Bhagya – Page 10 – Maharashtra Board Solutions

The World Since 1945 – II Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 Maharashtra Board

February 11, 2025February 10, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 10 The World Since 1945 – II Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 10 Question Answer The World Since 1945 – II Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 The World Since 1945 – II Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 10 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The __________ Missile Crisis took place in 1962. (American, Cuban, Russian, Chinese)
Answer:
Cuban

Question 2.
In 1978, the United States held a conference at __________ to resolve the Arab-Israel dispute. (Camp David, Helsinki, Paris, Geneva)
Answer:
Camp David

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Iran – Ayatollah Khomeini
(b) Afghanistan – Babrak Karmal
(c) Soviet Union – Richard Nixon
Answer:
(c) USA – Richard Nixon

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Prohibiting ships from entering the port of a country.
Answer:
Naval Blockade

Question 2.
Reconstruction of the political and economic system was established in the Soviet Union.
Answer:
Perestroika

2A. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 10 The World Since 1945 - II 2A Q1
Answer:

2B. Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Map of East Europe today.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 10 The World Since 1945 - II 2B Q1

Question i.
Name any 4 countries formed after the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
Answer:
Russia, Ukraine, Belarus, Armenia, Georgia Latvia, Estonia, Moldova, Lithuania, Azerbaijan.

Question ii.
Name two neighbouring countries of Hungary.
Answer:
Austria, Croatia, Serbia, Romania, Slovakia.

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Non-aligned countries put forth the demand for NAFTA.
Answer:
This statement is False.

North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) was set up as a ‘trade bloc’ in January 1994.
It was signed between the USA, Canada, and Mexico to encourage free trade between the three North American Nations (trilateral trade bloc).

Question 2.
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was the founder of ASEAN.
Answer:
This statement is False.

Association of South-East Asian Nations was established in 1967 by the Bangkok declaration.
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the founders of the Non-Aligned Movement in 1961 at Belgrade.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Cold War and Non-aligned movement.
Answer:
The Cold War began after the end of the Second World War in 1945. It refers to a period of intense ideological hostility, build-up of armaments, the establishment of military alliances e.g., NATO, WARSAW Pact, etc., and even proxy wars such as in Korea and Vietnam. There were many efforts from 1945 – 1991 on the part of both superpowers to bring about detente i.e., reduction of hostilities and tensions e.g., Moscow Summit (1972). However, for most of this period, the world was divided into the Capitalist bloc (led by the USA and including England, France, etc.) and Communist bloc (led by USSR and including East European nations).

There were a number of newly independent countries as well as some other Third World countries who did not want to join the military alliances of any power bloc. Through the initiative of Jawaharlal Nehru (India) and Marshall Tito (Yugoslavia), the NAM was formally established in 1961 at Belgrade. Other member countries included Ghana, Egypt, Sri Lanka. Indonesia, etc. Non-alignment is based on two main principles:

independent understanding of world affairs
peace approach.

It does not mean political neutrality or passivity but active participation in world affairs without joining any power bloc or military alliance.

5. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the term – New Cold War.
Answer:
Two events that occurred in 1979 change the course of detente.

Islamic Revolution in Iran under leader Ayatollah Khomeini overthrew the rule of M.R. Shah Pahlavi. The new government withdrew from the CENTO alliance.
The Soviet Union invaded Afghanistan in 1979 and installed Babrak Karmal as the President. The insurgent groups in Afghanistan (mujahideen) fought against this government (1979 – 1989). The new Cold War refers to the end of the period of detente and return of tensions between the USA and the USSR.

Question 2.
What is a trade bloc?
Answer:
A trade bloc is created when a group of nations makes special agreements regarding their economic relationships with each other. The agreements generally focus on the relaxation or even elimination of trade barriers. The most common types of trade barriers are tariffs (taxes on imports) and quotas (limits on the quantities of various imports).

6. Express your opinion on the following.

Question 1.
India played an important role in the Cold War.
Answer:
India was a non-aligned member during the cold war. It means India was neither on the side of the USA nor the Soviet Union. This was for official purposes, which enabled us to avoid giving away our land or resources to the Soviets or Americans (which they could use as a military base and eventually also make India their vassal). Having said that, unofficially India fully supported the Soviet Union.

Soviet Union protected India from the onslaught of the USA, during the India Pakistan war of 1971. The indo-soviet pact during 1971 was spearheaded by PM Indira Gandhi. Further, India cooperated and collaborated greatly with the Soviet Union in the fields of defense, manufacturing industries, medicine, nuclear energy, science among others, however, India was never a direct party to the cold war standoff between the USA and the Soviet Union.

7. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate on the period of Detente.
(a) Meaning
(b) Initiatives are taken by superpowers to reduce tensions
Answer:
(a) Meaning of detente: Detente refers to efforts to bring about a reduction in tensions between the USA and the USSR. This was an attempt by the two ‘superpowers’ themselves. The Cuban Missile Crises brought in a realization of a possible nuclear confrontation and the need to deescalate the tensions.

(b) Initiatives taken by the superpowers to reduce tensions: After the Cuban Missile Crisis, both the USA and USSR made several efforts at reducing bilateral tensions (detente).
This included:

a hotline was set up between the main leaders of the two nations
the signing of agreements such as NNPT, LTBT to reduce nuclear weapons
1972, Moscow Summit between President Nixon (USA) and Brezhnev (USSR).

Other initiatives were-

Conference at Paris (1973) to bring the Vietnam crisis to an end.
Helsinki conference on security in Europe (1975) was attended by 35 nations including the USA and USSR. It aimed to reduce the tensions between eastern and western European countries.
The first joint US-Soviet space flight was the Apollo-Soyuz Test Project (1975)
The USA held a conference at Camp David in 1978 to resolve the long-pending Arab-Israel dispute. The ‘Framework for Peace in the Middle East was signed between President Carter (USA) President Sadat (Egypt) and Prime Minister Begin (Israel).

Find out! (Text Book Page No. 86)

Can you find out some of the summit meetings that have taken place between leaders of India and Pakistan in recent years? Who were the leaders who participated and when and where did the meetings take place?
Answer:

The Delhi Pact (Liaquat-Nehru Pact) was signed on 8th April 1950 as a bilateral treaty between India and Pakistan. It was signed in New Delhi by the then Indian, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistan, Prime Minister Liaquat Ali Khan.
Tashkent Declaration (10th January 1966) was a peace agreement after the 1965 Indo-Pakistan war signed between Mohammed Ayub Khan (President of Pakistan) and Lai Bahadur Shastri (Prime Minister of India) in Tashkent.
Shimla Agreement was signed on 2nd September 1972 after the 1971 Indo-Pakistan war. Signatories were Indian Prime Minister Mrs. Indira Gandhi and Pakistan Prime Minister Zulfikar Ali Bhutto.
The non-Nuclear Aggression Agreement was signed on 21st December 1988 in is Islamabad by Rajiv Gandhi (Prime Minister of India) and Benazir Bhutto (Prime Minister of Pakistan).
Lahore Agreement – Signed on 21st February 1999. Signatories were Shri. Atal Bihari Vajpayee (India) and Nawaz Sharif (Pakistan).
Agra Agreement (2001). The Negotiators were Shri. Vajpayee and Pervez Musharaf (Pakistan) but negotiators broke down.

Activity (Text Book Page No. 92)

Make a list of all summit meetings of SAARC.
Answer:

Summit year	Place
1st – 1985	Dhaka (Bangladesh)
2nd – 1986	Bangalore (India)
3rd – 1987	Kathmandu (Nepal)
4th – 1988	Islamabad (Pakistan)
5th – 1990	Male (Maldives)
6th – 1991	Colombo (Sri Lanka)
7th – 1993	Dhaka (Bangladesh)
8th – 1995	New Delhi (India)
9th – 1997	Male (Maldives)
10th – 1998	Colombo (Sri Lanka)
11th – 2002	Kathmandu (Nepal)
12th – 2004	Islamabad (Pakistan)
13th – 2005	Dhaka (Bangladesh)
14th – 2007	New Delhi (India)
15th – 2008	Colombo (Sri Lanka)
16th – 2010	Thimphu (Bhutan)
17th – 2011	Addu City (Maldives)
18th – 2014	Kathmandu (Nepal)
19th – 2016	Islamabad (Pakistan) (event canceled)

11th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

The World Since 1945 – I Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 Maharashtra Board

February 11, 2025February 10, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 9 Question Answer The World Since 1945 – I Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 9 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
In 1949, China became a communist country under the leadership of ___________ (Khrushchev, Mao Zedong, Joseph Stalin, Ho Chi Minh)
Answer:
Mao Zedong

Question 2.
The principle of peaceful co-existence was put forth by ___________ (Eisenhower, Joseph Stalin, Khrushchev, Jawaharlal Nehru)
Answer:
Khrushchev

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Period of the dominance of European powers.
Answer:
Eurocentric

Question 2.
The conflict between America and the Soviet Union.
Answer:
Cold War

1C. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Hungary, Romania, Bulgaria, France.
Answer:
France (not from the soviet bloc)

Question 2.
Italy, Poland, Spain, Greece.
Answer:
Poland (Not from the capitalist bloc nations)

2A. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 - I 2A Q1
Answer:

2B. Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

See a map of the Division of Europe after World War II.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 - I 2B Q1

Question i.
Name two East European countries under influence of the Soviet Union.
Answer:
Poland, Hungary, Czechoslovakia, Bulgaria, Romania.

Question 2.
Name two West European countries under the influence of the United States.
Answer:
France, Spain, Italy, Belgium, England.

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
After the Bolshevik Revolution, Soviet Russia became a capitalist nation.
Answer:
This statement is False.

After the 1917 Bolshevik Revolution. Vladimir Lenin established Socialism based on Marxist doctrine in Russia.
Thus, Russia became the first communist nation in the world. The USA is an example of a capitalist nation.

Question 2.
The Bandung Conference brought Cold War in Asia.
Answer:
This statement is False.

In 1955, the Bandung conference had 24 participating countries and sought to broad base the concept of regionalism to Asia and Africa.
The Bandung conference tried to bring cooperation and stability to the regions.

4. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the term regionalism.
Answer:
Regional organisations are created by countries from a particular geographic region. They form groups to promote their national interest in a cooperative manner. They try to establish their independent identity. This process of regional level cooperation is also called regionalism.

While geographic linkages are important, sometimes some functional issues become the basis of regional cooperation. These can be in areas like transport and communication, energy, health, etc.

The process of regionalism usually begins with a political dialogue amongst the participants. Such a dialogue may lead to the creation of an organisation. Organisations like the European Union (EU), Association of South-East Asian Nations (ASEAN), or South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) are examples of such regional groupings.

Question 2.
Discuss the role of the United Nations (UNO).
Answer:
The UNO was established in 1945. Its main functions include to
(i) Maintain International Peace and Security: The United Nations came into being with one main purpose i.e., the maintenance of international peace and security. The UN does this by working to prevent conflict, helping parties in conflict to make peace, peacekeeping activities, and creating the conditions to allow peace to hold and flourish.

(ii) Protect Human Rights: The promotion and protection of human rights is a key purpose and guiding principle of the UN. On 10th December 1948, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted.

(iii) Deliver Humanitarian Aid: One of the purposes of the United Nations is “to achieve international cooperation in solving international problems of an economic, social, cultural or humanitarian character.” The international community relies on the UN to coordinate humanitarian relief operations in times of natural and man-made disasters.

(iv) Promote Sustainable Development: The global understanding of development has changed over the years. The UN seeks to promote sustainable development, that is, a development that promotes prosperity and economic opportunity, greater social well-being, and protection of the environment.

(v) Uphold International Law: The development of and respect for international law has been a key part of the work of the UNO. This work is carried out in many ways – by courts, tribunals, multilateral treaties, and by the Security Council and ICJ.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate on the dimensions of the Cold War.
(a) political
(b) ideological
(c) economic
(d) security
Answer:
The hostile relations between the USA and its’ allies and the USSR and its allies along with ideological conflict between them is called the ‘Cold War’ or Bipolarity. Its dimensions are
(a) Political dimension: was the aspect of the struggle for political influence over the areas under the control of the two countries. Areas under Soviet influence included East Germany, Poland, Czechoslovakia, Hungary, Romania, Bulgaria, and Albania. Areas under the United States’ influence included Netherlands, Denmark, Belgium, West Germany, France, Italy, Spain, Greece, and United Kingdom. Finland was forced to opt for neutrality to ensure that both the United States and the Soviet Union did not clash in the region.

(b) Ideological dimension: Eastern Europe adopted Socialist ideology under the influence of the Soviet Union and followed a Socialist form of government. Western Europe adopted capitalist ideology under the leadership of the United States. These countries had democratic governments.

(c) Economic dimension: East European countries with socialist governments followed the socialist economic system. This meant that the government or the public sector would play a dominant role in the economic system. West European countries that followed the democratic system of government had a capitalist form of economy. Here the private sector played a dominant role in the economic system.

(d) Security dimension: Military alliances were created in Europe to protect these countries. The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) was created in 1949 as a military alliance to defend West European countries and the United States from the threat of invasion from the Soviet Union and East Europe. Warsaw Pact was created in 1955 to defend East European countries and the Soviet Union from the threat from Western Europe and the United States.

11th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

Public Administration Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Maharashtra Board

February 11, 2025February 10, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 7 Public Administration Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Question Answer Public Administration Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Public Administration Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 7 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The backbone of any administrative system is _____________ (material resource, human resource, natural resource, geographic resource)
Answer:
human resource

Question 2.
Gullick and _____________ put forth the acronym POSDCORB. (Woodrow Wilson, Herbert Simon, Urwick, Dwight Waldo)
Answer:
Urwick

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Kautilya – Arthashastra
(b) Aristotle – The Politics
(c) Machiavelli – Republic
Answer:
Machiavelli – The Prince or Plato – Republic

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
The systematic management of governmental affairs in 18th century Germany and Austria.
Answer:
Cameralism

Question 2.
Efforts of companies to integrate social and environmental concerns.
Answer:
Corporate Social Responsibility

2. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
The first step in administration is staffing.
Answer:
This statement is False.

According to Gullick and Urwick, public administration should focus on aspects related to the executive branch of government.
It is explained by the acronym POSDCORB. Thus, the first step in administration is Planning, followed by Organisation and then Staffing.

Question 2.
Public Administration as an academic discipline was born in India.
Answer:
This statement is False.

Public Administration as an academic discipline originated in the USA and Woodrow Wilson was the first person to emphasize the need to study it.
However, Kautilya’s ‘Arthashastra’ was a text on administration and political economy in ancient India.

3. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Narrow and Broad perspective of Public Administration (Private administration and Public administration).
Answer:
Private administration is concerned with achieving the goals of private business organizations. The similarities between private and public administration are that both aim to serve the people, have similar types of hierarchy and management systems, and rely on common skills, techniques, and procedures.

The differences between private and public administration relate to aspects like scope, motive, responsibility, weakness, and financial control. Private administration is business-like with a narrower scope, wealth creation as the motive, responsibility to the owners, fewer chances of red-tapism, and internal financial control.

Public administration is bureaucratic with a very wide scope and motive as public service, responsibility to the ministers, intrinsic weakness of red-tapism, and external financial controls.

Question 2.
National Administration and State Administration (Rural administration and Urban administration).
Answer:
At the local level, the administration is either urban or rural. Urban administration includes political and administrative dimensions. For cities, there are Municipal Corporations (with a population of 3 lakhs and more) headed by the Mayor, Municipal Councils (Nagar Palika), City Councils (Nagar Panchayats), and Cantonment Boards. There is also a Municipal Commissioner who performs administrative functions and a Collector who looks after revenue, law, and order, land records, etc.

Rural administration includes three tiers i.e., Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti, and Gram Panchayat. Developmental administration includes Chief Executive Officer, Block Development Officer, and Gram Sevak. There is also the Collector and Tehsildar.

4. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the functioning of the administration.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 7 Public Administration 4 Q1

(i) At the national level, the work of the Central Government is conducted by various ministries (departments). For example, there are ministries of Agriculture, Health, Home, Defence, etc. Each ministry (or department) is headed by a Minister. Below the Minister is the bureaucracy or the administrative machinery. Besides the ministries, there are such institutions as the Election Commission, Union Public Service Commission. NITI Aayog, etc. These also require administrators or a bureaucracy.

(ii) At the State level also, there are various ministries and commissions that do the work of the government. The ministries of the State are also headed by a Minister and staffed by the bureaucracy.

(iii) At the local level, the administration is of two types: urban and rural administration. At the district level_ the highest administrative officer is the collector. In large cities, the Municipal Commissioner is in charge of the Municipality or Municipal Corporation. In rural areas, at the level of the Tehsil, the Tehsildar looks after the administration.

(iv) There is a close link between political leadership and administrative machinery. At the national, state levels and local levels, the political leaders are closely linked to the administrative machinery.

(v) The recruitment for all administrative posts at all levels is done through competitive examinations conducted by the government. At the central government level, the UPSC and Staff Selection Commission are the bodies that conduct these examinations.

Question 2.
Explain the steps in public policymaking.
Answer:
Public Policy refers to the new approach to understanding aspects of government activities for public welfare ‘ that is beyond simple administrative activities for e.g., Ayushman Bharat which aims to provide universal access to good quality health care in India.

Public policy can be understood in three steps.

Policy Choice: Elected representatives, bureaucrats, and others decide the on which concerns of citizens to deal with, various options available about how to deal with it, and the formulation of a programme are then decided for e.g., anti-malaria programme (its objectives and implementation).
Policy Output: Actual implementation of the policy takes place and policy output is determined
Policy Impact (evaluation stage): This involves assessment of the objectives to determine policy impact and any improvements if required.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Define public administration and explain its scope with reference to the following points.
(a) narrow perspective
(b) wider perspective
Answer:
Public Administration is a sub-discipline of Political Science. It focuses on ‘government in action’ i.e., implementation of government decisions, policies, and programmes in fields of social security and welfare, law and order, transport and communication, health and sanitation, etc.

The executive branch of government consists of the Political Executive (council of ministers) and Permanent/ Non-political Executive or Bureaucracy. Public Administration as a subject studies the activity and process of the government. According to Waldo, ‘Public Administration is the art and science of management as applied to the affairs of the state’.

Public Administration broadly includes the following:

Activities of all three branches of government, especially that of the executive branch.
Non-political public bureaucracy operating in a political system.
Management of public affairs and policy execution.
Concerned with public welfare and hence provides service and regulatory functions to the people to attain a good life.

Scope of public Administration.
Public Administration can be studied as two categories.
(a) Narrow perspective – It focuses on aspects related only to the executive branch of government. Gullick and Urwick sum this view in the acronym POSDCORB to denote Planning, Organisation, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting, Budgeting.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 7 Public Administration 5 Q1

Planning – working out in broad outline/ blueprint of what is to be done and methods to be adopted for it. e.g., NITI Aayog has adopted the approach of grassroots – national level.
Organising – establishing the formal structure of authority through which work is delegated, defined, and coordinated e.g. All India services.
Staffing – recruitment, training, and working conditions of personal e.g., in India this is through UPSC.
Directing – making decisions and issuing instructions and orders as the administration is a continuous activity.
Coordinating – interrelating the work of various selections and parts of the organization. eliminate overlapping of work or conflict over responsibility
Reporting – reporting to superiors/higher authorities any information about ongoing/completed tasks. This ensures responsibility and accountability.
Budgeting – refers to fiscal planning, control, and accounting.

(b) Broad perspective – This differs from the narrow, managerial view of public administration. It includes activities of all three branches of the government, their interrelationships. Specialized government functions such as defense, finance, health care, etc. as well as collaborations with private groups e.g., NGO’s in providing services to the community. This view is concerned with techniques of administration (POSDCORB) as well as with substantive matters of administration.

According to Woodrow Wilson, ‘Administration is the most obvious part of the government- it is a government inaction, the most visible, operative side of the government.’

Activity (Text Book Page No.63)

Question 1.
Look at the latest Annual Report of the Ministry of Home, Government of India. Make a list of the main activities of the ministry.
Answer:
The main activities of the Ministry of Home, GOI include the maintenance of internal security and domestic policy.
The departments included under this Ministry are-

Intelligence Bureau (IB)
Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
Border Security Force (BSF)
Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
National Security Guards (NSG)
National Investigation Agency (NIA)
Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB).

11th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

Role of the Judiciary Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Maharashtra Board

February 11, 2025February 10, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Question Answer Role of the Judiciary Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
___________ is the first country to create independent judiciary. (India, United States, United Kingdom, Soviet Union)
Answer:
United States

Question 2.
The primary function of the judiciary is ___________ (making laws, executing laws, adjudication, make appointments)
Answer:
adjudication

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Written Consitution – India
(b) Judicial Review – United Kingdom
(c) Independent Judiciary – United States
Answer:
(b) Judicial Review – USA

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Petition regarding important public concerns.
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

Question 2.
The process of removal of judges.
Answer:
Impeachment

Question 3.
Cases can be heard for the first time only in certain courts.
Answer:
Original Jurisdiction

2. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary 2 Q1
Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
There is no need to approve the appointment of judges by the Senate in the United States.
Answer:
This statement is False.

The Judges of the Supreme Court of America and the courts subordinate to it are appointed by the President of the USA.
These appointments can be confirmed only after the Senate gives its approval.

Question 2.
In India judiciary is independent.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Provisions for judicial independence are provided in the Indian Constitution.
This includes provisions related to appointment, tenure, salary, and allowances, removal from office, etc., of judges so that the judiciary acts in a free and fair manner.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Judiciary and Executive.
Answer:
The judiciary and executive are both organs of the government. The main function of the executive is the implementation of laws and policies while the functions of the judiciary include interpretation of law and adjudication. In India, judges are appointed by the President (nominal executive). Traditionally, these appointments were made after consulting with the existing government (ministry). However, to maintain judicial independence, the collegium of judges recommends names for appointment to the President.

There are many instances where the executive is a party to a dispute either as the plaintiff or as the defendant. Given the power of the Government, any legal dispute between it and one or more citizens is usually unequal. There is a possibility that the Government would use its powers to secure a favourable decision. This is where the independence of the Judiciary becomes important. An independent judiciary ensures that all those who appear before it is treated on an equal plane, and thus makes sure that decisions are in accordance with the law.

Question 2.
Supreme Court and High Court.
Answer:
India has a single integrated judicial system, with the Supreme Court at the apex and followed by the High Courts in the States. The Supreme Court controls all courts and tribunals in the territory of India. The High Court controls and supervises the functioning of the subordinate courts e.g., District Courts, in its territorial jurisdiction. The High Courts have Appellate jurisdiction, regarding decisions of the lower courts while Supreme Court can hear appeals in civil, criminal, and constitutional cases against decisions of the High Courts.

Supreme Court has original Jurisdiction such as in disputes about the election of the President or Vice¬President which are its exclusive jurisdiction. Both, Supreme Court and High Court have Writ Jurisdiction i.e., they can issue directives or writs such as Habeas Corpus in case of violation of a person’s fundamental rights. In case of appointment of judges of High Courts, the President also consults the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

5. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Judiciary must have a leading role in the appointment of judges.
Answer:
One of the main ways to secure judicial independence relates to the appointment of the judges. A judiciary that works under government favour, fear, or pressure i.e., a ‘committed judiciary’ can never give impartial, fair decisions especially when the government is a party in any dispute. The judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the President of India who is expected to be politically neutral.

However, according to the 42nd Amendment Act, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Union Ministry, Hence, executive interference in judicial appointments is a real possibility. Since the 1990s, the Supreme Court ruled that the Judiciary must play a leading role in its judicial appointments.

The Supreme Court set up a Collegium consisting of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the court which would recommend names to the President for appointment to the Supreme Court and the High Courts. The Government’s role in this process has now been minimized.

Question 2.
Judicial activism is significant today.
Answer:
Judiciary in India has started taking a wider view of its functions. For instance, the courts have allowed individuals to file petitions on matters of important public concern. Such cases are known as Public Interest Litigation (PILs). There have been instances where the courts of their own accord, without anyone complaining or filing a petition, have taken note of matters of public concern (Suo moto). This wider view taken by the Judiciary of its functions has been termed as ‘Judicial Activism’.

In recent years, Judicial Activism has led to the courts examining the legality of the decision of the executive over a wide variety of issues including the ones referred to above. Moreover, in many instances, they have also either issued orders on what should be done over many issues or have directed the executive to take action about the same in a specified time period.

There has been much debate over Judicial Activism. Some feel that the judiciary was compelled to intervene because the executive was not discharging its functions properly, while others believe that the courts are exceeding their powers by looking into matters which fall within the jurisdiction of the executive or legislative.

6. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the process of Judicial Review?
(a) Meaning
(b) Need
(c) When and where it started
(d) Indian context
Answer:
(a) Meaning: Judicial Review means the power of the Judiciary to examine if any law passed by the legislature or any executive policy or action is consistent with the Constitution or not, and if it is not then to declare it as unconstitutional and hence null and void.

(b) Need: It becomes necessary to have an institution that would examine whether the laws are consistent with the Constitution or not. That institution should also have the power to declare any law found inconsistent with the Constitution to be invalid and therefore not to be implemented. This would prevent the Legislature from making laws that violate the Constitution. In democracies with written Constitutions, this power is vested in the Judiciary. The Judiciary is not involved in any way in the law-making process. It is an independent body. Hence it has been assigned this power.

(c) When and where it started: The origins of the power of Judicial Review can be traced to a decision of the Supreme Court of the United States of America given in 1803 in a case known as the Marbury vs Madison case. This was for the first time that the American Supreme Court declared a law passed by the United States Congress to be invalid on the grounds that it was inconsistent with the Constitution of the United States. However, it must be noted that the American Constitution does not have an explicit provision that gives the Judiciary the power of Judicial Review. It is an implied power. To date, the American Supreme Court’s power of Judicial Review has been unchallenged. This is so because it is accepted that such a power is necessary to retain the supremacy of the Constitution.

(d) Indian Context: The Constitution of India does not explicitly provide the judiciary with the power of Judicial Review. However, like in the United States, these powers are implied. The Supreme Court of India has on many occasions declared laws passed by the Legislature as being inconsistent with the Constitution and therefore unconstitutional. In the Indian context, the real issue has been whether the amendments to the Constitution can be held unconstitutional. The issue was settled by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). In its judgment, the Court stated that the Constitution of India had a ‘Basic Structure’. The Constitutional Amendments passed by the Parliament have to be consistent with this ‘Basic Structure’, and if they are found to be not, then the Supreme Court would declare them unconstitutional. The power to declare any Amendments as unconstitutional rests only with the Supreme Court.

Activity (Text Book Page No. 52)

Make a list of examples of Judicial Activism in India.
Answer:
Judicial Activism refers to the active role of the judiciary in upholding the rights of citizens and preserving constitutional provisions and the legal system of the country. The judiciary takes an active part wherever the legislature of executive fails to perform its duty, especially to dispense social justice.
Some areas of judicial activism include:

Reforming the BCCI even though it is a private body.
The Supreme Court insisting on a collegium of judges to suggest names for elevation as judges to the High/Supreme courts.
Protection of the ecosystem and environmental jurisprudence.
In regard to the Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1984).
Conduct NEET exam all over the country.
The right to privacy is a part of a fundamental right.
Improving conditions of undertrials.

11th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

Concept of Representation Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Maharashtra Board

February 11, 2025February 10, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Concept of Representation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Question Answer Concept of Representation Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Concept of Representation Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 5 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Ancient Greece had ___________ (dictatorship, direct democracy, indirect democracy, monarchy)
Answer:
Direct democracy

Question 2.
The oldest representative assembly in the world is ___________ (House of Commons, House of Lords, Senate, House of Representative)
Answer:
House of Commons

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
The political system is where people elect representatives to govern themselves.
Answer:
Representative Democracy

1C. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
The Indian National Trade Union Congress, All India Kisan Sabha, National Students Union of India, Indian National Congress
Answer:
Indian National Congress (it is a political party)

2. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Concept of Representation 2 Q1
Answer:

3. Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Governmental and Non-Governmental Organizations.
Answer:
Governmental organizations are public organizations that have a formalized structure. They are formed by election or nomination. They have legal status in terms of their jurisdiction. They are more concerned with political and administrative aspects.

However, such organizations due to their structure and scope may not be able to satisfy the concerns of different sections of the population or to represent various interests and causes. This leads to people who are devoted to the cause coming together as non-profit groups and further their cause. NGO’s work in the field of political and environmental awareness, the welfare of the elderly/women/children/disabled, etc., for e.g., Green Peace (environment), Help Age (senior citizens), CRY (children), AGNI (Political awareness), PFA (animals).

4. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Pressure groups are different from political parties.
Answer:
I agree with the statement.

The political parties are part of the governmental system. They seek to influence government policy from the inside. A pressure group tries to influence the government from the outside. They do not stand for elections or aim to become members of the legislature/ government.
Political parties have a broad agenda. They seek to represent the people for political, social, economic, cultural, and other concerns. Pressure groups usually have a narrow focus. They focus on specific issues or agitations for a specific cause e.g., the environment.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
What is meant by representation? Explain the various methods of representation?
(a) Meaning
(b) Electoral
(c) Non-electoral
(d) Non-official
Answer:
(a) Meaning: The concept of representation is important in any democracy.
Today, most countries have large territories and populations. Hence, direct democracy is not possible. The form of democracy today is indirect democracy or representative democracy. People elect representatives among themselves to govern the country for e.g., in India, Members of Parliament (MP’s), Members of State Legislative Assemblies/ Councils (MLA’s, MLC’s), of corporations, etc., are all our representatives.

(b) Electoral Method: Persons are directly or indirectly elected by the citizens to govern them as members of representative assemblies e.g., General elections to Lok Sabha, Assembly elections.

(c) Non-electoral Method: Representatives occupy their position through nomination or appointment for e.g., President of India appoints 12 Members to the Rajya Sabha.

(d) Non-official Method: Civil society represents the people through various pressure groups like trade unions, student groups, peasant organizations.

6. Suggest ways by which you can encourage people to vote in elections.
Answer:

NGO’s such as AGNI have special programmes designed to encourage people to exercise their franchise.
Street plays, flash mobs at railway stations, talks in colleges about the importance of voting.
Voter enrollment drives to encourage youngsters to vote.
Advertisements, especially involving celebrities as ‘ambassadors’ for the franchise.
In some countries of the world, the franchise is compulsory.

Activity (Text Book Page No. 44)

Question 1.
Write the history of anyone national political party in India.
Answer:
Indian National Congress
Indian National Congress was founded on 28th December 1885 due to the efforts of A.O. Hume, to act as a platform for civil and political dialogue among educated Indians. The first session, held in Bombay with 72 delegates in attendance, elected W.C. Banerjee as its first President. Members were mainly from the Bombay and Madras Presidencies such as Dadabhai Naoroji, Dinshaw Wacha, Pherozshah Mehta, and others. During its early phase, the Congress was led by the Moderates.

The party first split at the Surat session (1907) into two groups i.e., Moderates and Extremists (led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak). The party began to endorse the policy of “Swaraj” (Self-rule) and “Swadeshi” (of our own country), After the death of Lokmanya Tilak, the leadership of the Congress passed into the hands of Mahatma Gandhi. His philosophy was based on the ideals of Satyagraha and Ahimsa. Various movements were organized by Gandhiji such as Non-Cooperation Movement (1920’s), Civil Disobedience (1930’s), and Quit India Movement (1942).

The INC has dominated most of India’s political landscape since Independence. The period 1947-1967 is described as the One-Party Dominant System (OPDS) of the INC. However, Congress dominance has declined. In the UPA government (2004 – 2014) the INC was one of the major parties. At present, it is the main opposition party (2019).

11th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

Constitutional Government Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 4 Maharashtra Board

February 11, 2025February 10, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Constitutional Government Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 4 Question Answer Constitutional Government Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 4 Constitutional Government Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 4 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Unwritten Constitution exists in _____________ (United Kingdom, India .South Africa, United States)
Answer:
United Kingdom

Question 2.
In a parliamentary system there is a _____________ of legislative and executive powers. (separation, coordination, merger, centralisation)
Answer:
merger

Question 3.
The ten amendments to the American Constitution are collectively referred to as _____________ (Bills of Rights, Magna Carta, Basic Structure Doctrine, Fundamental Rights)
Answer:
Bill of Rights

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Magna Carta – England
(b) Veto – United Kingdom
(c) Kesavananda Bharati Case – Basic structure doctrine
Answer:
(b) Veto – USA

1C. Find the odd word out in the given set.

Question 1.
England, Scotland, Wales, Republic of Ireland.
Answer:
The Republic of Ireland (not part of UK)

Question 2.
India, Australia, Canada, Argentina.
Answer:
Argentina (not a parliamentary system)

2. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Indian Federation can be described as a ‘quasi-federation’.
Answer:
This statement is True.

The Indian Constitution provides for dual set of governments i.e Union State governments. There is a distribution of powers on the basis of three lists viz. Union list, State list, and Concurrent list.
However, India has a federal structure with a powerful central government. The constitution framers felt that a strong Union government was needed to ensure the balanced development of the country.

Question 2.
The parliamentary system exists in the United States.
Answer:
This statement is False.

In a Parliamentary system, there is a merger of legislative and executive functioning. There are two executives, i.e., real and normal executives. This is noticed in India, United Kingdom, etc.
the United States follows the Presidential system based on separation of government powers. Here, there is only one executive i.e., President who is directly elected by citizens.

3. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Legislature and Executive in a parliamentary system.
Answer:
In a parliamentary system, there is a fusion of legislative and executive functions. The real executive i.e. the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers is drawn from the Legislature. There are no separate elections for the post of Prime Minister and other Ministers. The Prime Minister and the Ministers play a dual role i.e., they are part of both Legislature and Executive. Thus, they also attend Parliamentary sessions.

The leader of the party or group which commands a majority in the legislature is invited by the nominal executive (President) to form the government and assume the post of Prime Minister. The Ministry stays in power only as long as it enjoys majority support in Parliament. The lower house of the Parliament in England (House of Commons) and in India (Lok Sabha) can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Ministry which means that the Prime Minister and his/her Council of Ministers must resign. This is due to parliamentary sovereignty. Thus, the executive is subordinate to and responsible to the Parliament (legislature).

Question 2.
President and Legislature in a presidential system.
Answer:
In a Presidential system, there is a separation of government powers and a system of checks and balances. The President i.e., head of the executive is directly elected by the citizens for a fixed tenure. He/she enjoys powers granted to the office by the constitution and must conduct his/her administration in accordance with laws passed by the legislature. Members of the executive are prohibited from being members of the legislature.

The legislature is also popularly elected. Its powers are not absolute since the President can exercise ‘Veto Power’ to reject a law passed by the legislature. Similarly, the legislature can also impeach the President if it is proved that the constitution has been violated by him/her. The President continues in office irrespective of whether he/she enjoys majority support in the legislature. However such lack of support may lead to a breakdown or impasse in government functioning.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain constitutionalism and constitutional morality.
Answer:
Constitutionalism refers to the idea that there should be limitations on the powers of the government which may be specified in the constitution or may arise due to historical developments. The Magna Carta (Great Charter) (1215) and Bill of Rights (1689) in England were attempts to restrict the powers of the Monarchs. As the concept of separation of legislative, executive, judicial powers became popular, so also, the idea of restricting powers of the government as a whole emerged. The origins of constitutionalism can be traced to the Social Contract Theory propounded by John Locke. He believed that people should have the right to change the government if it committed any wrongdoings.

The first ten amendments to the American Constitution (collectively called the Bill of Rights) imposed restrictions on the government. The Indian Constitution also restricts government jurisdiction so that it doesn’t violate Fundamental Rights.
Any constitution is subject to amendments. Thus, it is possible that certain governments may use their amendment powers to remove restrictions, on their policies and actions.

In any democracy, Constitutionalism refers to restrictions on the power of the government and adherence to the spirit of the constitution. It refers to the values which form its foundations and the manner in which those who hold power are expected to behave. This can be described by the term ‘Constitutional Monarchy’.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain Constitution and its three distinct interrelated components.
(i) What is a Constitution?
(ii) set of rules
(iii) set of rights
(iv) set of objectives and values
Answer:
(i) The constitution is the highest law of the country. It reflects the objectives of the state and the rights and aspirations of its citizens. It establishes the rule of law and sets limits on government authority. A constitution is a living document that indicates the way in which a country is governed. The primary function of the constitution is to lay out the basic structure of the government according to which the people are to be governed. A constitution has three distinct but interrelated components.

(ii) Set of Rules – A constitution is a set of rules that describes the structure, powers, and functions of the three organs of government to ensure that each organ functions without its jurisdiction. It lays down the limitations on what the government can do or cannot do.

(iii) Set of Rights – A constitution lists the rights of the citizens, means for the protection of these rights, and the duties of citizens. It also lists the means of protecting the rights e.g., in India, the judiciary is entrusted with protecting the rights. The rights guaranteed by the constitution are not unlimited i.e. they are subject to reasonable limitations.

(iv) Set of Objectives and Values – A constitution enumerates the values and objectives that it seeks to fulfill. For e.g., the Indian Constitution seeks to ensure the values of justice, liberty, and equality.

11th Political Science Digest Chapter 4 Constitutional Government Intext Questions and Answers

Find out! (Text Book Page No. 30)

How many times has the Indian Constitution been amended? What was the latest amendment?
Answer:
Amendments refer to changes in certain provisions of the constitution. In India, Article 368 deals with the amendment procedure. Till March 2019, the Indian Constitution has been amended 103 times. The 101st amendment (July 2017) introduced GST, the 102nd amendment gave constitutional status to National Commission for Backward Classes, and the 103rd amendment provided for a maximum of 10% reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS) by amending Articles 15,16. (Right to Equality)

Find out! (Text Book Page No.32)

Make a list of all Prime Ministers of India with their tenure.
Answer:

Jawaharlal Nehru (August 1947 – May 1964)
Gulzarilal Nanda – Acting Prime Minister (27 May 1964 – 9 June 1964, 11 January 1966 – 24 January 1966)
Lai Bahadur Shastri (June 1964 – January 1966)
Indira Gandhi (January 1966 – March 1977, January 1980 – October 1984)
Morarji Desai (March 1977 – July 1979)
Charan Singh (July 1979 – January 1980)
Rajiv Gandhi (October 1984 – December 1989)
V. P. Singh (December 1989 – November 1990)
Chandra Shekar (November 1990 – June 1991)
P. V. Narsimha Rao (June 1991 – May 1996)
A. B. Vajpayee (May 1996 – June 1996, March 1998 – May 2004)
H. D. Deve Gowda (June 1996 – April 1997)
I. K. Gujral (April 1997 – March 1998)
Dr. Manmohan Singh (May 2004 – May 2014)
Narendra Modi (May 2014 – till date)

Find out! (Text Book Page No. 34)

Name any four American Presidents who belonged to the Republican Party and for who belonged to the Democratic Party
Answer:

Republican Party – Abraham Lincoln, Richard Nixon, Ronald Reagan, George H. W. Bush, George W. Bush.
Democratic Party – F. D. Roosevelt, J. F. Kennedy, Bill Clinton, Barack Obama, Donald Trump.

Do this. (Text Book Page No. 35)

Look at the following subjects (Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution):

Law and Order
Atomic Energy
Banking
Agriculture
Police
Electricity
Education
Railways
Public health
Foreign affairs
Forests.

Find out which of these subjects is in Union, state, or concurrent list.
Answer:

Union List	State List	Concurrent List
Atomic Energy	Police	Education
Foreign Affairs	Agriculture	Electricity
Banking	Law and order	Forest
Railways	Public Health

Activity (Text Book Page No. 36)

What are the rights mentioned in the Bill of Rights of the American Constitution?
Answer:
The Bill of Rights refers to the first ten amendments of the US constitution. Some of the rights include.

First Amendment prohibits the making of any law impeding the free exercise of religion or restricting the freedom of speech or of the press or to assemble peacefully.
The Second Amendment protects the individual right to keep arms.
The Fifth Amendment protects against double jeopardy and self-incrimination.
The sixth amendment establishes a number of rights of the defendant in a criminal trial such as speedy, public trial by an impartial jury, the assistance of counsel, etc.
The Tenth amendment reinforces the principles of separation of powers and of federalism.

11th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

Equality and Justice Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 Maharashtra Board

February 11, 2025February 10, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Std 11 Equality and Justice Chapter 3 Question Answer The State Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 Equality and Justice Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The base of political equality is __________ (democracy, dictatorship, military rule, monarchy)
Answer:
democracy

Question 2.
John Rawls was an advocate of __________ justice. (distributive, political, economic, gender-based)
Answer:
distributive

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
The principle of equality states that each one should get an opportunity for the development of their individual personality.
Answer:
Equality of opportunity

Question 2.
Type of equality which says that every citizen has an equal right to participate in affairs of the State.
Answer:
Political equality

Question 3.
Absence of economic exploitation.
Answer:
Economic equality

1C. Complete the following sentence using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
In India, laws were made regarding the abolition of untouchability. Because
(a) untouchability is a political concept
(b) untouchability is a legal concept
(c) social inequality can be controlled by State legislation
Answer:
(c) social inequality can be controlled by State legislation

2. Complete the concept map/maps.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice 2 Q1
Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Democracy denies equality.
Answer:
This statement is False.

A democratic government is based on the pillars of liberty, equality, justice, and fraternity.
Equality signifies equality of opportunity, political participation, and equal protection of the law which can be ensured only in a democracy.

Question 2.
Equality is a political goal.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Equality signifies that all human beings have an equal worth irrespective of their race, religion, caste, etc. It, however, does not mean uniformity.
In modern times, equality includes aspects like tolerance and empathy i.e., a moral and collective dimension. It is also the basis of liberty and justice and is thus considered a political goal.

Question 3.
Social democracy is the foundation of political democracy.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Social democracy means that there is equality i.e., no distinction among individuals merely on basis of ethnicity, creed, gender, etc. It ensures the dignity of the individual.
Political democracy is expressed in political rights such as the right to vote, to criticize the government, etc. In the absence of social democratic political democracy will be less worthwhile.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Equality and justice.
Answer:
Equality refers to equal rights and opportunities for all persons irrespective of their race, creed, gender, etc. It means no person or group will be discriminated against socially, economically, or politically. Similarly, no person or group will have special privileges that are denied to the vast majority in society.

Justice refers to that state of affairs in which every individual gets exactly those burdens and benefits that are due to him. It refers to the absence of socio-economic, political, and legal injustices.

In the absence of equality, there will be a denial of justice and the progress of society will be hindered. Justice aims at the reconciliation of individual rights and larger social interests.

Question 2.
Legal Justice and Social Justice
Answer:
Legal justice is the application of the abstract concept of justice through the implementation of the law. Justice is a precondition to the law as, without it, the law may become an instrument of tyranny and suppression. Austin considers law as a means to suppress injustice as well as to establish justice. Legal justice signifies an independent and impartial judiciary that observes specific rules for judicial proceedings. Any accused should be charged keeping in mind his/her human rights.

Social justice is both reformative and distributive. It aims at a revision of the social order by doing away with socio-economic evils for e.g. to eradicate untouchability, there is Article 17 of the constitution as well as laws passed by Parliament.

Procedural justice demands equality before the law as well as correct interpretation and application of the law. Social justice is also reformative i.e., equitable distribution of goods and services so that underprivileged sections can get an adequate share in this distribution.

5. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Casteism is a barrier to social equality.
Answer:
The caste system is one of the basic features of Indian society. It implies divisions in society based merely on one’s birth into a particular section of society. There was a caste hierarchy in which the upper castes enjoyed privileges that were denied to the lower castes. Even, within the four main Chaturvaranas, hierarchies began to develop.

Casteism began to become a social evil, as it resulted in untouchability as well as the exploitation and segregation of lower castes. They were denied equal opportunities to have socio-economic and political rights. Casteism did not permit upward mobility in the caste hierarchy due to marriage or achievement. The intermingling of castes was prohibited. Lower castes were often discriminated against in educational, political, and employment facilities. In some cases, they were denied access to public places like water bodies, hospitals, etc.

Social equality means that there has to be no favouring of or discrimination against any person/group on irrelevant aspects like caste and creed. It means that the dignity and intrinsic worth of every person must be recognized. Thus, the rigid hierarchies and discrimination perpetuated by casteism hinder social equality.

6. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the Indian concept of Justice.
Answer:
There exist different kinds of inequalities in India, such as those created through the caste system, through the patriarchal system, etc. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar argued that justice would be achieved when the structure and values associated with these systems undergo a change. He also related the concept of justice to the concept of the distribution of resources. The Constitution of India ensures justice through both, procedural justice and social justice. This can be achieved through the educational and economic development of the backward classes.

Justice is implemented through the following policies:

The policy of reservation.
Granting of scholarships, grants, loans, health services, etc. for weaker sections of the society.
Eradication of unjust social and economic practices which exploit the backward classes.

11th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

The State Question Answer Class 11 Liberty and Rights Chapter 2 Maharashtra Board

February 11, 2025February 10, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Std 11 Liberty and Rights Chapter 2 Question Answer The State Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Liberty and Rights Chapter 2 The State Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Liberty and Rights Class 11 Chapter 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The book, ‘On Liberty’ was written by ___________ (Robert Nozick, Thomas Hobbes, J. S. Mill, Isaiah Berlin)
Answer:
J. S. Mill

Question 2.
The concept of Swaraj was spelled out by ___________ (Mahatma Gandhi, Mahatma Phule, Dr. Ambedkar, Dr. Rajendra Prasad)
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

1B. Complete the following sentence by using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
According to Jeremy Bentham, the State should not bring any obstruction, in liberty because –
(a) State does not give liberty.
(b) the individual knows how to protect his own interests.
(c) liberty is a hurdle-less situation.
Answer:
(b) the individual knows how to protect his own interests.

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Fundamental right introduced in Constitution of India by 86th Amendment.
Answer:
Right to education

Question 2.
Rights-based on the conscience of the individual and the community.
Answer:
Moral rights

2. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights 2 Q1
Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Legal rights are not universal.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Legal rights include political and civil rights which are granted by the State to the people. Legal rights are codified in law.
Different countries grant different rights to their people. Hence, unlike natural rights, legal rights are not universal.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Concept of Liberty by Thomas Hobbes and John Locke (Positive liberty and Negative liberty).
Answer:
Positive liberty and Negative liberty are two aspects of liberty that have their origin in liberalism. Negative liberty emerged from classical and neoclassical liberalism and finds expression in the views of thinkers like Jeremy Bentham, John Stuart Mill, Robert Nozick, Friedrich Hayek, and Isaiah Berlin.

Negative liberty opposes all restraints on liberty i.e., the State should not interfere in the social, economic life of the individual. It opposes any coercion, interference, or force on part of the State. The base negative aspect of liberty is the freedom of thought. Bentham argues that every person knows how to protect their own interest and hence no obstruction should be brought by the State.

John Stuart Mill suggests that negative liberty should be rejected only if it adversely impacts society. Hayek described liberty as a hurdle-less situation while Nozick suggested that the individual should be free from social, economic, and State restrictions. Berlin explains that negative liberty is opposition to restraints on the choice of alternatives.

The positive aspect of liberty as advocated by Jean-Jacques Rousseau and Herbert Marcuse emerged from modern liberalism. It states that liberty affects equality and justice. The law guides the individual towards the enrichment of their personality. Rousseau advocated the idea of State control over the individual since the State is a sovereign power that represents the ‘General Will’. Similarly, Marcuse advocates State interference and collective control as essential in community life.
We can conclude in the two statements of Isaiah Berlin.

The negative aspect of liberty – ‘I am a slave to no man’.
The positive aspect of liberty – ‘I am my own master’.

Question 2.
Natural rights and Legal rights.
Answer:
According to Harold Laski, ‘Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek, in general, to be himself at his best.

Rights may be classified as natural rights, moral rights or legal (civil-political) rights.
Natural Rights e.g., the right to life, are parts of human nature and reason. They are not dependent on the laws of any government or the customs of any culture. They are universal and inalienable. They are considered beyond the authority of any government or international body to dismiss. The idea of human rights is closely related to that of natural rights. In the United States Declaration of Independence, natural rights mentioned are ‘Life, Liberty, and pursuit of Happiness. Our natural rights as human beings include being treated justly regardless of race, religion, gender, region, etc.

John Locke and Thomas Hobbes strongly advocated natural rights. Natural rights are important because without them we would have no claim to freedom. Legal rights refer to rights according to law. These rights are granted by the State to the people and exist differently in different countries. They are justiciable and codified in law. Such rights are neither universal nor inalienable. Legal rights include civil rights and political rights.

5. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain Mahatma Gandhi’s idea of liberty
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi accepted the concept of Swaraj as liberty. He spelled this out in his work, ‘Hind Swaraj’. The term Swaraj implies a combination of two ideas: Self (Swa) and Rule (Raj). Thus Swaraj means Self-Rule. Gandhiji’s concept of Swaraj was comprehensive. He did not accept Swaraj only as freedom from British rule but also as freedom from western cultural domination. Swaraj would mean freedom from the trampling of humanitarian values. This concept gives more importance to self-governance, self-discipline, and human values.

Question 2.
Discuss the concept of Human Rights.
Answer:
Human Rights are those rights that we are entitled to simply because we are human beings. Henry Thoreau first described natural rights as human rights. These are basic rights of people anywhere in the world to be free from exploitation, injustice, and want, to lead a dignified existence, and to develop to the fullest extent. The U.N.O adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (U.D.H.R) on 10th December 1948. These rights are dynamic i.e., they develop with changing times. U.D.H.R expresses belief in the liberty and equality of human beings and promotes the culture of peace and cooperation.

Human rights can be classified as

Civil and Political rights – These are liberty-oriented rights like the right to freedom of thought, right to vote, etc
Social, Cultural, and Economic rights – These include the right to social justice, the right to work, etc.
Developmental rights – These are linked to the concept of fraternity e.g., the right to a healthy environment, right to information.

The implementation of human rights requires favorable political, socio-economic conditions in the state. In the absence of such, these rights may be violated or denied as happens in the case of women, children, displaced persons, minorities, etc.

Question 3.
Explain Isaiah Berlin’s concept of Liberty.
Answer:
Isaiah Berlin in his famous essay, ‘Two Concepts of Liberty’, discussed Negative and Positive Liberty. He believed that liberty is unrestrained. According to Isaiah Berlin, freedom of action is negative liberty. As per this principle, the opportunity to act is important while the action itself is secondary.

According to him, the impact of the action is not considered important and hence it is not measured. Therefore, this principle does not give importance to quality. For example, this concept does not make a qualitative difference between choosing one’s education, profession, or suffer deprivation. He would rather give importance to give an opportunity to do these actions than the outcome of the action itself.

Isaiah Berlin has mentioned the following features of negative liberty.

Individuals should have complete freedom of choice. He should not have restraints on the choice of alternatives. Opposition to such restraints is a feature of negative liberty.
Negative Liberty is based on Neoliberalism.

6. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate the concept of Rights –
(a) Meaning and Classification of Rights
(b) Legal Rights
(c) Human Rights
Answer:
(i) Meaning and Classification of Rights: Rights are those social conditions that are necessary for the development of our personality. Laski defines rights as ‘those conditions of social life without which no man can seek, in general, to be himself at his best.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights 6 Q1

Natural Rights – These rights are universal in character e.g. the right to life and liberty.
Moral Rights – These rights are based on the conscience of the person and the community e.g. respect for elders.
Legal Rights – These rights are granted by the state and are codified in law. These rights are not universal. Legal rights may be:
- Civil rights: related to the person and property of the individual’s right to liberty, equality, property.
- Political rights: are available only to citizens in a democratic State and aim to encourage active political participation e.g. the right to vote, to contest elections.

(ii) Legal Rights: These rights refer to rights according to law. These rights are granted by the State to the people and exist differently in different countries. They are justiciable and codified in law. Such rights are neither universal nor inalienable. Legal rights include civil rights and political rights.

(iii) Human Rights: These rights are those rights that we are entitled to simply because we are human beings. Henry Thoreau first described natural rights as human rights. These are basic rights of people anywhere in the world to be free from exploitation, injustice, and want, to lead a dignified existence, and to develop to the fullest extent. The UNO adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights on 10th December 1948. These rights are dynamic i.e. they develop with changing times. UDHR expresses belief in the liberty and equality of human beings and promotes a culture of peace and cooperation.

Human rights can be classified as

Civil and Political rights – These are liberty-oriented rights like the right to freedom of thought, right to vote, etc.
Social, Cultural, and Economic rights – These include the right to social justice, the right to work, etc.
Developmental rights – These are linked to the concept of fraternity e.g. right to a healthy environment, right to information.

The implementation of human rights requires favorable political, socio-economic conditions. In the absence of such, these rights may be violated or denied as in the case of women, children, displaced persons, minorities, etc.

Activity 1 (Text Book Page No. 17)

Make a list of Civil Rights in India.
Answer:
Civil rights in India include

Right to life
Right to personal freedom
Right to Family life
Right to freedom of religion
Right to freedom of thought and expression including freedom of the press
Right to freedom of movement association and assembly
Right to Education
Right to freedom of occupation and vocation
Right to freedom from arbitrary arrest
Right to justice.

Activity 2 (Text Book Page No. 15)

Discuss and make a note of examples of human rights violations.
Answer:
Human rights violations are noticed in many countries of the world.

Violation of rights of women: In many countries exhibiting a patriarchal mindset, women are considered as having an inferior status. They become victims of social evils like dowry, female foeticide, F.G.M., and of crimes like sexual assaults, domestic violence, etc.
Violation of rights of children: The world over and especially in poorer countries or in areas of conflict, violation of child rights occurs by physical neglect, abandonment, abuse, sexual crimes, child labour, etc.
Violation of rights of underprivileged sections: Such persons face exploitation, deprivation, discrimination, and poverty. This section includes tribals, handicapped persons, ethnic/religious/linguistic minorities.
Violation of rights of displaced persons: Displacement of persons may be due to hostile government, civil war, and conflicts, natural disasters, developmental projects, etc. Such persons are often unwanted everywhere e.g., Syrian refugees.

11th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

The State Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 Maharashtra Board

February 11, 2025February 10, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 The State Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 1 Question Answer The State Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 The State Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the appropriate alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The term Nation is derived from the Latin word ___________ (Nasci, Natio, Natalis, Nauto)
Answer:
Nasci

Question 2.
The origin of Liberal Nationalism is in the ___________ Revolution. (American, Russian, French, British)
Answer:
French

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Aristotle – German Thinker
(b) Jean Bodin – French Thinker
(c) Woodrow Wilson – American Thinker
(d) Harold Laski – British Thinker
Answer:
(a) Aristotle – Greek Thinker

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
The force which holds the people to a sense of political loyalty to the country –
Answer:
Nationalism

Question 2.
The area of the State within which it has the authority to govern –
Answer:
Jurisdiction

2. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Progressive Nationalism can create differences amongst people.
Answer:
This statement is False.

Progressive nationalism is integral nationalism that can help people of a society to unite and to promote development towards the objective of national integration.
Aggressive nationalism is destructive and can create differences amongst people.

Question 2.
Sovereignty means State has the freedom to take its own decision.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Sovereignty refers to the supreme power of the state internally as well as externally.
The State is free from external control and also legally sovereign with its own independent constitution.

Question 3.
Palestine is a State.
Answer:
This statement is False.

The state has four essential elements i.e. population, territory, government, and sovereignty. Palestine does not have a sovereign government. Its territory is under Israeli jurisdiction.
Hence, Palestine is a nation, not a State although more than 100 members of the UNO have given recognition to Palestine as a State.

Question 4.
Expansionist Nationalism is a type of Aggressive Nationalism.
Answer:
This statement is True.

In the expansionist form of nationalism, countries become aggressive, imperialist, and colonialist, and create empires for national glory.
This has been noticed in Nazi Germany Fascist Italy.

3. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
India is a State.
Answer:
I agree with the above statement.
In Political Science, the term ‘State’ is used to describe a sovereign country. Anti-colonial nationalism led to the freedom struggle in India and subsequent independence from British Rule in 1947.

Any state has the following elements:

Sovereignty: India achieved the status of a Sovereign Republic on 26th January 1950 when its constitution came into effect.
Government: As a British colony, there was a government but it was not a sovereign government However, after political independence, a Sovereign, Parliamentary, Federal government was constituted in India.
Territory: India is defined by its geographical boundaries. Its jurisdiction extends all over its compact territory, now comprising of 29 states and 7 union territories.
Population: India has a vast population, exhibiting great diversity in terms of ethnicity/race, region and language, culture, religion, and so on. Thus, we can conclude that India is a nation-state.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What are the features of a Nation?
Answer:
The word ‘nation’ is derived from the Latin word ‘Nasci’ meaning ‘to be born’. Thus, the literal meaning of a nation is a people having a common race/ethnicity or cultural linkages. Earnest Barker defines a nation as a body of men, inhabiting a definite territory, who normally are drawn from different races but possess a common stock of thoughts and feelings acquired and transmitted during the course of common history.

A nation refers to a large group of people, united in common bonds of geography, race, history, religion, language, sharing common objectives.

Features of a Nation:

Population: A nation must have a population that has a sense of ethnic, historical, and cultural oneness.
Feeling of community: The emotional dimension of a nation is a perception held by the population of psychological oneness i.e., they are a community.
Desire to be politically separate: A feeling of unity and of being a nation is a product of the urge for ‘self-determination’. This can lead to a demand for self-governance. This signifies that people who feel united should have the right to decide the type of government that they prefer.

Question 2.
What is Nationalism? Explain its types.
Answer:
Nationalism is a force that binds the people to a sense of integrity and loyalty to their country. It is a spirit of oneness or common consciousness that binds a community together. Nationalism is a sense of political identity and emotional attachment to one’s ‘homeland’.

The forms of Nationalism from a political perspective are:

Liberal Nationalism: Its origins are in the ideals of the French Revolution. President Woodrow Wilson linked the concept of a nation to the right to self-determination and sovereignty.
Conservative Nationalism: It views a nation as a closely linked society with great importance to patriotism and the concept of ‘motherland’.
Expansionist Nationalism: It is aggressive nationalism, which leads to imperialism, conquest, and colonialism. It has been seen in European imperialism by countries like England, Italy, Spain, France, etc.
Anticolonial Nationalism: It refers to liberation struggles for independence from colonial rule, e.g., Indonesian freedom struggle from Dutch colonial rule.

5. Answer the following question in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the following elements of the State.
(a) Sovereignty
(b) Government
(c) Population
(d) Territory
Answer:
(a) Sovereignty: It signifies the supreme power of the State internally as well as externally. It means an independent nation with its own constitution.

(b) Government: This refers to the agency through which the will of the state is expressed. Modern governments have three organs viz. legislature, executive, and judiciary. Government must be independent. Institutions of the State are ‘public’ institutions and have the legitimacy to act on behalf of the State. These institutions are responsible for making and implementing laws to promote the general welfare of the people. There are various kinds of government based on their creation or style of function for e.g., democracy or dictatorship, republic or monarchy, presidential or parliamentary system, etc.

(c) Population: A State is an association of human beings. The progress of a State depends on the quality of the population. Some states viz. China, India, etc., have a large population while some States have a small population viz. Monaco, Belgium, etc. The population may be homogeneous e.g., Israel or diverse e.g. erstwhile USSR comprised of many nationalities like Russians, Ukrainians, Latvians, etc. Thus a ‘State’ may comprise of many ‘nations’.

(d) Territory: A State is recognized by its territory. This includes the land area within its boundaries, the airspace above the area, and surrounding territorial waters (up to 12 nautical miles). The area within which the State has the authority to govern is called its jurisdiction. Some states have a small territory e.g., Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Maldives, etc., while other States e.g., Brazil, Russia, India, and Australia have a large territory. Most States have compact territory e.g., India, while some states which exist as islands have scattered territory e.g., Indonesia.

Activity (Text Book Page No.8)

Identify the States with the smallest territory and largest territory on the world map.
Answer:
States having the largest territory: Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil, Australia, India, Argentina, Kazakhstan, Algeria, etc.
States with the smallest territory: Vatican City, Monaco, Nauru, San Marino, Maldives, Singapore, Mauritius, Fiji, etc.

11th Std Political Science Questions And Answers:

The Indian Subcontinent and History Question Answer Class 6 History Chapter 1 Maharashtra Board

February 11, 2025February 10, 2025 by Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 1 The Indian Subcontinent and History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Std 6 History Chapter 1 Question Answer The Indian Subcontinent and History Maharashtra Board

Class 6 History Chapter 1 The Indian Subcontinent and History Question Answer Maharashtra Board

The Indian Subcontinent and History Class 6 Questions And Answers

1. Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is history?
Answer:
History is a coherent account of the significant past events in the progress of human culture.

Question 2.
Where do human settlements flourish?
Answer:
Human settlements have flourished wherever the means of living are plentiful.

Question 3.
What do the people in the hilly region j depend on for their food?
Answer:
In the hilly regions people depend more on hunting and gathering for their food.

Question 4.
Which was the earliest civilization in India?
Answer:
The Harappan civilization was the earliest civilization in India.

2. Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
What does human life depend on?
Answer:
Human life in any region depends to a large extent on its geographical characteristics, diet, clothing, housing and occupation.

Question 2.
What features of our surroundings form the means of our livelihood?
Answer:
The climate, rainfall, agricultural produce, flora and fauna of the region where we live form the source or means of our livelihood.

Question 3.
Which region is known as the Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
Afghanistan, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and India together form the region known as south Asia. Considering the expanse and significance of India in this region, it is also known as the Indian subcontinent.

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
There is a close relation between history and geography.
Answer:

Time, place, society and individuals are four major pillars without which history cannot be written.
Of these four components ‘place’ is related to geography or geographical conditions.
This makes history and geography inseperable i.e. very closely related.

Question 2.
People are forced to leave their settlements.
Answer:

Sometimes reasons like degradation of the environment, drought, invasion, etc. leads to scarcity of means.
Therefore, people are forced to leave their settlements in their fight for survival.

4. Explain the difference in the human life in the hilly regions and that on the plains.
Answer:

Human life in the Hilly region	Human life in the Plains
(1) Human life was very strenuous	(1) Life was more comfortable.
(2) Land was not fertile. therefore no So agriculture was wcarried on.	(2) Land was very Fertile So agriculture was carried on.
(3) Grains and vegetables Grains and are scarce.	(3) Grains and vegetables are found in plenty
(4) They depend on hunting and gathering for their food.	(4) They do not depend on hunting and gathering for their food.

5. Observe the physical map of India and answer the questions based on it:

Question 1.
Which mountain ranges lie in the north of India?
Answer:
The Hindukush and the Himalayan mountain ranges.

Question 2.
Which are the routes to India from the north-east?
Answer:
The route to India from the north east is by sea.

Question 3.
Where do the Ganga and Brahmaputra meet?
Answer:
The Ganga and Brahmaputra meet in Bangladesh.

Question 4.
Name the islands to the east of the Indian peninsula.
Answer:
The Andaman and Nicobar islands are the Indian islands to the east of the Indian peninsula.

Question 5.
In which part of India do we see the Thar Desert?
Answer:
We see the Thar Desert in the north western part of India.

Activity:

Obtain information about the lakes or reservoirs in your locality.
Show the following on a world map :
1. The Himalaya Mountain
2. The Silk Road
3. Arabia

Class 6 History Chapter 1 The Indian Subcontinent and History Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
________ is a coherent account of the significant past events in the progress of human culture.
(a) History
(b) Geography
(c) Civics
Answer:
History

Question 2.
Not much fertile land is available in the ______ region.
(a) plains
(b) hilly
(c) plateau
Answer:
hilly

Question 3.
Grains and vegetables are _______ in the hilly areas.
(a) scarce
(b) plenty
(c) moderate
Answer:
scarce

Question 4.
In the ______ regions, people depend more on hunting and gathering for their food.
(a) plateau
(b) plains
(c) hilly
Answer:
hilly

Question 5.
Human settlements have flourished wherever the means of living are _______.
(a) scarce
(b) plentiful
(c) moderate
Answer:
plentiful

Question 6.
_____ lies to the north of India.
(a) Andaman
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Himalayas
Answer:
Himalayas

Question 7.
_____ lies to the east of India.
(a) Bay of Bengal
(b) Eastern ghats
(c) Lakshadweep
Answer:
Bay of Bengal

Question 8.
_________ lies to west of India.
(a) Himalayas
(b) Arabian sea
(c) Brahmaputra
Answer:
Arabian sea

Question 9.
______ lies to the south of India.
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Pacific Ocean
Answer:
Indian Ocean

Question 10.
The Hindukush and Himalayan ranges have created an impenetrable wall on the nothern side of the ________ subcontinent.
(a) Indian
(b) Foreign
(c) Asian
Answer:
Indian

Question 11.
There is a land route through the Khyber and Bolan passes in the ______ mountains.
(a) Himalayan
(b) Satpuda
(c) Hindukush
Answer:
Hindukush

Question 12.
The _____ desert spreads across Rajasthan, Haryana and some parts of Gujarat.
(a) Bhor
(b) Thar
(c) Arabian
Answer:
Thar

Question 13.
The _______ river that originates in Himachal Pradesh reaches the Thar desert.
(a) Ganga
(b) Sindhu
(c) Ghaggar
Answer:
Ghaggar

Question 14.
A region that is bound by sea on three sides is called a ______.
(a) peninsula
(b) plateau
(c) island
Answer:
peninsula

Question 15.
A major part of the Indian peninsula is occupied by the_______ plateau.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bengal
(c) Deccan
Answer:
Deccan

Question 16.
The mountain ranges of the Vindhya and Satpuda are located to the of the ________ Deccan Plateau.
(a) east
(b) north
(c) west
Answer:
north

Question 17.
Deccan plateau was a part of the ______ empire, the largest in ancient India.
(a) Maurya
(b) Gupta
(c) Chola
Answer:
Maurya

Question 18.
Lakshadweep is a group of Indian islands in the _____ Sea.
(a) Red
(b) Dead
(c) Arabian
Answer:
Arabian

Question 19.
The Harappan civilization had spread mainly in the ________ part of the Indian subcontinent.
(a) southeastern
(b) northwestern
(c) southwestern
Answer:
north western

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column (A)	Column (B)
(1) Himalayas	(a) South
(2) Indian Ocean	(b) East
(3) Arabian Sea	(c) North
(4) Bay of Bengal	(d) West

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – d
4 – b

Question 2.

Column (A)	Column (B)
(1) China	(a) Deccan plateau
(2) Vindhya range	(b) Not a part of Indian subcontinent
(3) Bangladesh	(c) In Bay of Bengal
(4) Andaman and Nicobar islands	(d) In the Hindukush mountains
(5) Khyber and Bolan passes	(e) Part of Indian subcontinent

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – e
4 – c
5 – d

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Give the four major pillars without which history could not have been written.
Answer:
Time, place, society and individuals are the four major pillars of history, without which history could not have been written.

Question 2.
What has created an impenetrable wall on j the northern side of the Indian subcontinent? j
Answer:
Two mountain ranges, the Hindukush and Himalayan ranges have created an impenetrable wall on the northern side of the Indian subcontinent.

Question 3.
Which passes form a route in the Hindukush mountains?
Answer:
The Khyber and the Bolan passes form a land route in the Hindukush mountains.

Question 4.
What is known as ‘Hakra’ in Pakistan?
Answer:
The Ghaggar river that originates in Himachal Pradesh reaches the Thar desert. It is known as ‘Hakra’ in Pakistan.

Question 5.
Which plateau occupies a major part of the Indian peninsula?
Answer:
The Deccan plateau occupies a major part of the Indian peninsula.

Question 6.
Which mountain range is to the north of the Deccan plateau?
Answer:
The Vindhya and Satpuda mountain ranges are located to the north of the Deccan plateau.

Question 7.
Name the Indian islands in the Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar are the Indian islands in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 8.
Which manuscript mentions the Indian islands?
Answer:
The manuscript ‘Periplus of the Erythrean Sea’ or ‘Handbook of the Red Sea’ by an unknown Greek sailor, makes a mention of Indian islands.

Question 9.
Which two ancient cities are in today’s Pakistan?
Answer:
The cities of Harappa and Mohenjo-daro are in today’s Pakistan.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
State the extent of our country, India.
Answer:
Our country India, extends far and wide:

To its north lies the Himalayas.
To the east, the Bay of Bengal.
To the west, the Arabian Sea.
And to the south, the Indian ocean.
Except for the islands of Andaman, Nicobar and Lakshadweep, the rest of the country is contiguous.

Question 2.
Describe the trade route from China to Arabia.
Answer:

There is a land route through the Khyber and Bolan passes in the Hindukush mountains.
This land route was connected to an ancient trade route.
The trade route from China in the east passed through central Asia and reached Arabia in the west.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
The trade route from west to east was also called the silk route.
Answer:

Silk was the main commodity exported to the western countries using this trade route.
Therefore this trade route from west to east was called the ‘silk route’ or ‘silk road’.

6th Std History Questions And Answers: