence this region gets extremely scarce or no rainfall.
• Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in mid latitudinal high pressure belts.

Give short answers to the following questions:

Question 1.
What are the effects of air pressure?
Answer:
Air pressure has the following effects.

• Origin of winds.
• Generation of storms
• Convectional type of rain.

Question 2.
What is the difference between the temperature zones and pressure belts?
Answer:
(i) The difference between the temperature zones & pressure belts is that the latitudinal extent of temperature zones is much larger while pressure belts are narrower.

(ii) For example, the Temperate zone extends from 23°30′ to 66°30′ in both hemisphere. Compared to this the pressure belt has limited extent which is generally upto 10° parallel.

(iii) Also the temperature zones are continuous & spread from the equator to the poles from Torrid to Frigid.

(iv) Pressure belts are not continuous & areas of high & low pressure are found in different regions from the equator to the poles.

Question 3.
How does a high pressure belt get formed near 30° parallel? Why does this region have hot deserts?
Answer:
(i) The heated air from the equatorial region becomes lighter, starts ascending and after reaching higher altitudes, moves towards the polar region, i.e., towards the North and the South Pole.

(ii) Due to low temperatures at the higher altitudes, the air cools down and becomes heavier. This heavier air descends down in both the hemispheres in the region between 25° to 35° parallels.

(iii) This leads to the formation of high pressures belts in these parallels of latitudes in both the hemispheres.

(iv) This air is dry, hence the region does not get rainfall. Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in these regions.

Think about it:

Question 1.
What will be the effect on air pressure if the temperature drops? Why?
Answer:
If the temperature drops, the air pressure will increase as the air becomes heavy.

7th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• How Seasons Occur Part 1 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Tides Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Air Pressure Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Winds Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Regions Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Soils Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Agriculture Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Settlements Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers
• Contour Maps and Landforms Class 7 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 Civics Chapter 1 Question Answer Introduction to Our Constitution Maharashtra Board

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Introduction to Our Constitution Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Provisions in the Constitution
Answer:
It is the basic or fundamental law that is stated directly in the Constitution. Therefore, the rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land. The government is bound to carry out the administration of the country as per the provisions of the Constitution.

Question 2.
Constitution Day
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly enacted the Constitution and adopted it on 26th November, 1949. Therefore, 26th November is observed as ‘Constitution Day’ in India.

2. Discuss:

Question 1.
A Constituent Assembly was established.
Answer:
(i) The process of the making of the Indian Constitution started in 1946.

(ii) The leaders of the freedom movement insisted that independent India will be governed not by the laws made by the British, but by laws made by Indians themselves.

(iii) A Committee was established to prepare the Constitution of Independent India and it came to be known as Constituent Assembly.

Question 2.
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution’.
Answer:
(i) The draft of the Constitution was prepared by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and presented to the Constituent Assembly after an in-depth contemplation and study of the Constitution of different countries of the world.

(ii) It was discussed Article by Article. Many amendments were suggested by different members.

(iii) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar would present the draft, answer the various questions raised on them and make changes in the draft as per the suggestions of the Constituent Assembly in order to make every provision of the Constitution flawless.

(iv) Due to his contribution towards the making of the Constitution, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution’.

Question 3.
What is included in the administration of a country?
Answer:
(i) The Government has to make laws relating to several subjects such as defending the boundaries, protecting the people from external aggression, eradication of poverty, creating employment, education and health services, encouragement to commerce and industries, protection of the weaker sections, making policies for the progress of women, children and the tribal people, etc.

(ii) In short, governments in modem times have to take decisions related to different issues right from space research to public cleanliness. This is included in the administration of a country

3. Choose the right option:

Question 1.
The Constitution of this country is primarily unwritten
(a) America
(b) India
(c) England
(d) None of these
Answer:
England

Question 2.
Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly
(a) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Durgabai Deshmukh
(d) B.B. Rai
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 3.
Who among these was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Moulana Azad I
(c) RajkumariAmritKaur
(d) Hansaben Mehta I
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 4.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(d) J.B. Kripalani
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

4. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
On what subjects does the Government have to make laws?
Answer:
Government has to make laws relating to several subjects:

• Defending the boundaries.
• Protecting the people from external aggression.
• Eradication of poverty.
• Creating employment, education and health services, encouragement to commerce and industries.
• Protection of the weaker section, making policies for the progress of women, children and the tribal people.

Question 2.
Why do we celebrate 26th January as Republic Day?
Answer:

• Our country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution from 26th January, 1950.
• The Indian Republic came into existence from this day.
• Therefore, 26th January is celebrated as Republic Day.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of running the government as per the provisions of the Constitution?
Answer:
There are several advantages of governing a country with the help of rules or provisions included in a Constitution:

(i) The Government has to function within a set of rules. This reduces the possibility of the misuse of the power and authority they have been given.

(ii) A Constitution includes the rights and freedom of the citizens. The Government cannot take away these rights. Therefore, people’s rights and freedoms are safeguarded.

(iii) Running a country as per the provisions of the Constitution is the same as establishing the rule of law, so there is no scope for the misuse of power or high-handed administration.

(iv) If a country is run as per the Constitution, the faith that the common people have in the government increases. They then become more keen on participating in the activities of the government. Democracy is strengthened due to the increased participation of the people.

(v) The Constitution presents some political ideals before the country. The nation is also bound to act in that direction. It creates an atmosphere conducive to attain world peace and security, and preservation of human rights.

(vi) Since the Constitution also includes the list of citizens’ duties, it fixes the responsibility of the citizens as well.

Activities

1. Several committees were established for the effective functioning of the Constituent Assembly. Find out more information about them and discuss the role of different committees.
2. Prepare a report on how you celebrated Constitution Day in your school.
3. Make a collection of the photos of the members of the Constituent Assembly.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution InText Questions and Answers

In-text questions.

Question 1.
Do you wish to ask the questions that puzzled Sameer and Vandana?
Answer:
Yes, I wish to ask such questions.

Question 2.
Where can we find all the rules according to which the administration of the country is carried out?
Answer:
The rules according to which the administration of the country is carried out are found mentioned in a country’s constitution.

Question 3.
Who makes those rules?
Answer:
These rules are made by the Constituent Assembly which consist of the representatives of the states and provinces and the leaders of that country.

Question 4.
Is it binding on us to follow them?
Answer:
Yes. All the rules mentioned in the Constitution are binding on every citizen of the country.

Let’s find out:

Find out some information about the Constitution of any one country of your choice with the help of the following points.

Question 1.
Name of the country
Answer:
India

Question 2.
Year of the making of the Constitution:
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly enacted the Constitution and adopted it on 26th November 1949. However the country began to be actually governed according to the provisions of the Constitution only from 26th January 1950.

Question 3.
Two features of the Constitution:
Answer:
(a) The lengthiest Constitution in the world: The Indian Constitution is the lengthiest and the most detailed of all the written Constitutions of the world containing 449 articles in 25 parts, 12 schedules, 5 appendices and 101 Amendments.

(b) Parliamentary form of Government: The constitution of India establishes a parliamentary form of a government both at the Centre and the State. The essence of the parliamentary government is its responsibility to the Legislature. The President is the constitutional head of the State but the real executive power is vested in the council of ministers whose head is the Prime Minister.

Activity:

Question 1.
Several committees were established for the effective functioning of the constituent Assembly. Find out more information about them and discuss the role of different committees.
Answer:

1. Committee on the Rules of Procedure: Rajendra Prasad
2. Steering Committee : Rajendra Prasad
3. Finance and Staff Committee: Rajendra Prasad
4. Credential Committee: Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
5. House Committee: B. Pratibha Sitaramayya
6. Order of Business Committee: K.M. Munsi
7. Adhoc Committee on the National Flag: Rajendra Prasad
8. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly: G.V. Mavalankar
9. States Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
10. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas:Vallabhbhai Patel
11. Minorities Sub-Committee: H. C. Mookherjee
12. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee: J. B. Kripalani
13. North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub¬Committee: Gopinath Bardoloi
14. Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee: A.V. Thakkar
15. Union Powers Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
16. Union Constitution Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
17. Drafting Committee: B.R. Ambedkar

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The administration of our village or city is carried out in accordance with _______. (will of the majority, rules, orders of the Collector)
Answer:
rules

Question 2.
The book in which all the provisions regarding the administration of the country are mentioned together in a systematic way is called a ______ . (Law book, Guide, Constitution)
Answer:
Constitution

Question 3.
Democracy is _____ due to increased participation of the people. (strengthened, maintained, weakened)
Answer:
strengthened

Question 4.
The process of the making of the Indian Constitution started in the year _____. (1952,1947,1946)
Answer:
1946

Question 5.
A committee which was established to prepare the Constitution of independent India was the _______ (Drafting Committee, StandingCommittee, Constituent Assembly)
Answer:
Constituent Assembly

Question 6.
There were a total of ______ members in the Constituent Assembly. (298, 299, 289)
Answer:
299

Question 7.
_____ was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. (Durgabai Deshmukh, J.B. Kripalani, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar)
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

Question 8.
Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ______ of the Indian Constitution’. (Architect, Visionary, Inspiration)
Answer:
Architect

Question 11
_____is observed as ‘Constitution Day’. (26th November, 26th January, 15th August)
Answer:
26th November

Question 10.
26th January is celebrated as ______ Day. (Independence, Republic, Constitution)
Answer:
Republic

Question 11.
Our Constitution is a/an _________ document of the provision related to the administration of the country. (written, oral, inspirational)
Answer:
written

Match the following:

Question 1.

(1) 15th August	(a) Constitution Day
(2) 26th November	(b) Republic Day
(3) 26th January	(c) Independence Day
(4) 26th January 1950	(d) Country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b
4 – d

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Why do we follow norms and rules?
Answer:
We follow norms and rules in order that the activities in the family, our school, our village or city are carried out smoothly.

Question 2.
How is the administration of our country carried out?
Answer:
The administration of our country is carried out through a system of rules.

Question 3.
Explain the term ‘Constitution’.
Answer:
The book in which all the provisions related to the administration of the country are mentioned together in a systemic way is called Constitution.

Question 4.
What are the basic or fundamental law of the land?
Answer:
The rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land.

Question 5.
How were decisions made in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Decisions in the Constituent Assembly were made on the basis of debate and discussion.

Question 6.
What is governance?
Answer:
Government in modem times have to take decisions related to different issues right from space research to public cleanliness. This is governance.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Name the well-known members of the constituent assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad, Sarojini Naidu, J. B. Kriplani, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, Durgabai Deshmukh, Hansaben Mehta and others.

Question 2.
The President of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 3.
The States in pre-independence period where the local princes carried out the administration.
Answer:
Princely states.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
We celebrate 26th January as Republic Day.
Answer:
(i) Our country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution from 26th January, 1950.

(ii) The Indian Republic came into existence from this day. Therefore, 26th January is celebrated as Republic Day.

Question 2.
Nature of the Constitutions of different countries is different.
Answer:

• There are differences of history, social structures, culture, traditions, etc., between the countries.
• Similarly, their needs and objectives also might be different.
• Each country tries to create a Constitution that is not only suited to its needs and objectives, but also is in tune with its distinct nature.

Explain in detail:

Question 1.
If the government does not follow the Constitution while making laws, the Judiciary can declare those laws null and void or unconstitutional. Explain.
Answer:

• The Government is established by the representatives elected by the people.
• It is bound to carry out the administration of the country as per the provisions of the Constitution.
• The rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land.
• While making laws, the government is bound to follow the Constitution.
• If it does not do so, then the Judiciary can declare those laws null and void or unconstitutional.

Question 2.
How long did it take to write the Constitution?
OR
Why is it the lengthiest Constitution in the world?
Answer:
(i) It took 2 years, 11 months and 17 days to ! complete the writing of the Constitution.

(ii) There were 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules in the original Constitution, thus making it the lengthiest Constitution in the world.

Question 3.
Write about the wide range of issues in the Constitution which were contributed by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar’s contribution was in a wide range of issues like water conservation, foreign policy, national security, journalism, economics, social justice, etc.

Question 4.
We are proud of our Constitution.
Answer:
(i) Decisions in the Constituent Assembly were made on the basis of debate and discussion. A respect for opposing view points and the acceptance of the appropriate suggestions were a characteristic of the working of the Constituent Assembly.

(ii) It took 2 years, 11 months and 17 days to complete the writing of the Constitution.

(iii) There were 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 schedules in the original Constitution

7th Std Civics Questions And Answers:

• Introduction to Our Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Preamble to the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Features of the Constitution Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 1 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Fundamental Rights Part 2 Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers
• Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Class 7 Civics Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Weather and Climate Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 Geography Chapter 4 Question Answer Weather and Climate Maharashtra Board

Class 6 Geography Chapter 4 Weather and Climate Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Weather and Climate Class 6 Questions And Answers

A. Who am I?

Question 1.
I keep on changing.
Answer:
Weather.

Question 2.
I am not the same in all places.
Answer:
Climate.

Question 3.
I am the solid state of water droplets.
Answer:
Snow.

Question 4.
I am present in the atmosphere in the form of vapour.
Answer:
Moisture.

B. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Why is the climate of Mahabaleshwar cool ?
Answer:
The climate of Mahabaleshwar is cool because it is situated at a high elevation. So, as we move upward from sea-level, the temperature of air decreases.

Question 2.
Why is the climate near the sea humid?
Answer:
The climate near the sea is humid because it contains greater amount of vapour mixed in the air.

Question 3.
What is the difference between weather and climate?
Answer:

Weather	Climate
(i) Weather is described on the basis of the conditions prevailing at the given time.	(i) Climate is described on the basis of conditions prevailing over a longer period of time.
(ii) Weather keeps changing frequently and we can experience the change easily.	(ii) Change in the climate takes place over a long ! period of time. These are not percieved easily.

Question 4.
What are the elements of weather?
Answer:
The elements of weather are:

• Temperature
• Air pressure
• Winds
• Moisture and
• Precipitation.

Question 5.
What effects do nearness to the sea and height above mean sea level have on the climate?
Answer:
Nearness to the sea leads to a humid climate whereas height above mean sea level will lead to a cool climate.

C. For the climatic conditions mentioned in the table, name the representative places known to you. (Use an atlas.)

Hot	Death valley
Hot and humid
Cold
Hot and dry
Cold and dry

Answer:

Hot	Death valley
Hot and humid	Amazon
Cold	Greenland
Hot and dry	Sahara desert
Cold and dry	Atacama desert

D. Complete the following table

Weather	Climate
Short-lived condition of the atmosphere
	Does not change quickly
Expressed with respect to a specific place
	Elements of climate: Temperature, pressure, winds, humidity and precipitation

Answer:

Weather	Climate
Short-lived condition of the atmosphere	Long-lived condition of the atmosphere
Keeps changing	Does not change quickly
Expressed with respect to a specific place	Expressed with respect to a specific region
Elements of weather: Temperature, pressure, winds, humidity and precipitation	Elements of climate: Temperature, pressure, winds, humidity and precipitation

Activity:

Understand the climate of your place with the help of your teacher.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 4 Weather and Climate InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

A. The weather conditions of a few places in India are as follows on 10th June. Use the table to answer the questions.

S. No.	Place	State	Time	Weather
(1)	Kochi	Kerala	12.30 pm	Cloudy
(2)	Bhopal	M.P.	12.30 pm	Hot and sunny
(3)	Mussoorie	Uttarakhand	12.30 pm	Cold weather mild sun

Question 1.
In which place will the clothes on a clothesline dry quickly? Why?
Answer:
In Bhopal the clothes on the clothesline will dry quickly. Due to the hot sun the water in the wet clothes get converted into vapour quickly.

Question 2.
In which place will they dry slowly? Why?
Answer:
Clothes will take longer time to dry in Mussoorie because of the medium heat and cold air.

Question 3.
Will the atmospheric conditions at these places always remain the same or will they change?
Answer:
The atmospheric conditions of these places will change from time to time.

B. Which of the following statements are applicable to the conditions that you have experienced today or yesterday at the place where you live?

• It was cold in the morning.
• In the afternoon it become hot and humid.
• It rained suddenly in the afternoon.
• Cool breeze was blowing in the morning.
• Clouds gathered in the evening.
• The night sky was full of stars and a pleasant breeze was blowing.

Answer:
Students have to give answer to this question depending on the weather condition of one particular day where they live.

C. Since childhood you have experienced summers, rainy seasons and winters. On the basis of your experience answer the following questions.

Question 1.
In which months do summer, monsoon season and winter occur in a year from January to December? Show it in a chart.
Answer:

Summer	Rainy season	Winter
February to May	June to September	October to January

Question 2.
Which special clothes do we use if it is raining?
Answer:
If it is raining, we wear a raincoat or carry an umbrella.

Question 3.
When do we use woollen clothes?
Answer:
We wear woollen clothes in winter.

Question 4.
In which season do we mainly use thin cotton clothes?
Answer:
We wear cotton clothes in summer.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Which occupation will you practice in cold regions?
Answer:
Occupations practiced in cold region are lumbering and agriculture.

Question 2.
Which occupations will you practice in hot region?
Answer:
Occupations practiced in hot regions are animal husbandry and agriculture.

Observe the following map and write the answer to the question given below it.

Question 1.
An Indian Meteorological Department image of the storm that visited in November 2014 was shown. Tell in which sea the storm was located.
Answer:
Bay of Bengal.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 4 Weather and Climate Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks with the right option in the brackets:

Question 1.
Atmospheric conditions prevailing at a place and at a given time is called ______. (wind, weather, climate)
Answer:
weather

Question 2.
The temperature goes on ______ from the equator towards both the poles. (decreasing, increasing, being constant)
Answer:
decreasing

Question 3.
The horizontal movement of air is called ______. (pressure, humidity, wind)
Answer:
wind

Question 4.
_____ is defined by elements such as temperature, wind and humidity. (precipitation, weather, climate)
Answer:
weather

Question 5.
The air that has greater amount of vapour is called _____ air. (dry, hot, humid)
Answer:
humid

Question 6.
The humidity in the atmosphere is called _______. (moisture, oxygen, heat)
Answer:
moisture

Question 7.
The proportion of moisture in the atmosphere depends on ________.(winds, temperature, air pressure)
Answer:
temperature

Question 8.
Vapour in the atmosphere condenses into water droplets or snow and their showering on the earth is called ________.(precipitation, wind, climate)
Answer:
precipitation

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

A	B
(1) Winds	(a) hailstorm
(2) Moisture	(b) solar energy
(3) Precipitation	(c) the difference in air pressure
(4) Temperature	(d) vapor
(5) Weather	(e) hot, cool, dry, sultry
	(f) humidity

Answer:
1 – c
2 – d
3 – a
4 – b
5 – e

Name the following statements:

Question 1.
Elements of weather:
Answer:
Temperature, pressure, winds, humidity and precipitation.

Question 2.
Forms of precipitation:
Answer:
Rainfall, snowfall and hailstorm.

Question 3.
Climate is generally expressed as:
Answer:
‘Cool and dry ‘or ‘hot and humid’ or ‘hot and dry’, etc.

Question 4.
Factors influencing climate:
Answer:
Latitudinal position, height above sea level, nearness to ocean and oceanic currents.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is precipitation?
Answer:
Vapour in the atmosphere condenses into water droplets or snow particles, which shower on the earth. This is called as precipitation.

Question 2.
What is called air pressure?
Answer:
Air has weight and as a result it creates pressure. This is called air pressure.

Question 3.
What is wind?
Answer:
Air moving from high pressure towards low pressure areas in a horizontal direction is called wind.

Question 4.
What is called humid air?
Answer:
The atmosphere contains vapour. The air that has greater amount of vapour is called humid air.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
As we move upward from the sea-level, temperature of the air decreases.
Answer:

• The earth’s surface gets heat from the Sun.
• Thus, the surface gets heated.
• The air close to the earth surface starts becoming hot.
• Later, different layers of air at higher elevation receive heat.
• Therefore, as we move upward from sea-level, the temperature of air decreases.

Question 2.
Air pressure decreases with increasing height.
Answer:

• The lowermost layers of air are subjected to the pressure of the upper layers.
• So, the density of the lower layers of air increases.
• There is greater air pressure near the surface of the earth.
• Therefore, air pressure decreases with increasing height.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is known as precipitation?
Answer:
Vapour in the atmosphere condenses into water droplets or snow particles. Their showering on the earth is called precipitation.

Question 2.
What is called moisture?
Answer:
The humidity in the atmosphere is called moisture. The proportion of moisture in the atmosphere depends on the temperature. Air with higher temperature holds a greater amount of moisture.

6th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• The Earth and the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Let us Use the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Weather and Climate Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Temperature Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Importance of Oceans Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Rocks and Rock Types Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Energy Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Occupations Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Energy Resources Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 Geography Chapter 9 Question Answer Energy Resources Maharashtra Board

Class 6 Geography Chapter 9 Energy Resources Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Energy Resources Class 6 Questions And Answers

A. What resource will have to be used for the following work:

Question 1.
Rohan wants to fly a kite.
Answer:
Wind Energy

Question 2.
People in an Adivasi hamlet have to be protected from the cold.
Answer:
Wood

Question 3.
Cooking on a picnic.
Answer:
Wood

Question 4.
Salma wants to iron her clothes.
Answer:
Electricity

Question 5.
Starting a railway-engine.
Answer:
Thermal Energy

Question 6.
Heating water for a bath.
Answer:
Electricity

Question 7.
After sunset, making light available inside the house.
Answer:
Electricity

B. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which energy resources does man use the most? Why?
Answer:
(i) The energy resource we use the most is oil as it has a wide array of uses. It is used as fuel which includes petrol, diesel, kerosene, jet fuel, LPG gas, etc.

(ii) It is also used in cosmetics, medicines, paints, lubricants, etc.

Question 2.
Why are energy resources needed?
Answer:

• The demand for energy resources is increasing due to growing population, urbanisation and growing needs of man.
• Energy resources are needed to prepare food, generate electricity, to propel vehicles and for other domestic and industrial needs.
• We engage in various activities to fulfill our needs, for which we need energy from natural resources.
• Our life will come to a standstill without resources like petrol, wind, natural gas, sunlight, besides other resources.

Question 3.
Why do we need to use environment friendly energy resources?
Answer:

• There are many energy resources which are environment-friendly, which are renewable and which aid in harnessing natural processes.
• When we use environment-friendly energy sources such as solar energy, wind energy, energy from waste, etc.
• We are contributing towards environment conservation, preservation and protection.
• This will help in reducing the deterioration of environment due to use of non-eco friendly energy resources apart from reducing problems arising from pollution caused due to burning of fossil fuels and biomass energy, climate change, etc.
• Environment-friendly resources will not only lead to sustainable development but also provide energy security which is the need of the hour.

C. Explain the differences using the points in the brackets:
(availability, environment-friendliness,advantages and drawbacks)

Question 1.
Mineral oil and solar energy
Answer:

Points	Mineral oil	Solar energy
Availability	(i) Limited in nature as it does not last perpetually.	(i) Availability depends on the intensity of sunrays and the duration of sunshine.
Environment-friendliness	(i)  It is not environment friendly as its generation leads to pollution. (ii)  Being highly inflammable it may cause damage to the environment.	(i) Being pollution-free this is an environment-friendly source of energy.
Advantages	(i)  Cheap source of energy. (ii)  Aids in thermal and atomic power generation.	(i)  A solution to global warming. (ii)  Cost effective, provides energy security.
Drawbacks	(i)  Pollutes the environment. (ii)  Highly inflammable.	(i)  Solar panels stop producing electricity after sunset. (ii)  Expensive to store this energy.

Question 2.
Hydel power and power from geothermal source
Answer:

Points	Hydel power	Power from geothermal sources
Availability	(i) Obtained from the kinetic energy of running water which is easily available.	(i) Underground heat is utilized to generate power and it is inexhaustible.
Environment-friendliness	(i) Does not cause any degradation of the environment.	(i) It is an exhaustible energy resource that causes minimum pollution.
Advantages	(i) Reuse of water is possible. Easy availability of water in most places. Energy generation is pollution-free.	(i) If used on a large scale and more efficiently it may reduce global warming.
Disadvantages	(i) When water is not available it can’t produce electricity. (ii) Humans, flora, and fauna may lose natural habitat when hydel power plants are set up.	(i) Only a few sites have the potential to establish geothermal power plants. (ii) High installation cost is involved. (iii) The energy generation capacity is too small.

Activity:

Show the power generation centres on an outline map of India. Write about one of them. Supplement the information with pictures.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 9 Energy Resources InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Observe the pictures and answer the questions:


Question 1.
Which energy resource is used in figure 1 to obtain light?
Answer:
Kerosene.

Question 2.
Where does this resource come from?
Answer:
It is found under the land surface and also below the ocean floor.

Question 3.
Figure 2 shows fuel being filled in a motor car. From where was the energy resource brought to the pump?
Answer:
Fuel comes to the pump from petroleum refinery, an industrial process plant where crude oil is being processed and refined.

Question 4.
Figure 3 shows Malati with her pinwheel and her father winnowing grain. Who is helping both of them?
Answer:
Wind energy.

Question 5.
Which energy resource is used for lighting a lamp, running a rickshaw and heating oil as shown in figure 5?
Answer:
LPG is used for lighting a lamp and heating oil and CNG is used for running a rickshaw.

Question 6.
What are the various purposes for which man use sunlight?
Answer:
For growing foodgrains, drying clothes, heating water and cooking food, to generate electricity and for multiple other uses we use sunlight.

Question 7.
For which of the above energy resources do we have to spend money?
Answer:
We have to spend money for mineral oil and natural gas.

Observe the map and answer the questions given below:

Question 1.
Name the states which have coal fields
Answer:
Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal and Gujarat.

Question 2.
Name the mineral oil field in the Arabian Sea.
Answer:
Mumbai High.

Question 3.
Name two states which have coal fields on a large scale.
Answer:

• Chhattisgarh
• Jharkhand

Question 4.
Which mineral oil fields are located in North¬east India?
Answer:
Makum, Digboi, Naharkatiya, Nunmati, Lakhani.

Question 5.
The reserves of which mineral are found in the Godavari Basin?
Answer:
Coal reserves are found in the Godavari Basin.

Question 6.
Which of the states have mineral reserves in the Godavari basin?
Answer:
Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 7.
Name four hydel power stations in our state.
Answer:
Koyna Hydroelectric project, Jayakwadi Hydroelectric project, Sardar Sarovar Hydroelectric project, Warna Hydroelectric project.

Question 8.
What kind of energy is produced with the help of the devices shown in the photograph?
(Pg. 59 Text Book)

Answer:
Solar Energy is generated.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 9 Energy Resources Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options:

Question 1.
In ______ it is necessary to bumthe energy resources directly to generate electricity, (geo-thermal power stations, thermal power stations, hydel power stations)
Answer:
thermal power stations

Question 2.
In villages, ______ is used on a large scale for cooking on earthen stoves. (wood, kerosene, liquid petroleum gas)
Answer:
wood

Question 3.
Low quality coal is used for _________ .(industries, thermal power station, cooking)
Answer:
cooking

Question 4.
High quality coal is used in ________.(geo-thermal power stations, thermal power stations, hydel power stations)
geo-thermal power stations

Question 5.
Mineral oil is obtained from under land surface and also ________.(below the ocean floor, on the land surface, decomposed plants and animals)
Answer:
below the ocean floor

Question 6.
Mineral oil reserves are ________ in nature. (limited, unlimited, low)
Answer:
limited

Question 7.
________ oil is in great demand. (Coal, Mineral, Gas)
Answer:
Mineral

Question 8.
Mineral oil is also called _________.(magic oil, priceless treasure, black gold)
Answer:
black gold

Question 9.
__________ originate from the remains of dead plants and animals. (Bio-fuels, Hydel power, Kinetic energy)
Answer:
Bio-fuels

Question 10.
________is used in sailboats. (Solar energy, Wind energy, Geo-thermal energy)
Answer:
Wind energy

Question 11.
For power generation a wind speed of 40 to _______ is required. (90 kmph, 100 kmph, 50 kmph)
Answer:
50 kmph

Question 12.
Intensity of solar energy is the maximum in the ______ zone. (torrid, temperate, frigid)
Answer:
torrid

Question 13.
______ can be used on a large scale in a peninsular country like India. (Tidal energy, Geo-thermal, Wind energy)
Answer:
Tidal energy

Question 14.
Underground heat is utilised to generate _________.(hydel power, tidal energy, geo-thermal energy)
Answer:
geo-thermal energy

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Hydel power	(a) power generated with the help of the speed and force of waves
(2) Atomic energy	(b) power obtained from the kinetic energy of running water
(3) Tidal energy	(c) underground heat is utilised to generate power
(4) Geo-thermal energy	(d) splitting of the atoms of minerals like uranium and thorium
(5) Wind energy	(e) solar energy
	(f) kinetic energy

Answer:
1 – b
2 – d
3 – a
4 – c
5 – f

State whether the following statements are true or false, correct the wrong statement:

Question 1.
All substance-based energy resources are conventional.
Answer:
False. Except for atomic energy, all other resources are conventional.

Question 2.
In the long run, process-based energy resources are environment-friendly.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Kinetic energy can be used to generate power or electricity.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Low quality coal is used in industries.
Answer:
False. Low quality Ooal is used in cooking while high-quality coal is used in industries.

Question 5.
Hydel power is not an environmental-friendly energy resource.
Answer:
False. Hydel power obtained from the kinetic energy of running water does not cause any degradation of the environment so it is environment-friendly.

Question 6.
Solar energy is maximum in the torrid zone.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Tidal energy is pollution free and everlasting.
Answer:
True

Name the following:

Question 1.
Two examples of substance-based energy resources:
Answer:

• Coal
• Mineral oil

Question 2.
Two examples of process based energy resources.
Answer:

• Sun
• Wind

Question 3.
Energy resources which originate from the remains of dead plants and animals:
Answer:
Bio-fuels

Question 4.
Two countries which use atomic energy:
Answer:

• India
• USA

Question 5.
Two hydel power stations of India:
Answer:

• Bhakra-Nangal in the Punjab
• Koyna in Maharashtra

Question 6.
States in India where windmills have been erected:
Answer:

• Maharashtra
• Karnataka

Question 7.
Devices which can be run on solar power:
Answer:

• Lamps
• Heaters

Question 8.
Two places where hot water springs are seen:
Answer:

• Vajreshwari in Maharashtra
• Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
How are energy resources classified?
Answer:
Energy resources can be classified in many ways such as conventional – non-conventional, biotic – abiotic, renewable – non-renewable, substance-based – process-based, etc.

Question 2.
Write any one difference between: Substance-based energy resources and process based energy resources.
Answer:
Generation of substance-based energy resources leads to pollution while that of process based energy resource is pollution free.

Question 3.
Write any one use of kinetic energy.
Answer:
Kinetic energy can be used to generate power or electricity.

Question 4.
How was coal formed?
Answer:
Long ago, plant and animal remains got buried due to earth movements and they were then decomposed due to pressure and heat, leaving behind the element carbon and this is how coal was formed.

Question 5.
Apart from mineral oil what else is found in mineral oil wells?
Answer:
In most of the mineral oil wells, apart from minerals, natural gas is also found.

Question 6.
Which are the biotic waste materials from which biogas is generated?
Answer:
Biogas is generated from biotic waste material such as faeces of animals, dead leaves, shells, etc.

Question 7.
Why have some farmers raised biogas plants in their own yards?
Answer:
Some farmers have raised biogas plants in their own yards to cater to their domestic needs.

Question 8.
Which is the major problem faced by major metropolitan cities?
Answer:
Waste disposal is the major problem faced by major metropolitan cities.

Question 9.
How is wind energy used to generate electricity?
Answer:
Due to speed of the wind, the windmills turn, generating kinetic energy which in turn is further converted into electricity.

Question 10.
What does generation of solar power depend on?
Answer:
The generation of solar power depends on the intensity of sunrays and the duration of sunshine.

Question 11.
Which are the movements of ocean water that go on continuously?
Answer:
Sea waves and tides are the movements of ocean water that go on continuously

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Several changes took place in the use of energy resources and devices.
Answer:

• We engage in various activities to fulfill our needs, for which we need energy.
• In the past, human labour and animals were used for many tasks.
• Gradually man’s needs increased and with it, several changes took place in the use of energy resource and devices.

Question 2.
The cost of mineral oil is very high.
Answer:

• Mineral oil reserves are limited in nature.
• However, this oil is in great demand. Hence its cost is very high.

Question 3.
Mineral oil is called ‘black gold’.
Answer:
Mineral oil is called ‘black gold’ because it has a blackish colour and it is costly.

Question 4.
In India, there is a lot of scope for using solar energy.
Answer:

• We get light and heat from the sun.
• We have seen that intensity of solar energy is the maximum in the torrid zone.
• India which is in the torrid zone, therefore, has a lot of scope for using solar energy.

Question 5.
Process-based energy resources are environment-friendly.
Answer:
The process-based energy resources cause minimum pollution. So, process-based energy resources are environment-friendly.

Answer in 2-3 sentences:

Question 1.
Energy from waste material can help solve the problem of waste disposal in cities. Explain.
Answer:

• Waste is generated daily on a very large scale in a big metropolitan cities.
• Waste disposal is a major problem in such places.
• This waste can be segregated to use the biotic component to generate gas which can be used to generate power.
• In the future, this may help to solve the problem of waste disposal in cities

Question 2.
Explain the term atomic energy.
Answer:

• Splitting of the atoms of minerals like uranium and thorium can be used for power generation.
• In this process, using very small quantities of minerals, energy can be generated on a very large scale.

Question 3.
How must we use energy resources?
Answer:

• Energy resources must be used very carefully.
• The demand for energy is increasing all the time due to growing population, urbanisation and growing needs of man. ,
• It is necessary to use alternative and non- conventional energy resources to meet these needs.
• It is also necessary to use energy frugally.

6th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• The Earth and the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Let us Use the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Weather and Climate Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Temperature Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Importance of Oceans Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Rocks and Rock Types Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Energy Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Occupations Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 History Chapter 13 Question Answer Life of the People in Maharashtra Maharashtra Board

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Life of the People in Maharashtra Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Complete the chart.

Answer:

2. Which undesirable customs are prevalent in today’s society ? Suggest measures for their eradication.
Answer:
The bad traditions prevalent in the society are:

• No Education for girls.
• Female infanticide.
• Dowry.
• Animal sacrifice
• Superstitions.
• Bonded labour.

The ways to get rid of these bad traditions are:

• Special provisions for girl’s education.
• Awareness programme for women.
• Inculcating scientific attitude.
• Special law to protect the women and girl child.
• Thinking positive, parental guidance to think in a systematic way, to get science knowledge update to disperse the blind belief will eradicate superstition.

3. Make a detailed notes of the festivals and auspicious days in your area.
Answer:
(a) Diwali, Holi, Mahashivaratri, Eid, Raksha Bandhan, Navaratri, Krishna Janmashtami, Gurpurabh, Parsi new year, Onam are celebrated with great pomp and show in our area.

(b) Sanskasthi Chaturthi, Ekadashi, Akshaya Tritiya etc., are some of the auspicious days celebrated in our area.

4. Use the following points to compare life in the era of Shivaji Maharaj and today’s life.

S. No.	Point	At the time of Shivaji Maharaj	Today
(1)	Transactions	……………	…………
(2)	Houses	…………….	Permanent, Well-constructed cement-concrete multi-storeyed house.
(3)	Transportation	………….	Bus, Railway and Aeroplane.
(4)	Entertainment	……………	…………….

Answer:

S. No.	Point	At the time of Shivaji Maharaj	Today
(1)	Transactions	Barter system	Coins, Paper money, Plastic money, Currency – Rupee, Cashless transaction through banks.
(2)	Houses	Village Houses: Made with simple mud and bricks. Cities- Wadas with one or two storeys.	Permanent, Well-constructed cement-concrete multi-storeyed house.
(3)	Transportation	Bullock cart, Horseback, Boat	Bus, Railway and Aeroplane.
(4)	Entertainment	Tamasha, Ballads on Dap	Music, Drama, Dance, Watching Television, Play, movie, Opera etc.

Activity

Gather information about the capable women of our country and read it aloud in your class, e.g. information on P.V. Sindhu, Sakshi Malik.

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Patils were given some land as Inam for his job as a _____. (Patil, Jagir, Watans)
Answer:
Patil

Question 2.
For any major or minor events or for battles an ______ was checked. (Time, Muhurta, Place)
Answer:
Muhurta

Question 3.
The _______ festival was celebrated on a large scale during the Peshwa Era. (Ganesh, Diwali, Makar Sankranti)
Answer:
Ganesh

Question 4.
______ script was used for day to day affairs. (Marathi, Sanskrit, Modi)
Answer:
Modi

Question 5.
______ was very popular sport. (Wrestling, Mallakhamb, Martial arts)
Answer:
Martial arts

Question 6.
The Jain Mandir at Jamod in Vidarbha had paintings of Jin Charitra, ______ stories (mythological, various festivals, animals)
Answer:
Mythological

Question 7.
________ was popular as an entertainment programme during the Peshwa Era. (Stage show, Tamasha, Lavani)
Answer:
Tamasha

Question 8.
_______ was a well-known painter. (Mallamma Desai, Gopikabai, Gangaram Tambat)
Answer:
Gangaram Tambat

Question 9.
The letters were carried by _______and messengers. (Birds, Camel riders, Post)
Answer:
Camel riders

Question 10.
People used to believe in ______ a lot. (astrology, scientific vision, dreams)
Answer:
astrology

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Festival	(a) Mankoji
(2) Sport	(b) Bail-Pola
(3) Sculpture	(c) Mallakhamb
(4) Ghat	(d) Ghrishneshwar Temple
(5) Painter	(e) Toke

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e
5 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The Patils	(a) To manage the revenue
(2) The Kulkarni	(b) To protect the village
(3) Black Soil,	(c) Work in an office
(4) White-collared	(d) Farmers

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What was the chief source of production at the village level during the Peshwa era?
Answer:
Agriculture and agriculture based businesses were die chief source of production at the village level.

Question 2.
When was Ganesh festival celebrated?
Answer:
Ganesh festival was celebrated every year Bhadrapad Chaturthi to Anant Chaturdashi.

Question 3.
Which festivals were celebrated during Diwali?
Answer:
During Diwali the Balipratipada and Bhau- beej days were celebrated on large scale.

Question 4.
What were organised during the Jatras days?
Answer:
Wrestling Match were Organised during the Jatras days.

Question 5.
Which Subjects were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas?
Answer:
Writing, reading, accounting were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 6.
Which games were played during the Peshwa Era?
Answer:
Martial arts were very popular, Mallakhamb Dand, Wrestling, Lathi, Dandpatta, Bothati these games were played.

Question 7.
What was the religious policy of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
(i) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had a liberal religious policy.
(ii) He believed that everyone should follow his or her own religion but nobody should force his or her religion upon others.

Question 8.
What did the daily meal of the people consist of?
Answer:
The daily meal consisted of Bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy.

Question 9.
What did men and women use to wear during that period?
Answer:
(a) Men used to wear dhoti, kurta, angarakha, turban.
(b) Women use to wear sarees (nine-yard) and blouses.

Question 10.
What were used in Wada decoration?
Answer:
Artwork, decorative painting, firewood, sculptures, mirrors were used in wada decoration.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The land was given as inam to Patils do the job.
Answer:
Patilaki

Question 2.
Festival celebrated on large scale.
Answer:
The Ganesh festival.

Question 3.
Crops grown.
Answer:
Jowar, bajra, wheat, nachni, corn, rice etc.

Question 4.
Education was given in.
Answer:
Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 5.
Modes of transport.
Answer:
Ghat roads, the bridges on the river, boats.

Question 6.
Means of communication.
Answer:
Camel riders and Messengers.

Question 7.
Popular outdoor games.
Answer:
Hututu, Kho-kho and Atyapatya.

Question 8.
Learned women in the Peshwa Era.
Answer:
(a) Veermata Jijabai
(b) Maharani Yesubai
(c) Maharani Tarabai
(d) Umabai Dabhade.

Question 9.
Famous architect during that period.
Answer:
Hiroji Indulkar.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Discuss everyday living of the people in that Era.
Answer:
Most of the people were staying in the village. The villages were self sufficient.

(a) Crops grown: The farmers grown the crops like jowar, bajra, wheat, nachani, com, rice etc.

(b) Food: The farmers’ daily meal consisted of bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy. Rich people’s meal consisted of rice, dal-varan, chapatis, vegetables, salads and milk products.

(c) The transaction in rural area were based on barter system.

(d) Houses: The houses were simple and were made of soil and bricks.

(e) Clothing :
(i) Men wear – Dhoti, Kurta, Angarakha, Turban.
(ii) Women wear – Saree (nine yard) and blouse.

Question 2.
The life of women’s during Peshwa Period.
Answer:
(a) Their world were confined to the house of first their father and then their husband.

(b) Their education was neglected.

(c) Only a few exceptional women had achieved any progress in literacy, administration and battle skills.

(d) They include Veermata Jijabai, Maharani Yesubai, Maharani Tarabai, Umabai Dabhade, Gopikabai, Punyashlok Ahilyabai.

(e) Customs like child marriage, unequal marriage, widowhood, keshwapan, sati, polygamy had imposed harsh restrictions on the way women lived.

7th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Religious Synthesis Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Foundation of the Swaraj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Conflict with the Mughals Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Administration of the Swaraj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• An Ideal Ruler Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Maratha War of Independence Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Expansion of the Maratha Power Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Progression of the Empire Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Life of the People in Maharashtra Class 7 History Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 Geography Chapter 3 Question Answer Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Maharashtra Board

Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Class 6 Questions And Answers

Question 1.
What characteristics of two and three dimensional devices did you note?
Answer:
Two-dimensional objects have length and width and its product is area. Three-dimensional objects have length, width and height and its product is volume.

Question 2.
What features can be shown on a very small globe?
Answer:
On a very small globe the entire earth can be represented.

Question 3.
Which device will be suitable for understanding the concept of day and night on the earth?
Answer:
The globe is suitable for understanding the concept of day and night on the earth.

Question 4.
Which device will be useful to show your village/city?
Answer:
A map can be useful to show a village/city.

Question 5.
Which device can be easily carried from one place to another?
Answer:
A map can be easily carried from one place to another.

Activity:

Make two groups. Each group should ask the other group to find the locations of different places on the globe. You may also do this with a map.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Textbook Questions and Answers

Study the world map, a map of India and the globe and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which device is flat?
Answer:
The world map and map of India are flat.

Question 2.
Which device is spherical?
Answer:
The globe is spherical.

Question 3.
Which of these devices allows you to see the entire area of the earth at the same time?
Answer:
The globe allows us to see the entire area of the earth at the same time.

Question 4.
Which device allows you to see only one side of the earth at a time?
Answer:
The map allows us to see only one side of the earth at a time.

Question 5.
Which device can be used for studying a particular region in detail?
Answer:
A map can be used for studying a particular region in detail.

Question 6.
Which device can be called a model of the earth?
Answer:
The globe can be called a model of the earth.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 3 Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Textbook Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks with the correct option from the brackets:

Question 1.
Map is ______ dimensional whereas a globe is ______ dimensional. (one, tvo, three, four)
Answer:
two, three

Question 2.
______ is a representative model of theentire earth. (map, sphere, globe)
Answer:
Globe

Question 3.
A field visit is an important method of studying ________.(political science, geography, history)
Answer:
geography

Question 4. _______ is the largest operational globe in the world. (EARTHA, Earth, Earthia)
Answer:
EARTHA

Name the following:

Question 1.
Two objects which are two-dimensional.
Answer:
Map, land

Question 2.
Two objects which are three-dimensional.
Answer:
Globe, duster

Question 3.
Two places for students to be taken for field visit.
Answer:
Post office, mall

Question 4.
Place where EARTHA is housed.
Answer:
Yarmouth in the State of Maine in the United States of America.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
How is a field visit an important method of studying geography?
Answer:

• A field visit helps us to understand the geographical and social conditions of a place.
• It provides an opportunity to directly interact with the local people and understand their problems.

Question 2.
Write a note on – EARTHA.
Answer:

• EARTHA is the largest operational globe in the world.
• It is housed at Yarmouth in the State of Maine in the United State of America.
• The rotation and revolution speed of this globe is maintained as per that of the earth.

Question 3.
How is a map drawn?
Answer:
Various steps to draw a map:

• A wire globe is prepared.
• A source of light is placed inside the globe.
• Thereafter projection of the wire graticule is obtained on a paper
• This projection is used to drawmaps.

6th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• The Earth and the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Let us Use the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Weather and Climate Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Temperature Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Importance of Oceans Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Rocks and Rock Types Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Energy Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Occupations Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Let us Use the Graticule Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 Geography Chapter 2 Question Answer Let us Use the Graticule Maharashtra Board

Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Let us Use the Graticule Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Let us Use the Graticule Class 6 Questions And Answers

A. Put a tick mark against the correct option in the space given:

Question 1.
66° 30′ North parallel means:
(i) Arctic Circle
(ii) Equator
(iii) Antarctic Circle
Answer:
Arctic Circle

Question 2.
Which parallel bisects the earth?
(i) Tropic of Cancer
(ii) Tropic of Capricorn
(iii) Equator
Answer:
Equator

Question 3.
What is the angular distance of the Arctic Circle from North Pole?
(i) 66° 30′
(ii) 90°
(iii) 23° 30
Answer:
23° 30′

Question 4.
Where do the Prime Meridian and the equator • intersect each other?
(i) Southern Ocean
(ii) Atlantic Ocean
(iii) African Continent
Answer:
African Continent

Question 5.
Up to which parallels from the equator can the j sun’s rays be perpendicular?
(i) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn
(ii) Arctic and Antarctic Circles
(iii) North and South Poles
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn

Question 6.
What would be the latitude of a place on the South pole?
(i) 9o°S
(ii) 90°N
(iii) 0°D
Answer:
90° S

B. Read the following statements and correct the wrong ones:

Question 1.
While describing the location of a place mentioning the meridian is sufficient.
Answer:
While describing the location of a place, we need to consider one parallel and one meridian.

Question 2.
For describing the extent of a region, it is necessary to assume the latitude and longitude of the centre of the adjoining region.
Answer:
For describing the extent of a region, we need to consider two parallels and two meridians at the extreme ends of the same regions.

Question 3.
Location of a road can be described only with a map.
Answer:
Location of a road can be described with latitude and longitude of a point.

Question 4.
0° East meridian and 180° East meridian.
Answer:
0° meridian and 180° meridian.

Question 5.
The extent of a road or a river course is described with the help of the latitude of a point in the source and the longitude of a point at the end.
Answer:
The extent of a road or a river course is described with the help of the latitude and the longitude of a point in the source and also at the end.

Question 6.
8° 4′ N parallel to 37° 66° N parallel is the correct description of a location
Answer:
8° 4’ N parallel to 37° 66’ N parallel is the correct description of a location.

C. Find the locations of following cities from a world map, a map of India or a Globe and write down the latitude and longitude of each of them:

1. Mumbai
2. Guwahati
3. Srinagar
4. Bhopal
5. Chennai
6. Ottawa
7. Tokyo
8. Johannesburg
9. New York
10. London

Answer:

Place	Latitude	Longitude
Mumbai	19° 00′ N	72 48’ E
Guwahati	26° 12′ N	91 48’ E
Srinagar	34° 05′ N	74 50’ E
Bhopal	23° 18′ N	77 24’ E
Chennai	13° 06′ N	80 18’ E
ottawa	45° 27′ N	75 42’ W
Tokyo	35° 45′ N	139 45’ E
Johannesburg	26° 10′ S	28 03’ E
New York	43° 00′ N	75 00’ W
London	51° 31′ N	0 7’ W

D. Find and write down the extent of the following. (Check them on the internet/ mobile):

Question 1.
Maharashtra (State)
Answer:
Question 1. 20° 00′ N / 76° 00’E

Question 2.
Chile (A country)
Answer:
35° 00′ S / 72° 00’W

Question 3.
Australia (A continent)
Answer:
10° 30′ S to 43° 39′ S – 113° E to 153° E

Question 4.
Sri Lanka (An island)
Answer:
7° 30′ N / 80° 50′ E

Question 5.
Trans Siberian Railway of Russia (Starting point – St. Petersburg, Terminal Point-Vladivostok)
Answer:
59° 55′ N / 30° 20′ E – 43° 10′ N / 131° 53’ E

E. Draw important parallels and meridians in the figure given below and label them with appropriate angular measures. (Use the protractor.)

Answer:

F. Write the important parallels and meridians in the following table:

Answer:

Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Let us Use the Graticule InText Questions and Answers

Make friends with the globe!

Observe the globe and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What are the horizontal lines on the globe called?
Answer:
The horizontal lines on the globe are called latitudes.

Question 2.
List the continents and oceans through which the equator passes.
Answer:
Continents – Africa, South America, Asia Oceans – Pacific, Atlantic and Indian

Question 3.
Encircle the intersection of 0° meridian and 0° parallel on the globe.
Answer:
Students may attempt this question of their own.

Question 4.
Which ocean is spread in all the four hemispheres?
Answer:
Pacific Ocean

Question 5.
Which continent is spread in all the four hemispheres?
Answer:
The continent of Africa

Question 6.
At which two parallels do all the meridians converge?
Answer:
90°N and 90°S parallels.

State the Importance of the following:

Question 1.
Prime Meridian
Answer:
The main purpose is to fix the global standard time and co-ordinate the standard times of different countries.

Question 2.
180° Meridian
Answer:
The International Date Line is marked with reference to this meridian.

Question 3.
Great Circles
Answer:
Great Circles are used for finding the minimum distance between any two places on the surface of the earth.

Let us use the graticule:

Answer the following questions about the location and extent with the help of figure page 11 of your textbook.

Question 1.
Which latitude and longitude define the location of the capital of Brazil- Brasilia?
Answer:
13°S latitude and 48°W longitude.

Question 2.
What would be the longitudinal extent of Brazil that spreads from 5° 15′ N to 33° 45′ S latitude?
Answer:
Longitudinal extent would be 34° 47’W to 73° 59’W.

Question 3.
In which hemispheres does Brazil extend in the north-south direction?
Answer:
Brazil extends in the both northern and southern hemispheres.

Question 4.
In which hemisphere does Brazil extend in the east-west direction?
Answer:
Brazil extends in the Western Hemisphere.

Question 5.
Which parallels and meridians should be used to describe the extend of River Sao Francisco?
Answer:
River Sao Francisco has its source at 40° 04′ W/ 20° 02’S and terminal point at 37°W/10°S.

Question 6.
Describe the location of Marajo Island using the graticule.
Answer:
Using the Graticules, the location of Marajo island is 0.4°N and 51°W.

Think a little!
Question 1.
Find on the globe, the meridians opposite to the ones mentioned below:
90°E, 170°W, 30°E, 20°W
Answer:

• 90°E – 90°W
• 170°W – 10°E
• 30°E – 150°W
• 20°W – 160°E

Think a little!

Question 1.
Which important parallel passes through India?
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer (23° 30′ N)

Question 2.
Which areas do not get perpendicular rays?
Answer:
Areas to the North of Tropic of Cancer (till Jammu and Kashmir).

Question 3.
Which region receives perpendicular ray on two days in a year?
Answer:
The region to the south of Tropic of Cancer (till Kaniyakumari).

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
In what direction should an aeroplane fly in order to cover the shortest distance between Kolkata and Chicago?
Answer:
To cover the shortest distance between Kolkata and Chicago, the aeroplane should move north west via Delhi.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 2 Let us Use the Graticule Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
______ is known as the smallest country in the world.
Answer:
Vatican City

Question 2.
The International Date line is marked with reference to _____ meridian.
Answer:
180°

Question 3.
The Prime Meridian is known as ________.
Answer:
Greenwich Meridian

Question 4.
Global Standard Time is known as ______.
Answer:
Greenwich Mean Time

Question 5.
Variation in the intensity of sunlight leads to regional diversity in ____ and ______.
Answer:
plant, animal life

Question 6.
Different temperature zones give rise to ______ belts.
Answer:
pressure

Question 7.
The 180° meridian lies opposite to the _______.
Answer:
Prime Meridian

Question 8.
The equator as well as all pairs of opposite meridians form ______.
Answer:
Great Circles

Question 9.
Due to the ______ and _______ of sunlight, different temperature zones are formed on the earth.
Answer:
duration, intensity

Question 10.
All places between 23° 30′ north and south of equator receives _______ rays on two days in a year.
Answer:
perpendicular

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

A (Latitudes)	B (Names)
(1)23°30’N	(a) Antarctic Circle
(2) 23°30′ S	(b) Tropic of Capricorn
(3)66°30’N	(c) Tropic of Cancer
(4) 66°30′ S	(d) Arctic Circle
	(e) Great Circle
	(f) Prime Meridian

Answer:
1 – c
2 – b
3 – d
4 – a

Complete the following sentence:

Question 1.
While describing the location of a place, we need to consider _______.
Answer:
only one parallel and one meridian

Question 2.
For describing the extent of a region, we need to consider _________.
Answer:
two parallels and two meridians at the extreme ends of the region

Question 3.
For describing the extent of linear features like a river or road we need to consider ______.
Answer:
the latitudes and longitude of their terminal points

Question 4.
All places between 23°30′ N and S of the ! equator receive perpendicular rays _____.
Answer:
on two days in a year

Question 5.
Depending on the seasons, daytime can be greater than 24 hours in areas between ________.
Answer:
the polar circles and the poles

Question 6.
All places between 23° 30′ N and South of equator ______ rays on two days in a year.
Answer:
receive perpendicular

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What are Great Circles used for?
Answer:
Great Circles are used for finding the minimum distance between any two places on the surface of the earth.

Question 2.
Where is Vatican City located?
Answer:
Vatican City is the smallest country in the world located within Italy on the Italian peninsula.

Question 3.
Why is the Prime Meridian considered an important meridian?
Answer:
The prime meridian is an important meridian because its main purpose is to fix the global standard time and co-ordinate the standard times of different countries.

6th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• The Earth and the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Let us Use the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Weather and Climate Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Temperature Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Importance of Oceans Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Rocks and Rock Types Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Energy Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Occupations Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Natural Resources Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 Geography Chapter 8 Question Answer Natural Resources Maharashtra Board

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Natural Resources Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Natural Resources Class 6 Questions And Answers

A. What is the use of the following resources?

Question 1.
Water
Answer:

• Right from the time we get up in the morning, we keep on using water till we go to bed at night.
• We obtain salt from sea water.
• Plants and aquatic animals like fish also live in water.

Question 2.
Forests
Answer:

• We collect wood from the forest for various purposes.
• In order to fulfill our needs we also obtain products like rubber, resin, fruits, medicinal plants, etc. from forests.
• Forests are the habitat of many animals.

Question 3.
Animals
Answer:

• Man uses animals for a variety of reasons.
• Horses, oxen, camel, asses, etc. are animals employed for ploughing, riding, transporting goods, etc.
• Goats, cows, buffaloes are used as milch animals.
• Animals provide meat, eggs, bone powder, hide, etc.

Question 4.
Minerals
Answer:

• We get different metals and chemicals from minerals.
• Some chemicals are used in preparing different medicines.
• Metallic minerals are used for obtaining different metals such as iron, bauxite, etc.
• Non-metallic minerals are used in obtaining various chemicals like gypsum, rock salt, calcite, etc.

Question 5.
Land.
Answer:

• Living things that are bom on land, grow, live and die on the land itself.
• Land is used for construction as well as trade.

B. Complete the following flow chart:

Answer:

C. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What factors influence the formation of soil?
Answer:
The formation of soil mainly depends on the original rock, climate, organic components, slope of the land and time.

Question 2.
Which products are obtained from forests?
Answer:
We obtain products like wood, rubber, resin, fruits, medicinal plants, etc. from forests.

Question 3.
What are the uses of minerals?
Answer:
Metallic minerals are used for obtaining different metals such as iron, bauxite, etc. and non-metallic minerals are used in obtaining various chemicals like gypsum, rock salt, calcite, etc.

Question 4.
What are the purposes for which land is used?
Answer:

• Living things that are bom on land, grow, live and die on land itself.
• Construction and trade are some other purposes for which land is used.

Question 5.
Why are various living things found on the land in different proportions?
Answer:
Depending on the characteristics of land and climate, various living things are found on land in different proportions.

Activity:

Collect the pictures of and information about the sources of freshwater.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Natural Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Observe the picture given in figure 8.1. and answer the following question.

Question 1.
What do you see in the pictures?
Answer:
I can see different animals and plants in the given pictuers.

Question 2.
How many of these animals or plants do you know?
Answer:
I know all these animals and plants in the given picture.

Question 3.
Which of these things have you seen in reality?
Answer:
I have seen all the cotton ball, mango and horse in reality.

Question 4.
Have you ever used these things or seen them being used?
Answer:
Yes, I have.

Question 5.
Which of our needs do some of these fulfill?
Answer:

• Horse is used in transportation
•  Mango is a fruit we eat from
• Cotton is used to make cloth.

Question 6.
What probable use of the unused things can you think of?
Answer:

• Octopus can be kept in aquarium
• Lizards can be kept in the gardens to eat tiny insects.

Observe all the figures and discuss them in the class:



Can you tell?

Question 1.
What different activities are the individuals in the pictures engaged in?
Answer:
The different activities that the individuals in ; the pictures are engaged in are: agriculture, ; fishing, collection of honey, drawing water, ! gathering wood, mining, masonry, extraction i of salt, collection of rubber latex, gathering of resin from trees, converting wind into usable energy, transportation by pack animals.

Question 2.
What things will they obtain through these activities?
Answer:
They will obtain foodgrains, fish, honey, water, wood, minerals, house to live, salt, rubber, resin and energy which can be used for various purposes.

Question 3.
What are the animals in the picture doing?
Answer:
While the bullocks are ploughing the fields, j the donkey is used as a pack animal, for transporting heavy loads.

Question 4.
What is the use of the tall device in figure 8.12 raised on the ground?
Answer:
The tall device is a windmill which converts i wind into usable energy through the rotation ; of wheel which are adjustable. The energy thus i created can be used for a variety of purposes I such as generating electricity, grinding grains or spices, pumping water, sawing wood, aerating ponds, etc.

Question 5.
What is being loaded in the truck? What are we going to get from it?
Answer:
is being loaded into a truck from the mining area. We get minerals from the same.

Question 6.
Where are all these human activities being performed other than fishing?
Answer:
All these human activities are being performed on land.

Think a little!

Question 1.
List the various things for which we use water. Identify the things that lead to wastage of water.
Answer:
(a) Use of water.

• For agricultural and industrial purposes.
• For drinking and cooking.
• For personal hygiene.
• For our pets.
• Washing clothes and utensils.
• Cleaning houses, vehicles, etc.
• Watering plants in the garden.

(b) Identify the things that leads to wastage of water.

• When we pollute water.
• When we don’t save water by building dams, water wells and irrigation systems.
• When we waste water by using it excessively in flushes, bathrooms, etc.
• When we don’t use water-efficient faucets (taps), showers, etc.
• When we don’t repair faulty faucets.
• When we don’t close the tap when not required.
• When we use fountains and sprinklers in the gardens.

Question 2.
Name the different metals from which the things in your house are made. Make a chart of things and metals.
Answer:

Things	Metals
Cupboard	Stainless steel
Furniture	Iron
Idols of worship	Bronze
Lantern	Silver
Electrical wiring	Copper
Utensils	Copper and steel

Question 3.
List the occupations carried out on land.
Answer:

• Farming.
• Mining.
• Lumbering (Cutting down of trees).
• Extraction such as salt extraction, etc.
• Construction
• Beekeeping, etc.

Observe figure (Textbook Page no. 48) and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which vegetations do you find in the following location.
Answer:

Latitudes	Vegetation
(1) 90° Pole	Tundra
(2) 0° Equator	Equatorial evergreen
(3) 30°	Tropical Grasslands
(4) 60°	Mixed Forest
(5) 75° – 90°	Coniferous
(6) 15°	Deciduous

Question 2.
In which forest do we find tall trees?
Answer:
Equatorial Evergreen forest.

Question 3.
Name the grassland shown in the picture.
Answer:
Tropical grassland and temperate grassland.

Question 4.
Which vegetation indicate hot deserts?
Answer:
Thorny scrubs

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Natural Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Complete the following statements using appropriate options:

Question 1.
_____ is a resource which never depletes. (Air, ‘Water, Animals)
Answer:
Air

Question 2.
Formation of mature soil is a very ______ process. (sudden, fast, slow)
Answer:
slow

Question 3.
Rock is a mixture of ________ (stone, black pebbles, minerals)
Answer:
minerals

Question 4.
The proportion of land on earth is ________%.
Answer:
29.20

Question 5.
_______ are the habitats for many animals. (Grassland, Vegetation,Thorny scrubs)
Answer:
Grassland

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
(1) Horses and oxens	(a) used for hauling logs
(2) Cows and buffaloes	(b) transportation of goods
(3) Water available on the earth for use	(c) milk animals
(4) Settlements flourished	(d) 0.003%
	(e) Huang He

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Name the following:

Question 1.
The natural things that man uses:
Answer:
Natural resources.

Question 2.
A resource that is available in plenty:
Answer:
Air.

Question 3.
The basins along which man began to live a settled life in the past:
Answer:

• Huang He
• Sindhu (Indus)
• Nile and Euphrates

Question 4.
Habitats of animals:
Answer:
Forest or grasslands.

Question 5.
Any two products we get from animals:
Answer:

• Meat
• Eggs

Question 6.
Metallic minerals used for obtaining different metals:
Answer:

• Iron
• Bauxite

Question 7.
Non-metallic minerals used in obtaining various chemicals:
Answer:

• Gypsum
• Rock salt
• Calcite

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Why are natural resources invaluable?
Answer:
Most of the natural resources are limited in nature and therefore they are invaluable.

Question 2.
What do we need air for?
Answer:
We need air for various purposes right from breathing to burning.

Question 3.
Why do the farmers plough the soil?
Answer:
The farmers plough the soil to make the land cultivable.

Question 4.
How are plants classified?
Answer:
Plants are broadly classified into grass, shrubs and trees.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Soil is a very important resource for agriculture.
Answer:

• The farmer ploughs the soil and makes the land cultivable.
• In this cultivable land, he grows various crops and fulfills his own and other’s need for food.
• For this purpose, he uses the ‘soil’ that is naturally available on land as a resource.
• Therefore soil is very important resource of agriculture.

Question 2.
Man began to live a settled life.
Answer:

• Man has successfully experimented with some grasses to obtain food grains.
• This helped him to avoid painful wandering for gathering food.
• Therefore, man began to lead a settled life.

Question 3.
It is necessary to conserve the natural resources.
Answer:

• Every living thing makes use of natural resources according to its need.
• However, man started using many of these resources for himself alone with the help of his intellectual power.
• Later, the increase in population and the greed of humans led to exploitative use of resources.
• This began to upset the balance in nature.
• So, it is necessary that man also must use the natural resources only according to his need, that is judiciously and thus conserve the natural resources.

Question 4.
Land is an invaluable resource.
Answer:

• All the activities of obtaining natural resources are being carried out on land.
• Land obtained at strategic location is used for construction as well as trade.
• Hence, land is an invaluable resource.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Why are various living things found on the land in different proportions?
Answer:
Depending on the characteristics of land and climate, various living things are found on land in different proportions.

Question 2.
Which are the various geographical conditions which all living things try to adapt to?
Answer:
All living things try to adapt to various geographical conditions like rocky terrain, steep slopes, flat plains, mountainous regions, forest-covered areas, river basin, etc.

6th Std Geography Questions And Answers:

• The Earth and the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Let us Use the Graticule Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Comparing a Globe and a Map; Field Visits Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Weather and Climate Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Temperature Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Importance of Oceans Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Rocks and Rock Types Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Natural Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Energy Resources Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers
• Human Occupations Class 6 Geography Questions And Answers

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 7 History Chapter 11 Question Answer Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Maharashtra Board

Class 7 History Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Class 7 Questions And Answers

1. Name them:

Question 1.
They came from Afghanistan.
Answer:
The Pathans

Question 2.
They settled at the foothills of the Himalayas.
Answer:
The Rohillas

Question 3.
The brother of Nanasaheb Peshwa.
Answer:
Raghunathrao

Question 4.
The chief of Jats at Mathura.
Answer:
Surajmaljat

Question 5.
Defeated the Nizam at Rakshasbhuvan near Paithan.
Answer:
Madhavrao

2.Write in brief about:

Question 1.
Raising the Maratha standard at Attack. Or Hoisting the Maratha standard at Attack.
Answer:

• Najib Khan, the Rohillas chief could not tolerate the Maratha supremacy.
• Najib Khan requested Abdali to invade India again. He captured Delhi.
• He returned to Afghanistan and collected huge wealth.
• Raghunathrao and Madhavrao Holkar marched to the North and captured Delhi.
• They defeated Abdali’s officers and captured Punjab.

Question 2.
Conflict with the Afghans.
Or
Battle with the Afghans.
Answer:

• In CE 1751, Ahmadshah Abdali conquered Punjab.
• Due to that, the Mughals were facing threat from Abdali.
• So they joined hands with the Marathas to protect Delhi.
• The Emperor signed a treaty with Marathas in 1752.
• As per the treaty, the Marathas agreed to protect the Mughal Empire.
• The Maratha army marched towards Delhi.
• As Abdali got this news, he returned to his native country (Afghanistan).
• Due to the Maratha power, the threat of Abdali got subsided.

Question 3.
The after effects of the battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• The Marathas were defeated.
• The whole generation of Marathas were killed.
• Many brave soldiers died on the battlefield.
• It caused a great harm to the reputation of Marathas in Northern India.

3. Arrange chronologically:

• The battle of Rakshasbhuvan
• The death of Tipu Sultan
• The death of Madhavrao Peshwa
• The battle of Panipat
• The battle of Buradi Ghat

Answer:

• The battle of Buradi Ghat
• The battle of Panipat
• The battle of Rakshasbhuvan
• The death of Madhavrao Peshwa
• The death of Tipu Sultan.

4. Find the names of people in the chapter :

Question 1.
N _ n _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Nanasaheb

Question 2.
D _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Dattaji

Question 3.
N _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Nizamshah

Activity:

Find more information about the battle of Panipat on the internet and make a presentation in your class.

Class 7 History Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
Ahmadshah Abdali was the Emperor of ______. (Mysore, Paithan, Afghanistan)
Answer:
Afghanistan

Question 2.
The chief of the Maratha artillery was ____. (Ibrahim khan, Hyder Ali, Najib Khan)
Answer:
Ibrahim khan

Question 3.
The Marathas defeated _________ in a battle at Motitalao near Srirangapattan. (Hyder Ali, Ibrahim Khan, Abdali)
Answer:
Hyder Ali

Question 4.
Safadarjung was the Nawab of ______.(Mysore, Paithan, Ayodhya)
Answer:
Ayodhya

Question 5.
_____ the ruler of Afghanistan conquered Punjab in 1751 CE. (Ahmadshah Abdali, Rohillas, Hyder Ali)
Answer:
Ahmadshah Abdali

Question 6.
Nanasaheb sent ________ to the North to crush Abdali. (Sadashivraobhau, Surajmal Jat, Vishwasrao)
Answer:
Sadashivraobhau

Question 7.
Hyder Ali usurped the throne of _____ (Mysore, Paithan, Ayodhya)
Answer:
Mysore

Question 8.
______was a Rohilla chief. (Ibrahimkhan, Najibkhan, Ahmadshah)
Answer:
Najibkhan

Question 9.
Madhavrao defeated the Nizam at ______ near Paithan. (Srirangapattan, Rakshasbhuvan, Buradi Ghat)
Rakshasbhuvan

Question 10.
After the death of Peshwa Nanasaheb, his son ________ succeeded him. (Bajirao II, Madhavrao, Vishwasrao)
Answer:
Madhavrao

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The Nawab of Ayodhya	(a) Raja Sawal Jaysingh.
(2) The Rohilla Chief	(b) Safadarjung
(3) The Chief of the Jats	(c) Najib Khan
(4) The chief of the Maratha artillery	(d)  Surajmal (e)  Ibrahim Khan Gardi

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Find the name of people in the chapter:

Question 1.
I _ _ _ h _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Ibrahimkhan

Name them:

Question 1.
He met a heroic death in the battle.
Answer:
Dattaji

Question 2.
He became Peshwa after Bajirao.
Answer:
Nanasaheb

Question 3.
They do not help Marathas in the Battle of Panipat.
Answer:
Jats and Rajputs

Question 4.
The army of the Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761.
Answer:
Battle of Panipat

Question 5.
The Sultan who took advantage of the defeat of the Marathas at Panipat and attacked the Maratha territory in Karnataka.
Answer:
Sultan Hyder Ali

Question 6.
The death of this capable Peshwa caused a great loss to Maratha Kingdom.
Answer:
Peshwa Madhavrao

Question 7.
Understood that only Marathas can rule over the chaos in North and wished that Marathas should rule the North.
Answer:
Abdali and his heirs

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Why did the Peshwa send Dattaji Shinde and Janakoji Shinde to the North?
Answer:
The Peshwa sent Dattaji Shinde and Janakoji Shinde to crush the power of Najibkhan and to get a firm hold over the Punjab.

Question 2.
Why did the Nawab of Ayodhya invite the Marathas?
Answer:
The Nawab invited the Marathas to subdue the Rohillas.

Question 3.
Who helped the wounded Maratha soldiers in the Panipat battle?
Answer:
Surajmal Jat, Queen Kishori helped the wounded Maratha soldiers in the Panipat battle.

Question 4.
When did the third battle of Panipat start?
Answer:
The Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761 and the third battle of Panipat started.

Question 5.
What conditions were laid in the treaty signed between the Emperor and the Marathas in April 1752?
Answer:
According to this treaty, the Marathas agreed to protect the Mughal Empire from enemies like the Rohillas, Jats, Rajputs and Afghans, etc. In return, the Marathas got cash and the rights to collect Chauthai from a few regions of North (Punjab, Multan, Rajputana, Sindh and Rohilkhand).

Question 6.
With whom did Nanasaheb campaign against Abdali?
Answer:
Jayappa Shinde, Madhavrao Holkar along with Nanasaheb campaigned against Abdali.

Question 7.
Why did Hyder Ali attack Marathas when they were defeated at Panipat and they had become weak?
Answer:
Hyder Ali thought that the Marathas were defeated at Panipat and they had become weak and so he attacked them.

Question 8.
In which battle did the Marathas defeat Hyder Ali?
Answer:
In the battle at Moti Talav, near Srirangapattan

Question 9.
From where did the Pathans migrate and settle?
Answer:
The Pathans had migrated from Afghanistan and they settled near Ayodhya at the foot of the Himalayas.

Question 10.
How did the history of Maratha describe Madhavrao?
Answer:
Madhavrao is described as an honest, hardworking, determined and a caring administrator for the common people.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
The battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• Sadashivraobhau captured Delhi.
• The third battle of Panipat started.
• The Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761.
• A bullet hit Vishwasrao and he fell dead.
• When Sadashivraobhau heard this, he attacked the enemy in madness, and disappeared from the battlefield.
• The Maratha soldiers lost courage.
• Abdali with the reserve contingent attacked the Marathas.
• The Marathas got defeated.

Complete the following family tree of Peshwa:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. Balaji alias Nanasaheb
2. Raghunathrao
3. Madhavrao (Peshwa)
4. Sawai Madhavrao (Peshwa)

Question 2.
Find the name of people in the lesson in following grid:
Answer:

7th Std History Questions And Answers:

• Sources of History Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Religious Synthesis Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Foundation of the Swaraj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Conflict with the Mughals Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Administration of the Swaraj Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• An Ideal Ruler Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Maratha War of Independence Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• The Expansion of the Maratha Power Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Progression of the Empire Class 7 History Questions And Answers
• Life of the People in Maharashtra Class 7 History Questions And Answers